70-647 Flashcards
1
Q
BIND
A
Berkeley Internet Name Darmon
DNS server
2
Q
Bubbles
A
Teredo client.
Bubble messages create mapping’s for both computers in each other’s NAT routers.
3
Q
Format Prefix FP
A
A sequence of bits that identify atheism address type
4
Q
Forwarder
A
DNS system forwards name resolution requests to another DNS server specified by an administrator. Recursive not iterative queries
(Subsequent queries)
5
Q
GlobalNamesZone
A
New DNS feature can resolve single-label names like those us d in NetBIOS
6
Q
Global unicast address
A
IPv6 equivalent of registered IPv4 address - routable worldwide and unique on the Internet
7
Q
ISATAP
A
Inter-Site Automatic Tunnel Addressing Protocol
TCP
Link that emulates an IPv6 link using IPv4 network
8
Q
Iterative query
A
DNS query that responds immediately with the best information available
9
Q
Link-local address
FD/FC:80
A
IPv6 equivalent APIPA address in IPv4 - Automatic Private IP Addressing
10
Q
Network Address Translation
A
Group of workstations share single address
11
Q
OUI
A
Organisationally Unique Identifier - first 24 bits of a MAC Address which identifies the company who made the adaptor
12
Q
Proxy Server
A
Server on a private network forwards requests onto the internet using its own registered address
13
Q
Recursive query
A
DNS server reviving the query takes full responsibility for resolving the name
14
Q
Referral
A
Process in which a DNS server sends a name resolution request to another DNS server
15
Q
Scope
A
IPv6 the size an address functionality area
16
Q
SLAAC
A
Stateless Address Auto-configuration.
Process during which a computer assigns each interface a link local address
17
Q
Teredo
A
Allows non IPv6 NAT routers to function as tunnel end points
18
Q
Unique local Unicast Address
A
IPv6 equivalent of private network addresses in IPv4
19
Q
WINS
A
Windows Internet Name System
App that registers NetBIOS names and IP addresses as computers connect to the network.
20
Q
Zone Transfer
A
In DNS the process by which the server hosting the primary zone copies the primary zone database file to the secondary zone so the records match
21
Q
Multiple server WSUS architecture assume remote sites are well connected. However some sites have relatively low-bandwidth connections. In cases like these it is best to limit updates (usually critical). A
Answer
WSUS server limits to critical updates being transferred to remote servers. (answer does not include spaces)
A
low-bandwidth
22
Q
In the simplest configuration, a
Answer
WSUS server downloads updates from the Microsoft Update Site.
A
single
23
Q
Select from the following, all of the problems associated with non-centralised updates. Select one or more: a. Efficient bandwidth use b. Heavy bandwidth utilisation c. Compliance d. Update approval e. Centralised reports
A
b. Heavy bandwidth utilisation
(Each O.S. is performing separate updates, which of course uses more network bandwidth.)
c. Compliance
(Default windows update settings provide no means for feedback to administrators.)
d. Update approval
(Each user on each computer must approve updates individually.)
24
Q
In a basic configuration a single WSUS server can support how many clients? Select one: a. 25,000 b. 5,000 c. 10,000 d. 1,000 e. 50,000
A
25,000
25
```
Where would the administrator configure WSUS automatic updates easiest?
Select one:
a. Registry editor
b. Using a GPO (Group policy)
c. On each individual PC.
d. On the server "Control panel"
```
Using a GPO (Group policy)
26
This question tests knowledge of where you would use WSUS and where you would not.
Match the following 2 statements with the correct answer:
Mobile workstations?
Small offices?
Mobile workstations – would not have access to a dedicated update server most of the time
Small offices – don't really benefit as time configuring is greater than manual effort
27
The
Answer
WSUS server architecture is the same as a replica or autonomous server, except that instead of central servers transmitting updates directly to the downstream servers, administrators save updates to a shared medium.
disconnected
28
Match the following terms with the correct response.
An upstream WSUS server is:
A downstream WSUS server is:
An upstream WSUS server is: – where updates originate and are distributed.
A downstream WSUS server is: – a server that acquires updates and passes them to clients.
29
WSUS servers, function in much the same way as replica WSUS servers, except that remote administrators at each site are responsible for evaluating & approving updates.
Autonomous
30
In a
Answer
WSUS server configuration, one central WSUS server downloads updates from the Microsoft update website. Approved updates filter down to additional downstream servers. This model minimises internet traffic, offloading transmissions to the LAN instead.
replica
31
```
3 common examples of IP address tunneling are:
Select one or more:
a. SLARP
b. 6 to 4
c. Teredo
d. 4 to 6
e. ISATAP
```
6 to 4,
ISATAP,
Teredo
32
```
The address 180.76.5.136 is an example of which class of IP address?
Write your answer in the following format: Class X
```
class b
33
How many bits are available for IPv6 subnetting?
Select one:
a. 16 bits (bits 48-64)
b. 8 bits (bits 16-32)
c. 32 bits (bits 32-64)
d. You can't as you don't need to subnet IPv6
a. 16 bits (bits 48-64)
| Directly after the global routing prefix
34
The main reason for using "Dual stack" is to?
Select one:
a. Speed up data transfer
b. Improve performance
c. To force users to upgrade their client operating systems.
d. Make the transition from IPv4 to IPv6 as simple as possible.
Make the transition from IPv4 to IPv6 as simple as possible.
35
Generally speaking, where would Class A networks be used?
Select one or more:
a. Serial links.
b. The military; using a private address range.
c. ISP's (RIR)
d. VERY large organisations
e. Networks that require a small number of addresses.
VERY large organisations, ISP's (RIR), The military; using a private address range.
36
```
In order to use IPv6 across your entire network, the following devices must be configured correctly:
Select one or more:
a. Modems
b. Switches
c. Hardware firewalls
d. Client machines
e. Routers
```
Routers, Switches, Client machines, Hardware firewalls
37
What service must be enabled in order to audit AD DS activity?
Select one:
a. The Audit directory service access policy in the Default Domain Controllers Policy GPO.
b. The Audit management service access policy in the Default Domain Controllers Policy GPO.
c. The Audit forest service access policy in the Default Domain Controllers Policy GPO.
d. The Monitor directory service access policy in the Default Domain Controllers Policy GPO.
The Audit directory service access policy in the Default Domain Controllers Policy GPO.
38
The purpose of setting the domain and forest functional levels is:
Select one:
a. to activate features that have been introduced in successive versions of Windows Server.
b. to force the administrators to install the latest Windows Servers.
c. to tell the administrators what the oldest version of Windows Server is in the forest/domain.
d. to tell the administrators what the latest version of Windows Server is in the forest/domain.
to activate features that have been introduced in successive versions of Windows Server.
39
Administrative isolation is:
Select one:
a. when an individual is granted complete administration over some part of a domain.
b. when an individual is granted complete administration control over some part of a forest.
c. when an individual has complete and exclusive control over some part of a forest.
d. when an individual has complete and exclusive control over some part of a domain.
when an individual has complete and exclusive control over some part of a forest
40
```
Which of the following is a Service Management Role?
Select one:
a. Help Desk Operators
b. Replication Monitoring Operators
c. Business Unit Administrators
d. Workstation Administrators
```
Replication Monitoring Operators
41
Common reasons for creating OUs is (2 answers):
Select one or more:
a. to gain access to resources in another domain.
b. to make the structure of the OUs reflect the company's organizational chart.
c. to gain access to resources in another forest.
d. to delegate administrative control over parts of the enterprise.
to delegate administrative control over parts of the enterprise.,
to make the structure of the OUs reflect the company's organizational chart.
42
The restricted-access forest model ...
Select one:
a. is achieved by setting up a two-way trust to the restricted forest.
b. is intended for an enterprise with a business unit that must remain completely isolated from the rest of the network.
c. is achieved by setting up a one-way non transitive trust to the restricted forest.
d. is used for an enterprise with some parts which must have restricted access from the remainder of the network.
is intended for an enterprise with a business unit that must remain completely isolated from the rest of the network.
43
A shortcut trust is used:
Select one:
a. to speed the process of logging on between child domains of separate trees in the same forest.
b. to enable a child domain in one tree to log on to a child domain in another tree in the same forest.
c. to enable a child domain in one tree to log on to a child domain in another tree in different forests.
d. to speed the process of logging on between child domains of separate trees in different forests.
to speed the process of logging on between child domains of separate trees in the same forest.
44
Perimeter networks are often created:
Select one:
a. to host Internet servers so that they are accessible from the internet, but are isolated from the internal network.
b. to isolate elements of an enterprise by business units.
c. to isolate elements of an enterprise by geographical areas.
d. and always contain a separate forest.
to host Internet servers so that they are accessible from the internet, but are isolated from the internal network.
45
The group nesting strategy is often referred to as?
| Answer:
AGGUDLP
| Accounts-->Global groups-->Other global groups-->Universal groups-->Domain local groups-->Permissions.
46
If the forest root domain is irretrievably lost then...
Select one:
a. only the tree for which it is the root will be affected. Other trees in the forest will be unaffected.
b. The role of forest root domain should be reassigned to another domain
c. It has no operational effect on the forest.
d. The forest has to be rebuilt from scratch.
The forest has to be rebuilt from scratch.
47
The term latency (in relation to sites) means?
Select one:
a. The replication schedule
b. The time it takes for replication to propagate to all DC's.
c. The replication interval
d. The response time of the server
The time it takes for replication to propagate to all DC's.
48
```
The location of all servers by default in "AD Sites & Services" is:
Select one:
a. 1st Site
b. Default Site
c. Default-First-Site-Name
d. Default
e. Servers
```
Default-First-Site-Name
| It is important to remember the hyphens
49
Which of the following statements are true, relating to site link bridging?
Select one or more:
a. Is enabled by default
b. Must involve more than 2 sites
c. Must be configured manually
d. Can only involve 2 sites
e. Treats all site links as equally available
f. Enables administrators to customise replication traffic.
Must involve more than 2 sites, Is enabled by default, Treats all site links as equally available
50
Which of the following statements are true regarding; Intra-site replication?
Select one or more:
a. Traffic is compressed
b. Replication occurs according to a schedule
c. Is uncompressed
d. Rarely needs configuring
e. Requires creation and configuration of site links
Is uncompressed,
| Rarely needs configuring
51
```
According to the textbook 70-647, the single site model assumes that DC's are:
Select one:
a. Co-located
b. High powered
c. Running Server2008
d. Well connected
```
Well connected
| Good. The assumption is that speeds exceed 512Kbps (most ADSL/WAN links do)
52
The definition of a "Site" in active directory is:
Select one:
a. A descriptor of the speed available on a LAN\WAN link
b. A collection of DC's from various forests
c. A term that defines domain boundaries.
d. An area of active directory network in which all of the domain controllers are well connected.
d. An area of active directory network in which all of the domain controllers are well connected.
Textbook answer from page 69
53
You can rename the "Default-First-Site-Name" without causing any problems.
Select one:
True
False
True
54
Match the following terms with their definitions.
The only site created automatically is
Answer 1
AD uses
Answer 2
Intersite replication is
Answer 3
A site is defined as an
Answer 4
Intrasite replication is
Answer 5
The default transport between sites is the
Answer 6
The only site created automatically is – DEFAULT-FIRST-SITE-NAME,
AD uses – multimaster replication,
Intersite replication is – where replication occurs between 2 (or more) sites,
A site is defined as an – area of AD where DC's are well connected,
Intrasite replication is – where replication occurs within one site,
The default transport between sites is the – DEFAULTIPSITELINK
55
Which of the following statements are true regarding; Inter-site replication?
Select one or more:
a. Is uncompressed
b. Rarely needs configuring
c. Requires creation and configuration of site links
d. Traffic is compressed
e. Replication occurs according to a schedule
Replication occurs according to a schedule, Traffic is compressed,
Requires creation and configuration of site links
56
The default site created after DCPromo command has been run is called:?
Answer:
Default-First-Site-Name
57
```
Which of the following criteria should be considered when selecting a migration path.
Select one or more:
a. Productivity
b. Bandwidth
c. Design
d. Time
e. Effort
f. Redundancy
g. Manpower
h. Budget
```
```
Design,
Time,
Budget,
Productivity,
Manpower
```
58
Is the following statement true or false?
When performing an "Interforest migration", you create a new Server2008 R2 forest - called a pristine forest.
Select one:
True
False
True
59
Type the command (as if you were using the CMD prompt) to prepare a down-level domain for the addition of Server2008R2 DC's.
Answer:
adprep /domainprep /gpprep
60
Match the following statements with the appropriate answer.
Domain restructure migration
Answer 1
Upgrade-then-restructure
Answer 2
Domain-upgrade migration
Answer 3
Domain restructure migration – Create a pristine forest on a new DC.Allows administrators to make changes.,
Upgrade-then-restructure – Best of both worlds, a 2 phase process that buys time to make changes later., Domain-upgrade migration – Easiest path-bring newer servers online and let objects replicate.
61
What is the correct (Recommended) Order of Migration?
Select one:
a. Computers, Groups, Users b. Groups, Users, Computers
c. Groups, Computers, Users
d. Computers, Users, Groups
Groups, Users, Computers
62
```
A free package from Microsoft that enables easy movement of objects, within or between forests. Includes a "modelling mode" to try out redesigns before making them permanent.
Select one:
a. ADPrep
b. Domainprep
c. ADMT
d. SCCM
```
ADMT
63
Type the command (as if you were using the CMD prompt) to prepare a forest for the addition of Server2008R2 DC's.
adprep /forestprep
64
If moving objects between forests, and therefore switching SIDs (Security Identifier), what is the name of the attribute in AD DS that maps the SID from one forest, to the SID from the new forest?
sIDHistory
65
Is the following statement true or false?
When performing an "Intraforest migration", you create a new Server2008 R2 forest - called a pristine forest.
Select one:
True
False
False
66
```
Being able to deploy applications or services to business partners over the internet, but without creating an AD trust relationship, uses which role service?
Select one:
a. AD FS
b. AD RMS
c. RRAS
d. AD DS
```
AD FS
67
WHAT? is the full version of Server 2008R2 (Standard or Enterprise), but is considered more secure due to missing the GUI (graphical user interface)
Servercore
68
A "medium" branch office is defined as having (up to)
100
69
"Admin role separation" is described as?
Select one:
a. Delegating domain admin tasks on an RODC
b. Granting a user account; individual local administrative privileges on an RODC.
c. Giving control over an O.U
d. Delegating tasks in Active Directory
e. Granting users total administrative access to a server
Granting a user account; individual local administrative privileges on an RODC.
70
```
The "Branchcache" feature has 2 configuration options. When it obtains files from a server on the network, it is classed as _________________ mode.
Select one:
a. DFS
b. Distributed
c. Cluster
d. Random
e. Hosted
```
Hosted
71
A "small" branch office is defined as having (up to)
Answer
users.
10
72
As per the Branch Office Resources recommendations, locations have either? (Choose 3)
Select one or more:
a. Dedicated administrative staff (Full staff)
b. Outsourced administrators
c. No dedicated admin staff (Branch manager)
d. Dedicated administrative staff (1 staff member)
e. Remote Administration
Dedicated administrative staff (Full staff),
Dedicated administrative staff (1 staff member),
No dedicated admin staff (Branch manager)
73
```
As per the Branch Office Topology recommendations, what should be considered regarding services at a branch office?
Select one or more:
a. WAN connection speed/bandwidth
b. Number of Domain Controllers
c. Creation of a separate site
d. Number of users
e. DNS server/Global catalogue server
f. OU structure
g. Forest functional level
h. Standard/Enterprise Server edition
```
```
Number of users,
WAN connection speed/bandwidth,
Number of Domain Controllers,
DNS server/Global catalogue server,
Creation of a separate site
```
74
The following statements regarding the use of a RODC, should be paired up (drag the correct words in place):
When installing a ?, there must be at least one ?contactable to be able to complete the ? command. The "best practice" is to ? the account in A.D beforehand.
When installing a [RODC], there must be at least one [Writable DC] contactable to be able to complete the [DCPROMO] command. The "best practice" is to [Pre‑Stage] the account in A.D beforehand.
75
```
The "Branchcache" feature has 2 configuration options. When it obtains files from another PC on the network, it is classed as _________________ mode.
Select one:
a. DFS
b. Random
c. Cluster
d. Distributed
e. Hosted
```
Distributed
76
A "Large" branch office is classed as having (up to)
Answer
users.
1000
77
```
How many "Remote Desktop Licenses" are included with Server 2008 R2 O.S?
Select one:
a. 8
b. 1
c. Unlimited
d. 2
```
2
78
The following terms need to be matched correctly:
Windows Remote Desktop Session Host
Answer 1
Windows Remote Desktop Gateway Server
Answer 2
Windows Remote Desktop Licensing Server
Answer 3
Windows Remote Desktop Session Host – Actually hosts the desktop sessions,
Windows Remote Desktop Gateway Server – Fields connection requests from "Outside" to "Inside",
Windows Remote Desktop Licensing Server – Enables administrators to manage access for desktop users
79
SCCM (System Centre Configuration Manager) is..?
Select one:
a. A network management application that provides administrators with a centralised solution for tasks.
b. A networked application for deploying WDS
c. An application that produces network traffic reports
d. A networked application for deploying VM's
A network management application that provides administrators with a centralised solution for tasks.
80
Common Gateway Interface (CGI) is considered unsafe because?
Select one:
a. It does not have full functionality
b. It invokes "worker process isolation mode"
c. It allows any remote code to be run over the internet on a server/workstation
d. It is 100% safe as long as you have a firewall in place
It allows any remote code to be run over the internet on a server/workstation
81
Match the following statements with the correct answer.
Your RDSH (Remote desktop session host) should be
Answer 1
Your secure RDGS (Gateway server) sever should be placed
Your RDSH (Remote desktop session host) should be –
Part of your secure "Private network", Your secure RDGS (Gateway server) sever should be placed –
In the perimeter network
82
By utilising THIN CLIENTS money can be spent...?
Select one:
a. Re-allocated to other departments
b. It offers no real cost saving
c. On purchasing more powerful hardware such as dedicated servers for applications.
d. On additional operating systems
On purchasing more powerful hardware such as dedicated servers for applications.
83
Introduced around Vista SP4/Windows 7, NLA (Network level authentication) increases security because?
Select one:
a. The end user MUST enter credentials BEFORE a connection is even established
b. Only administrators can use RDS
c. It provides load balancing
d. It enables SSO (Single sign on) technology
The end user MUST enter credentials BEFORE a connection is even established
84
Using "Remoteapp" has the following advantages? (Choose 2)
Select one or more:
a. Uses remote applications but all run in a single window
b. Removes the need to purchase applications at all
c. Is pointless!
d. Makes applications available from a single installation
e. Reduces the cost of purchasing additional applications
Reduces the cost of purchasing additional applications,
| Makes applications available from a single installation
85
Match the following statement with the correct answer.
The initial connection between client & RDGS
Answer 1
The RDGS then communicates with the RDS server/Client PC
The initial connection between client & RDGS – uses SSL port 443 to connect,
The RDGS then communicates with the RDS server/Client PC – using RDP protocol port 3389
86
What is the biggest significant advantage of using THIN CLIENTS? (Choose 2)
Select one or more:
a. They are more expensive to buy
b. They use more space than FAT CLIENTS
c. They are considerably cheaper to buy
d. They have more processor power & memory
e. They use much less power than FAT CLIENTS
They are considerably cheaper to buy,
They use much less power than FAT CLIENTS
87
```
If your client and server O.S. is required to support legacy systems, which of the following authentication protocols should you consider using?
Select one or more:
a. CHAP
b. MS-CHAP
c. EAP/EAP-TLS
d. PAP
e. IKEv2
```
MS-CHAP,
CHAP,
PAP
88
```
Perimeter networks provide security for your internal resources, but which of these belong in them?
Select one or more:
a. SMTP server
b. DC
c. Remote desktop gateway server
d. RADIUS server
e. Proxy server
f. RRAS/NAT server
g. Network File server
```
```
SMTP server,
RRAS/NAT server,
Proxy server,
Remote desktop gateway server,
RADIUS server
```
89
```
Which of the following statements about Directaccess are ACTUAL benefits?
Select one or more:
a. Bidirectional
b. Easier configuration
c. Authorised
d. Increased function
e. Verified(Screened)
f. Authenticated
g. Requires IPv4 to function
h. Encrypted
```
```
Bidirectional,
Encrypted,
Authenticated,
Authorised,
Verified(Screened)
```
90
Server 2008 R2 uses the
Answer
role to enable services designed for remote access and VPN, as well as many others, such as routing.
Directaccess
91
In addition to RRAS & RADIUS capabilities, the network policy server (NPS) includes a
Answer
server role, that enables administrators to create and enforce health policies.
NAP
92
Match the terms with the correct response.
Tunnelling protocol that requires IPSec in order to work
Answer 1
Used extensively within the Windows environment
Answer 2
Oldest and considered "least secure" of the VPN protocols
Answer 3
Brand new, used only in Server2008 R2, Win7 & newer
Answer 4
Used extensively after Server2008 was released, using port 443
L2TP
MS-CHAPv2(and v1),
PPTP (Point-to-point tunnelling protocol),
IKEv2 (Internet Key Exchange version2),
SSTP (Secure socket tunnelling protocol)
93
Match the NAP components to the right definition
The NAP agent compiles a
Answer 1
The "Server-side" of NAP is the
Answer 2
Statement of Health
Answer 3
System Health Agents
Answer 4
On the server, for each System health agent
Answer 5
The NAP Enforcement Client
Answer 6
System Statement of Health(SSoH),
NAP ES (Enforcement server),
reports on the element it is monitoring,
Agents
There is a system health validator
Transmits SSoH to the NAP health policy server
94
```
If your client and server O.S. is current and up-to-date, which of the following authentication protocols should you consider using?
Select one or more:
a. CHAP
b. MS-CHAP
c. PAP
d. IKEv2
e. EAP/EAP-TLS
```
EAP/EAP-TLS,
MS-CHAP,
IKEv2
95
Port number
Answer
should be used as often as possible, to enable SSL connections.
443
96
The Distributed File System (DFS) is designed to allow multiple "up-to-date" copies of network shared files. For it to function properly in "standalone mode", which components are required?
Select one or more:
a. Access to at least one DC on the network
b. DFS replication group configured
c. Folder shares configured
d. At least 1 server with DFS role installed
e. Add targets
At least 1 server with DFS role installed,
Folder shares configured,
Add targets
97
? is the name of the encryption service that is designed to secure entire volumes/partitions/drives. It operates at the physical level to secure data.
Bitlocker
98
Having an alternative hard drive to swap out for a faulty one without shutting down the server is known as a
Answer
spare.
Hot
99
is the file sharing format used by windows, as opposed to which is the type used in Unix\Linux & others.
SMB
NFS
100
```
The two "Hybrid RAID" versions are:
Select one or more:
a. 01
b. 10
c. 1+0
d. 0+1
```
1+0,
| 0+1
101
```
RAID 5 is commonly referred to as?
Select one:
a. JBOD(Just a bunch of disks)
b. Mirroring
c. Striping
d. Striping with parity
```
Striping with parity
102
The term RAID stands for?
Select one:
a. Redundant array of independent disks
b. Redundant arrangement of independent disks
c. Replica arrangement of individual drives
d. Redundant array of inexpensive disks
Redundant array of inexpensive disks
103
? is the name of the encryption service that is fairly limited and can be used to secure individual files and folders on a drive.
EFS
104
The Distributed File System (DFS) is designed to allow multiple "up-to-date" copies of network shared files. For it to function properly, allowing for redundancy in "Domain-integrated model", which components are required?
Select one or more:
a. Access to at least one DC on the network
b. Add targets
c. DFS replication group configured
d. Folder shares configured
e. At least 2 servers with DFS role installed
At least 2 servers with DFS role installed,
Folder shares configured,
Access to at least one DC on the network,
DFS replication group configured,
Add targets
105
? enables ? bit operating systems to be installed on a host PC, when Server2008 is the O.S.
2008r2
64
32
2005
2008r2
| 64
106
Answer the following by matching responses.
Multiple instances of O.S on 1 physical host ?
Microsoft Hyper-V is an example of ?
The hypervisor is installed ?
A hypervisor virtualisation system.
between hardware & software(O.S)
referred to as VM's
are referred to as VM's,
A hypervisor virtualisation system,
between hardware & software(O.S)
107
Hyper-V uses which of the following file formats for VM's?
Select one or more:
a. .vmc
b. .vhd Correct
c. .xml
d. .iso Incorrect
e. .vsv Correct
vmc
vhd
vsv
108
If you have a large number of Virtual Machines to administer you should consider using?
Select one:
a. Clustering
b. SCCM
c. JBOD
d. Hyper V admin console Incorrect
e. RAID
SCCM
109
Virtualising an application, rather than the entire operating system, uses ?
App-V
110
is the process which enables physical computers to be converted to virtual machines.
P2V
111
The moving of VM's between Hyper-V servers, without having to shut them down first, is known as?
Select one:
a. Using the command line
b. Live migration Correct
c. VSMT
d. Virtual Server Migration Toolkit
Live migration
112
Match the following statement and answers regarding VM "Virtual Instances"
Windows Server 2008 Enterprise?
Windows Server 2008 Datacenter?
Windows Server 2008 Standard?
4 Virtual instances, Unlimited, Windows
| 1 Virtual instance
113
```
Virtual Server ? enables ? bit operating systems to be installed on a host PC, when Server2003 is the O.S.
32
64
2005
2008r2
```
2005
| 32
114
2008R2 version of Hyper-V supports?
Select one or more:
a. Cluster node fault tolerance Correct
b. Solaris 10
c. Red hat Linux 7.3
d. Live migration Correct
e. Virtual switch capabilities Correct
Live migration,
Cluster node fault tolerance,
Virtual switch capabilities
115
A ?
root
Incorrect CA does not use A.D or certificate templates, they store all information locally. Importantly they do not respond to auto-enrolment requests and all administration of them must be done manually.
standalone
116
Which of the following reasons might cause I.E to refuse a connection to a website?
Select one or more:
a. Certificate has expired Correct
b. Website is down
c. None of these
d. Certificate is corrupted
e. Certificate has been revoked
f. D.N.S improperly configured.
g. Certificate does not match the name of the website(CNAME)
Certificate has expired, Certificate is corrupted, Certificate has been revoked,
Certificate does not match the name of the website(CNAME)
117
Match the following certificate template terms with the answers.
```
Certificate template V3 ?
Certificate template V1
?
Certificate template V2
?
```
Used solely with Server2008/R2.
Backwards compatibility to Server 2000/2003,
Used with 2003 or 2008/2008R2
118
Match the following encryption protocols with the correct description.
VPN's using the PPTP (Point-to-point-tunnelling protocol)
VPN's using the L2TP (Layer 2 tunnelling protocol)
usually require digital certificates
VPN's using the IPsec optional encryption protocol
do not require certificates to establish connection.,
can use certificates (optional) or pre-shared keys.
VPN's using the IPsec optional encryption protocol
do not require certificates to establish connection.,
can use certificates (optional) or pre-shared keys.
usually require digital certificates
119
? CA's are integrated into active directory. They use certificate templates, publish them and CRL's to A.D domains
Enterprise
120
Which of the following are Windows Server 2008 R2 CA roles? (Choose 1 answer)
Select one:
a. All of these are valid roles
b. Enterprise subordinate
c. Enterprise root
d. Standalone root
e. Standalone subordinate
All of these are valid roles
121
In order to be able to request a certificate, enrol & autoenrol, what is the minimum combination of permissions that allow this?
Select one or more:
a. Write
b. Read
c. Autoenrol
d. Full control Incorrect
e. Enroll Correct
Read,
Enroll,
Autoenrol
122
? is an Internet protocol used for obtaining the revocation status of an X.509 digital certificate.
OCSP
123
A ? CA exists beneath the root CA and if a client trusts the root CA it will also trust this.
Standalone
124
The term ? , also referred to as the certification path, is a list of certificates used to authenticate an entity.
certificate chain
125
Essentially an extension of SSL (but not SSL itself) TLS - Transport layer security is often referred to as?
Select one:
a. PPP
b. SSL 3.0
c. EAP
d. PEAP
b. SSL 3.0
126
Select from the following statements; which are true regarding Network Load Balanced clusters.
Select one or more:
a. Multiple nodes are configured
b. Workload is rebalanced between remaining hosts(in a process called convergence)
c. Each node is assigned a unique (shared) IP address
d. The requests are distributed among the various nodes
e. Each server retains its own unique IP address
f. Traffic (except VPN/Proxy traffic) is redirected to another node
g. If a node does not respond within 5 seconds (& 5 consecutive heartbeats) it has failed
h. When a node fails all processes switch to another node
Multiple nodes are configured,
Each node is assigned a unique (shared) IP address,
The requests are distributed among the various nodes,
If a node does not respond within 5 seconds (& 5 consecutive heartbeats) it has failed,
Workload is rebalanced between remaining hosts(in a process called convergence)
127
Cluster nodes are kept alive using?
heartbeats
128
A ? backup, backs up all files and data that has been designated, after which it will [?] the archive bit.
A [?] backup, backs up all files and data designated, after which DOES NOT [?] the archive bit. Making it easier to restore, but progressively longer to perform.
An [?] backup, backs up all files designated, after which it DOES [?] the archive bit. Making it faster to perform, but progressively longer to restore.
A [?] backup, backs up the entire contents of a volume designated, and does not reset the archive bit, the process is essentially invisible & does not interfere with backup strategy.
A [?} backup, is the same as 4 (above) but only for files that have been accessed or altered on a specific date.
```
Incremental
differential
reset
full
daily
copy
```
A [Full] backup, backs up all files and data that has been designated, after which it will [Reset] the archive bit.
A [Differential] backup, backs up all files and data designated, after which DOES NOT [Reset] the archive bit. Making it easier to restore, but progressively longer to perform.
An [Incremental] backup, backs up all files designated, after which it DOES [Reset] the archive bit. Making it faster to perform, but progressively longer to restore.
A [Copy] backup, backs up the entire contents of a volume designated, and does not reset the archive bit, the process is essentially invisible & does not interfere with backup strategy.
A [Daily] backup, is the same as 4 (above) but only for files that have been accessed or altered on a specific date.
129
A ?
Incorrect (2 words) is a set of independent computers that work together to increase availability of services. If one node does not respond in timely fashion, another is used.
failover cluster
130
Match up the monthly availability percentages:
99. 99% (4 nines)
99. 9999% (6 nines)
99%
99.99% (4 nines) – Approx 5 minutes downtime,
99.9999% (6 nines) – Approx 3 seconds downtime,
99% – Approx 7 hours downtime
