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Microsoft > 70-642 Disc > Flashcards

70-642 Disc Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is not a benefit of DHCP?
1centralized administration of IP configuration
2dynamic host configuration
3seamless IP host configuration
4portability of workstations

A

portability of workstations

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2
Q

Which of the following is not a function of DHCP?
1transmitting data from one network to another
2 bootstrapping diskless workstations
3automating the assigning, tracking, and reassigning of IP addresses
4dynamically allocating an IP address from a pool of addresses

A

transmitting data from one network to another

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3
Q

What is the minimum number of physical computers required to allow you to use a KMS key?
1.20 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008 computers
2.20 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers
3.15 Vista and ten Windows Server 2008
computers
4.25 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers

A

25 Vista and five Windows Server 2008 computers

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4
Q 
A computer running Server Core will allow you to launch which of the following consoles?
Computer Management
Active Directory Users and Computer
Windows Registry Editor
 None of the above
A

Windows Registry Editor

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5
Q 
The initial DHCP lease process is accomplished by using a series of exchanges between a DHCP client and DHCP server that utilizes four messages. Which of the following is not a message that is used?
DHCPDISCOVER
DHCPOFFER
DHCPRELEASE 
DHCPACK
A

DHCPRELEASE

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6
Q 
A DHCP client will perform the initial lease process in all of the following situations with the exception of?
The very first time the client boots.
After every reboot.
After releasing the IP address.
After receiving a DHCPNACK message.
A

After releasing the IP address.

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7
Q 
Which zone is a copy of a zone that contains only those resource records necessary to identify the authoritative DNS servers for that zone?
Standard primary zone.
Standard secondary zone.
Reverse lookup zone.
Stub zone.
A

Stub zone.

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8
Q 
After sending a zone transfer request, which option shows how long (in seconds) the zone’s secondary server waits before sending another request?
Refresh.
Retry.
Expire.
Minimum TTL.
A

Retry.

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9
Q 
For best results, the internetwork should be limited to fewer than how many subnets with an easily predicted traffic pattern (such as arranged consecutively in a straight line)?
A.5
B.7
C.10
D.12
A

10

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10
Q 
Of the four types of routes that can be found in a routing table, which of the following cannot be found?
Directly attached network routes.
Remote network routes.
Client routes.
Host routes.
A

Client routes.

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11
Q

Which generic authentication method offers encryption of authentication data through the MD5 hashing scheme?
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)

A

Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)

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12
Q

One example of an NPS Policy Setting includes IP properties that specify IP address assignment behavior. Which of the following is not an option?
Server Must Supply an IP Address
Client Must Supply an IP Address
Client May Request an IP Address
Server Settings Determine IP Address Assignment

A

Client Must Supply an IP Address

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13
Q 
The process of deploying and configuring a simple file server using Windows Server 2008 includes many of the most basic server administration tasks, including all of the following except?
Installing disks
Partitioning drives
Assigning permissions
Creating shares
A

Partitioning drives

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14
Q

To set printer priorities, you must do all of the following except?
Create multiple printers.
Create multiple print users.
Modify printer priorities.
Associate printers with the same print device.

A

Create multiple print users.

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15
Q

The XML Paper Specification format is included with which of the following operating systems by default?
Windows Vista
WindowWindows Server 2003s XP
Windows NT

A

Windows Vista

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16
Q 
What is one of the major problems for printing administrators on large enterprise networks? 
Keeping track of roles and permissions.
Keeping track of print utilization.
Keeping track of users and permissions.
Keeping track of print devices.
A

Keeping track of print devices.

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17
Q 
Which of the following are the specific processes or events that you want to track? 
Configuration Information.
event trace data.
Performance counters.
None of the above.
A

Performance counters.

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18
Q 
Which log should be the first place you look when you suspect a problem with Active Directory? 
Event Viewer
Directory Service
Service Monitor
Event Monitor
A

Directory Service

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19
Q

From where can a server that runs WSUS be synchronized?
Public Windows Update servers.
Another server running WSUS.
Manually configured content distribution point.
all of the above

A

all of the above

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20
Q 
IKE main mode has a default lifetime of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hours.
A.6
B.8
C.10
D.12
A

8

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21
Q 
A server that operates the NAP Enforcement Server components is referred to as a NAP \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Agent
Enforcement point.
Enforcement server.
none of the above
A

Enforcement point.

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22
Q 
What type of backup is supported by Windows Server 2008? 
Dynamic
Automatic
Manual
none of the above
A

Manual

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23
Q 
Which of the following prohibits users from consuming any disk space beyond the allotted amount?
Allotments
Allocations
Soft quota
Hard quota
A

hard quota

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24
Q 
To support and use the DHCP service across multiple subnets, routers connecting each subnet should comply with the DHCP/BOOTP relay agent capabilities described in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. 
RFC 1342
RFC 1442 
RFC 1542
RFC 1642
A

RFC 1542

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25
Q 
Network Access Protection was introduced with which operating system?
Windows Vista
Windows NT
Windows Server 2003
Windows Server 2008
A

Windows Server 2008

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26
Q

The Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP) was designed for what reason?

  1. To discover the Media Access Control (MAC) address (an address unique to a Network Interface Card) that corresponds to a particular IP address.
  2. For diskless workstations that had no means of permanently storing their TCP/IP settings.
  3. To provide a subnet mask and a default gateway.
  4. To enable a TCP/IP workstation to retrieve settings for all of the configuration parameters it needs to run.
A

For diskless workstations that had no means of permanently storing their TCP/IP settings.

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27
Q 
Which of the following is sent by a DHCP server to a DHCP client to confirm an IP address and provide the client with those configuration parameters that the client has requested and the server is configured to provide?
DHCPACK
DHCPNACK
DHCPRELEASE
DHCPINFORM
A

DHCPACK

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28
Q 
The IP addresses defined in a DHCP scope must be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Contiguous.
Associated with a subnet mask.
Both A and B.
None of the above.
A

Both A and B.

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29
Q

After the client receives an offer from at least one DHCP server, it broadcasts a DHCPREQUEST message to all DHCP servers with 0.0.0.0 as the source address and __________ as the destination address.

  1. 265.265.265
  2. 225.225.225
  3. 255.255.255
  4. 205.205.205
A

255.255.255.255

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30
Q 
Which of the following is not considered a top-level domain?
.nato
.int
.coop
.com
A

.nato

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31
Q 
Active Directory–integrated zones follow what type of update model?
Multiple node.
Multimaster.
Replication.
Notification.
A

Multimaster.

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32
Q 
Windows Server 2008 includes all of the following routing protocols that can be added to the Routing and Remote Access service with the exception of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
OSPF
IGMP Router & Proxy
DHCP Relay Agent
RIPv2
A

OSPF

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33
Q 
Which column of the IP Routing Table indicates the gateway value for each routing table entry?
First
Second
Third
Forth
A

Third

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34
Q 
By default, the Callback Options setting is configured as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
Always Callback To
Set by Caller
No Callback
None of the above
A

None of the above

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35
Q 
What standardized, highly portable print job format is the default format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 print subsystems?
XML Paper Specifications (XPS)
Enhanced Metafile (EMF)
PCL 6
PCL 5e
A

Enhanced Metafile (EMF)

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36
Q 
Which document management menu command enables users to send jobs to the printer, where they remain in the queue, unprocessed, until you select the same menu item again?
Document > Restart
Document > Pause
Printer > Use Printer Offline
Printer > Pause Printing
A

Printer > Use Printer Offline

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37
Q 
Which version of Windows automatically supports automatic policy-based printer deployments by default? 
Windows XP 
Windows Server 2003
Windows 2000
None of the above
A

None of the above

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38
Q 
How many possibilities of filter combinations exist in the Print Management Console? 
1
100
500
1000
A

1000

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39
Q

Server management includes all of the following with the exception of __________.
Reviewing and changing configuration options.
Controlling download and installation behavior.
Automatically or manually synchronizing the server.
Viewing the update status.

A

controlling download and installation behavior

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40
Q 
What is used to determine encryption key material and security protection for use in protecting subsequent main mode or quick mode communications?
Quick mode negotiations.
Quick mode messages.
Main mode negotiations.
Main mode messages.
A

Main mode negotiations.

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41
Q 
In a PKI, each user/computer possesses a piece of information that is known only to the individual user or computer that is called a \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
public key
private packet
private key
shared secret key
A

private key

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42
Q 
Which optional role service is part of the File Server role that allows administrators to configure advanced file server functionality such as disk quotas, file screens, and e-mail notifications of user quota activities?
File Server Manager
File Server Resource Manager
File Resource Manager
Server Resource Manager
A

File Server Resource Manager

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43
Q 
Shadow Copies of Shared Folders functionality is enabled at which level?
Volume
File
User
Network
A

Volume

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44
Q 
The File Server Resource Manager console was first introduced in which product?
Windows NT
Windows Server 2003
Windows Server 2003 R2
Windows Server 2008
A

Windows Server 2003 R2

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45
Q 
Three options can be found on the Previous Versions tab for any snapshots listed. Which of the following is not an option?
Open
Duplicate
Copy
Restore
A

Duplicate

46
Q

DFS

A

Distributed File System

47
Q

WSUS

A

Windows Server Update Services

48
Q 
Best practices when installing Windows Server 2008 recommends installing the software onto which type of media?
Fresh or previously used media,
Previously used or partitioned media.
Fresh or partitioned media,
None of the above.
A

Fresh or previously used media,

49
Q

What criteria must be met by the server before using the Reconcile feature to verify client information for a DHCP scope from the registry?
You must restore the DHCP server registry keys, or they must remain intact from previous service operations on the server computer.
You must delete and recreate the DHCP database.
You must reboot the server.
None of the above

A

You must restore the DHCP server registry keys, or they must remain intact from previous service operations on the server computer.

50
Q 
Where are zone transfers initiated? 
Primary server.
Secondary server.
Stub server.
Master server.
A

Secondary server.

51
Q 
What is the length of time that the DNS service waits before failing a recursive lookup that has been retried?
3 seconds 
5 seconds 
7 seconds 
15 seconds
A

15 seconds

52
Q

Which entries refer to a separate multicast route?

  1. 0.0.0
  2. 0.0.0
  3. 0.0.0
  4. 255.255.255
A

244.0.0.0

53
Q

Which one-way authentication method offers encryption of both authentication data and connection data (the same cryptographic key is used in all connections; this method supports older Windows clients, such as Windows 95 and Windows 98)?
EAP.TLS
MS-CHAPv2
MS-CHAPv1
Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)

A

MS-CHAPv1

54
Q

The system partition contains what types of files?
Software-related files that the computer uses to boot.
Operating system configuration files.
Hardware-related files that the computer uses to boot.
None of the above.

A

Hardware-related files that the computer uses to boot.

55
Q 
What server is responsible for maintaining the list of DFS shared folders and responding to user requests for those folders?
DFS server
DNS server
namespace server
replication server
A

namespace server

56
Q 
To share printers, which Network Sharing and Discovery setting must be turned on?
Printer Discovery
Printer Sharing
Network Sharing
Networking
A

Printer Sharing

57
Q 
In the Reliability and Performance Monitor, which view provides information about system events that can affect a server’s stability, including software installation and un-installation, as well as any application, operating system, or hardware failures that have occurred over a particular time period?
Performance Monitor
Reliability Monitor
Resource
Network
A

Reliability Monitor

58
Q 
Which log records events associated with server installation, adding and removing server roles, installing applications, and so forth? 
Setup
System
Forwarded events
Security
A

Setup

59
Q 
What are the IPSEC default settings for the key lifetime in minutes?
350
380
450
480
A

480

60
Q 
The command “set config property=ipsecloginterval value=value” can be set to what range of values?
0-7
0,1
60,86,400
0,1,2
A

60 – 86,400

61
Q

Which default authentication method is used by IPSec policies deployed within an Active Directory domain and can only be used in an Active Directory environment?
Kerberos v5 protocol
PKI certificate from a Certification Authority (CA)
Preshared key

A

Kerberos v5 protocol

62
Q 
Which service responds to requests from clients concerning the revocation status of a particular certificate, sending back a digitally signed response indicating the certificate’s current status?
Web enrollment.
Network Device Enrollment Service.
Online Responder.
Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol.
A

Online Responder.

63
Q 
To distribute the load of issuing certificates in a geographically dispersed location, an organization can have one or more \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ CAs.
Intermediate
Subordinate.
Standalone.
Enterprise.
A

Enterprise.

64
Q 
What does the Windows Server Backup feature use to perform file and volume-level backups?
Server Backup Copies.
Shadow Backup Copies,
Volume Backup Copies,
Volume Shadow Copies,
A

Volume Shadow Copies,

65
Q

Once you have enabled Shadow Copies of Shared Folders for a particular volume, the default schedule will create a snapshot twice per day, seven days per week, at what times?

6: 00 am and 12:00 pm
6: 00 pm and 12:00 am
7: 00 am and 12:00 am
7: 00 am and 12:00 pm

A

7:00 am and 12:00 pm

66
Q 
NTFS quotas are limited to controlling storage on entire volumes on what basis?
Per User.
Group,
Network.
None of the above.
A

Per User.

67
Q

When restoring data in Windows Server 2008, what types of restores can you can choose to perform?
Files/folders
Folders/volumes
Folders/files/volumes

A

Folders/files/volumes

68
Q 
Which of the following is not a top-level domain name?
.aero
.coop
.museum
.corp
A

.corp

69
Q

To comply with RFC 1542 and provide relay agent support, each router must be able to recognize __________.
BOOTP and IP protocol messages and relay them appropriately.
BOOTP and IP protocol messages and relay them appropriately.
DHCP and TCP/IP protocol messages and relay them appropriately.

A

BOOTP and IP protocol messages and relay them appropriately

70
Q

Where would you find the Alternate Configuration tab?
Network Connections Properties page.
Internet Protocol Properties page.
Network and Sharing Center Properties page.
Local Area Connection Properties page.

A

Internet Protocol Properties page

71
Q 
Which type of volume is made up of free space from multiple disks and uses RAID-0 striping to interleave data across the disks, thus improving the read performance of the volume?
striped volume
simple volume
spanned volume
mirrored volume
A

striped volume

72
Q 
The default installation of Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition allows you to install 17 different server roles. Which of the following is not a role that you can install?
Fax Services 
System File Services
Application Server
Windows Sharepoint Services
A

System File Services

73
Q 
Sent by clients via broadcast to locate a DHCP server per RFC 2131, which message may include options that suggest values for the network address and lease duration?
DHCPDECLINE
DHCPREQUEST
DHCPOFFER
DHCPDISCOVER
A

DHCPDISCOVER

74
Q

Which generic authentication method does not encrypt authentication data?
Password Authentication Protocol (PAP)
Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)
Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (CHAP)
Extensible Authentication Protocol-Message Digest 5 Challenge Handshake Authentication Protocol (EAP-MD5 CHAP)

A

Shiva Password Authentication Protocol (SPAP)

75
Q 
An NPS Network Policy, which is a rule for evaluating remote connections, consists of which of the following items?
conditions 
constraints
settings
all of the above
A

all of the above

76
Q 
What tool can you use to perform disk-related tasks such as initializing disks, selecting a partition style, converting basic disks to dynamic disks, and more?
Disk Configuration MMC snap-in.
Disk Management MMC snap-in.
Disk Console.
Diskpart.exe
A

Disk Configuration MMC snap-in

77
Q 
By default, what topology do replication groups use? 
hub/spoke
full mesh
partial mesh
mesh/spoke
A

full mesh

78
Q

What is a disadvantage of letting each print client function as its own print server?
Administrators are able to centrally managing the print queue.
It’s simple to set up.
Users are aware of other users who are accessing the print device.
Administrators cannot implement advanced printing features.

A

Administrators cannot implement advanced printing features.

79
Q 
Which of the following is not a node found in the Print Management console?
print servers
custom filters
deployed printers
sharing and security
A

sharing and security

80
Q

The Reliability and Performance Monitor is a tool located within the Administrative Tools folder that combines features that had previously been spread across a number of tools. Which of the following is not a feature?
Performance Logs and Alerts
Performance Monitor
System Monitor

A

Performance Monitor

81
Q

Which of the following is not a main component of WSUS?
Windows Update Synchronization Service.
Website hosted on an IIS server that services update requests from Automatic Updates clients.
Windows Update Communication Service.
WSUS MMC Administration console.

A

Windows Update Communication Service

82
Q 
Which statistic represents the number of failed outbound requests that occurred to establish the SA since the IPSec service started?
Receive Failures
Acquire Failures
Send Failures
Authentication Failures
A

Acquire Failures

83
Q 
What statistic shows the total number of failed outbound quick mode SA addition requests that have been submitted by IKE to the IPSec driver since the IPSec service was last started?
Key Addition Failures
Key Update Failures
Get SPI Failures
Receive Failures
A

Key Addition Failures

84
Q

The NPS service combines each Statement of Health Response into what?
System Statement of Health Response.
System Statement of Health Requirement.
System Statement of Health Policy.

A

System Statement of Health Response.

85
Q 
Which feature enables users to request their own PKI certificates, typically through a Web browser?
self-enrollment
recovery agents
autoenrollment
Web enrollment
A

self-enrollment

86
Q 
Shadow Copies of Shared Folders creates files that are stored on file shares on Windows Server 2003 or Windows Server 2008 file servers by using what type of copies?
minute-in-time.
point-in-time.
ghost.
shadow.
A

point-in-time.

87
Q 
If you wish to perform backups from the command line, what will you need to install? 
Windows PowerShell.
Windows Server Backup.
Windows Server Core.
Windows Server Manager Console.
A

Windows PowerShell

88
Q

Of the several key components of subnetting that are listed below, which is the most accurate description?
Systems within the same subnet can communicate indirectly with the external network.
Systems within the same subnet will not share the same network address.
Systems within a subnet need not be burdened with information about external network addressing.
Systems within the same subnet that share the same network address do not require any information about external network addressing.

A

Systems within a subnet need not be burdened with information about external network addressing.

89
Q 
IPv4 addresses are commonly represented by using what type of notation?
subnetting
CIDR 
classful addressing
dotted-decimal
A

dotted-decimal

90
Q 
Which feature is an integral part of IPv6, whereas it was an optional feature under IPv4?
IP security
subnetting
DNS security
name resolution
A

IP security

91
Q 
A Server Core installation includes which of the following programs?
Windows Explorer
Outlook Express
Windows Notepad 
Start menu
A

Windows Notepad

92
Q 
You can configure network settings on a Windows Server 2008 computer by using a number of different tools with the exception of which of the following?
Initial Configuration Tasks.
Server Manager consoles.
Windows Command Line.
File and Print Sharing Wizard.
A

File and Print Sharing Wizard

93
Q

Which methods are possibile when activating A MAK key?
Telephone.
Internet.
e-Mail.
Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT).

A

Volume Activation Management Tool (VAMT)
Telephone.
Internet.

94
Q 
Which file is used by the DHCP database as a temporary storage file during database index maintenance operations (this file sometimes resides in the %systemroot%\System32\Dhcp directory after a system failure)?
temp.log.
Dhcp.mdb.
J50.log.
Temp.edb.
A

Temp.edb

95
Q 
A conditional forwarder in an Active Directory environment can be replicated by which of the following:
All DNS servers in the forest.
All DNS servers in the domain.
Domain controllers in the forest.
All domain controllers in the domain.
A

all DNS servers in the forest, all DNS servers in the domain, and all domain controllers in the domain.

96
Q 
You can use the DNS console to manually or automatically test DNS servers by submitting which of the following queries:
iterative
simple
recursive
both B and C
A

simple queries and recursive queries.

97
Q

Which of the following is the limited broadcast address that is general for all networks and routers?

  1. 0.0.0
  2. 0.0.0
  3. 0.0.0
  4. 255.255.255
A

255.255.255.255

98
Q 
What term refers to the device that is seeking access to the network, such as a laptop attempting to access a wireless access point? 
authenticator
supplicant
verifier
Authentication Server
A

supplicant

99
Q

Regardless of the size of your network, your strategy for creating shared folders should consist of which the following information:
folders you will share.
names you will assign to the shares.
permissions you will grant to users.
online file settings you will use for the shares.

A

what folders you will share, what names you will assign to shares, what permissions you will grant users to the shares, and what offline files settings you will use for the shares.

100
Q 
For network users to be able to access a shared folder on an NTFS drive, you must grant them \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ permissions.
share.
NTFS.
Both AandB.
registry.
A

share permissions and NTFS permissions.

101
Q 
Which document management menu command causes the print server to stop sending jobs to the print device until you resume it by selecting the same menu item again?#
Document > Restart.
Document > Pause.
Printer > Use Printer Offline.
Printer > Pause Printing.
A

Printer > Pause Printing.

102
Q 
Which of the following is a built-in Data Collector Set within Windows Server 2008?
LAN Diagnostics
System Diagnostics
System Monitor
System Performance
A

LAN Diagnostics
System Diagnostics
System Performance

103
Q 
Which of the following is a category for the Windows operating system updates? 
Group Policy updates
critical updates.
recommended downloads.
multilanguage features.
A

critical updates.
recommended downloads.
multilanguage features.

104
Q 
What rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria, such as membership in a particular Active Directory domain?
Tunnel.
Authentication exemption.
Isolation.
Server to server.
A

Isolation

105
Q 
Which field does the IPSec driver use to match the correct SA with the correct packet?
IPSec Driver field.
IKE Authentication field.
IP Filter field.
SPI field
A

SPI field

106
Q 
Who maintains information about the health of the NAP client computer and transmits information between the NAP Enforcement Clients and the System Health Agents?
Health Registration Authority.
System Health Agent.
NAP Agent.
System Health Validator.
A

NAP Agent

107
Q

Which enforcement method allows authorized remote users to connect to resources on an internal corporate or private network from any Internet-connected device?
Internet Protocol Security (IPSec) enforcement.
VPN enforcement.
802.1X enforcement.
Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement.

A

Terminal Services Gateway (TS Gateway) enforcement

108
Q 
What feature allows users or computers to manually request a certificate based a template?
Enroll ACL
Write ACL
Read ACL
Autoenroll ACL
A

Enroll ACL

109
Q 
Which element of Active Directory Certificate Services utilizes the Online Certificate Status Protocol to act in response to client requests?
NDES.
subordinate CA.
Certificate Revocation List.
Online Responder.
A

Online Responder

110
Q 
Windows Server Backup supports the use of what type of media as backup destinations?
magnetic tape
dynamic volumes
DVD
none of the above
A

DVD

Microsoft (5 decks)

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