70-642 Net Infrastructure Config Flashcards
1
Q
The first attempt to break up IP addresses used?
A
Classfull Subnetting to provide address ranges of differing sizes.
2
Q
Prior to DNS what did computers use to map human-readable named to IP addresses?
A
HOSTS
3
Q
The method of breaking up IP address space into address ranges of flexible size is called?
A
CIDR
4
Q
What must each host on a TCP/IP network be configured with in order to communicate with other hosts?
A
IP address
5
Q
What format are IPv4 addresses most commonly written
A
Dotted-decimal
6
Q
What type of activation key allows you to host an activation service locally within your own network?
A
KMS - Key Management System
7
Q
Which windows 2008 feature installs and configures wireless connections and wireless LAN profiles?
A
Wireless Networking
8
Q
The ability to use the installation process to fix problems with an existing windows server system is called?
A
Repair
9
Q
Installation of the necessary components for a particular server role, with out the GUI and other software features is called?
A
Server Core
10
Q
What screen appears by default when the windows server 2008 operating system is first installed?
A
Initial config tasks
11
Q
What is the feature that allows different users on different computers to access the internet at the same time?
A
Internet connection sharing
12
Q
What single point of administration allows you to configure networking and firewall tasks on a windows server 2008?
A
Network and sharing centre
13
Q
The setting describing the network environment, such as home or public network, is called the?
A
Network Location
14
Q
The network location setting controls the behaviour of?
A
Network Discovery
15
Q
What is the primary means of name resolution on Windows networks prior to the introduction of Windows 2000 and Active Directory?
A
NetBIOS
16
Q
Which feature is used to perform backups and restores Windows volumes?
A
Windows Server Backup
17
Q
Whoa I networking service is used to automatically associate NetBIOS names with IP addresses?
A
WINS
18
Q
What is used to manage the licensing process for the volume licenses of windows vista and windows server 2008
A
Volume Activation
19
Q
A WHAT? will transfer all records within a zone from a primary server to a secondary server.
A
full zone transfer (AXFR
20
Q
A WHAT? Record_ creates an alias for an existing A record.
A
CNAME Record
21
Q
A WHAT record is used by e-mail systems such as Microsoft Exchange to locate mail servers in different networks
A
Mail Exchanger (MX) record
22
Q
WHAT domain allows IPv6 hosts to map host names to IP addresses.
A
ip6.arpa domain
23
Q
contoso.com is an example of WHAT within the .com top-level domain.
A
second-level domain
24
Q
WHAT application scope will replicate DNS data to all DNS servers within a domain.
A
DomainDNSZones
25
WHAT stores DNS data in a text file on the server hard drive, rather than as part of Active Directory.
File-backed zone
26
Each DNS record has WHAT that indicates the maximum time that a record will be cached by a DNS server before it is discarded.
Time to Live (TTL)
27
A DNS server is considered WHAT for each zone that it hosts.
authoritative
28
A DNS domain name like .uk or .it is an example of WHAT domain.
Country code domain
29
This DNS configuration item will forward DNS queries to different servers based on the domain name of the query.
a. Iterative forwarder
b. Recursive forwarder
c. Conditional forwarder
d. IPv6 forwarder
c.Conditional forwarder
30
This type of zone takes human-readable FQDNs and translates them into IP addresses.
a. Standard zone
b. Forward lookup zone
c. Reverse lookup zone
d. Inverse lookup zone
b.Forward lookup zone
31
This zone is used in combination with IP addresses to resolve queries for IPv4 IP addresses:
a. in.addr-arpa
b. in.addr-ipv4
c. in.addr-ipv4.arpa
d. in.ipv4.arpa
a.in.addr-arpa
32
The IPv6 DNS host record is referred to as a(n):
a. A record
b. AA record
c. AAA record
d. AAAA record
d.AAAA record
33
```
A DNS server that hosts a primary or secondary zone containing a particular record can issue the following response to a query for that record:
a.Authoritative answer
b.Non-authoritative answer
c.Referral answer
d.Non-referral answer
Questions
```
a.Authoritative answer
34
You can secure an Active Directory-integrated DNS server, zone, or record by applying the following to it:
a. System Access Control List
b. Security Access Control List
c. Discretionary Access Control List
d. Distributed Access Control List
c.Discretionary Access Control List
35
This zone type contains only SOA, name server, and glue records for the relevant zone.
a. Secondary zone
b. Stub zone
c. Primary zone
d. Caching-only zone
b.Stub zone
36
Data from a primary zone is transmitted to secondary zones using the following:
a. Zone transfer
b. Zone transmission
c. DNS Zone
d. Active Directory replication
a.Zone transfer
37
These contain the names and IP addresses of the DNS servers authoritative for the root zone.
a. “.” zone
b. Top-level zone
c. Root Hints
d. Root Cache
c.Root Hints
38
The following feature is available only on Active Directory-integrated DNS zones:
a. Dynamic updates
b. Incremental zone transfers
c. Reverse lookup zones
d. Secure dynamic updates
d.Secure dynamic updates
39
This type of router is well-suited for a small organization with low levels of network traffic utilization
i. software-based router
40
This is used as the Windows Server 2008 implementation of a RADIUS server
Network Policy Server (NPS)
41
802.1X is used to configure this for both wired and wireless network connections.
e. network access control
42
The IP address 255.255.255.255 represents WHAT in the IP Routing table.
a. Loopback address
b. Limited broadcast address
c. Directly-attached network route
d. Default route
b.Limited broadcast address
43
If an IP Routing Table contains two routes to the same destination network, the route with the lowest WHAT will be selected first.
a. Weight
b. Metric
c. GUID
d. Priority
b.Metric
44
In an 802.1X infrastructure, an NPS or RADIUS server performs the role of the:
a. Applicant
b. Supplicant
c. Authorization Server (AS)
d. Authenticator
c.Authorization Server (AS)
45
The following route is used by a computer’s default gateway to send traffic to remote networks:
a. Default route
b. Limited broadcast address
c. Broadcast address
d. Default interface
a.Default route
46
The DFS Replication engine uses a form of replication called?
Multiple master replication
47
In the Distributed File System, the actual shared folders referred to by the virtual folders in the namespace are known as?
Targets
48
DFS Replication relies on a protocol called WHAT for file replication.
Remote Differential Compression (RDC)
49
A DFS replication topology in which every server replicates with every other server is called a WHAT topology.
Full mesh
50
The basic file-sharing capabilities of a Windows server are provided by the WHAT service.
Server
51
To keep a DFS folder’s multiple targets synchronized, you must create a WHAT?
Replication group
52
The WHAT allows you to simplify the view of file shares located across multiple servers as they appear to your user base.
Distributed File Service (DFS)
53
A WHAT appears to the operating system as though it is a physically separate disk and can host an operating system
Primary partition
54
A WHAT enables you to limit DFS replication traffic to specific pairs of members.
Hub/spoke topology
55
A DFS WHAT enables you to create a single directory tree that contains references to shared folders located on multiple separate file servers.
Namespace
56
An alternative to the multimaster replication model used in DFS is:
a. Unilateral replication
b. Single master replication
c. Flat namespace replication
d. Hierarchical namespace replication
b.Single master replication
57
A server in a replication group is referred to as a:
a. Namespace
b. Namespace server
c. Member
d. Root target
c.Member
58
This refers to the ability of DFS clients to revert back to folder targets that have been unavailable due to server or network outages.
a. Client failback
b. Server failback
c. Namespace failback
d. Target failback
a.Client failback
59
A disk partition that can hold data but not an operating system is called a(n):
a. Primary partition
b. Boot partition
c. System partition
d. Extended partition
d.Extended partition
60
This DFS component is responsible for maintaining a list of DFS shared folders and responding to user requests for those folders.
a. Folder target
b. Member server
c. Namespace server
d. Root server
c.Namespace server
61
A DFS __________ contains a virtual representation of the shared folders on all DFS target servers.
a. Directory
b. Namespace
c. Target
d. Member
b.Namespace
62
The Distributed File System uses the following replication model to keep servers in a replication group up to date:
a. Multiple Master Replication
b. Single Master Replication
c. Root Master Replication
d. Distributed Master Replication
a.Multiple Master Replication
63
In this topology, every member of a DFS replication group replicates with every other member, for full replication connectivity.
a. Hub and spoke replication
b. Complete replication
c. Direct replication
d. Full mesh replication
d.Full mesh replication
64
The following service is required on a Windows Server 2008 server in order to enable file sharing:
a. Workstation Service
b. SMB Service
c. IIS Service
d. Server Service
d.Server Service
65
To enable replication for a DFS folder with multiple folder targets, you must create the following:
a. Replication group
b. Replication target
c. Replication folders
d. Replication servers
a.Replication group
66
A WHAT is the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device.
Printer
67
When you connect a single print server to multiple print devices, you create what is called a WHAT?
Pinter pool
68
By default, all printers assign the Allow Print permission to the WHAT special identity, which enables all users to access the printer and manage their own documents.
Everyone
69
Users with the WHAT permission can go beyond just manipulating queued documents; they can reconfigure the printer itself.
Manage Printers
70
The WHAT is the default print format used by the Windows 2000, Windows XP, and Windows Server 2003 operating systems.
Enhanced Metafile Format (EMF)
71
A WHAT is a device driver that converts the print jobs generated by applications into an appropriate string of commands for a specific print device.
Printer driver
72
The WHAT allows clients to print documents using HTTP traffic over an intranet or the World Wide Web.
Internet Printing Protocol (IPP)
73
Users with the WHAT permission to a printer have the ability to pause, resume, restart, and cancel their own documents, but not documents created by any other user.
Print
74
WHAT such as Printer Not Ready are a useful way for administrators to determine what printers need attention throughout a Windows Server 2008 network.
Custom filters
75
Which printer permission allows users to pause, resume, restart and cancel all users' documents, and to control job settings for all documents?
a. Print
b. Manage Documents
c. Manage Printers
d. Full Control
b.Manage Documents
76
What kind of print device is connected to a TCP/IP network, either directly or through another computer?
a. Print server
b. Local print device
c. Network-attached print device
d. Print queue
a.Print server
77
What can you create to connect a single print server to multiple print devices?
a. Print server
b. Print queue
c. Network printer
d. Printer pool
d.Printer pool
78
This custom view in the Event Viewer collects Critical, Error, and Warning events from all logs on a particular server.
Administrative Events
79
This capture mode enables Network Monitor to listen to all traffic that is being passed on a particular network segment.
promiscuous mode
80
This type of forwarded event is initiated by the server acting as the event repository.
collector initiated
81
This is the command-line method of launching the Performance Monitor MMC snap-in.
perfmon
82
This log provides a view of events related to software that has been installed on a Windows server computer.
Application Log
83
This is collected to provide a real-time view into the behavior and performance of a server and its applications.
event trace data
84
This allows you to organize a set of performance counters, event traces, and system configuration data into a single reusable configuration item.
Data Collector Set
85
This view of the Windows Event Viewer allows you to configure a Windows Server 2008 computer to act as a repository for Event Viewer entries from one or more remote computers.
a. WSUS
b. Windows Catalog
c. Network Monitor
d. Forwarded Events
d. Forwarded Events
86
The following user group can view both real-time and historical data within the Performance Monitor console, but cannot create or modify Data Collector Sets:
a. Performance Monitor Users
b. Performance Log Users
c. Power Users
d. Users
a.Performance Monitor Users
87
In order to collect events from remote computers that match the criteria of one or more event filters that you define, you will create one or more of the following:
a. Custom View
b. Subscription
c. Forwarded Event
d. Event Viewer
b. Subscription
88
What protocol does the Windows Event Viewer use to configure event forwarding?
a. ARP
b. RPC over IP
c. WS-DirectoryServices
d. WS-Management
d. WS-Management
89
This is a new Event Log in Windows Server 2008, used to capture information regarding operating system and application installations and un-installations.
a. Application Log
b. System Log
c. Setup Log
d. Administrative Events
d. Administrative Events
90
The following service allows you to configure a single server as a repository of Event Viewer information for multiple computers:
a. Windows Server Update Service
b. Windows Event Collector Service
c. Windows Event Viewer
d. Windows Event Forwarder
b. Windows Event Collector Service
91
The following allows you to display only those packets matching a particular set of criterion among a larger set of packets that have been captured by Network Monitor:
a. Capture Filter
b. Event Filter
c. Custom View
d. Display Filter
d. Display Filter
92
The following is a server-side component within WSUS that retrieves the latest critical updates from the Windows Update Web site:
a. Content Synchronization Service
b. Microsoft Update
c. Performance Monitor
d. Event Forwarder
a.Content Synchronization Service
93
The WHAT was configured in Windows 2000, Windows Server 2003, and Windows XP IPSec policies to ensure that the computer responds to requests for secure communication.
Default response rule
94
A WHAT attack is one in which a malicious user masquerades as the legitimate sender or recipient of network traffic.
Identity spoofing
95
The strongest form of NT LAN Manager authentication is WHAT?
NTLMv2 authentication
96
IPSec WHAT is used to provide end-to-end security, in which both hosts support IPSec using the same authentication protocols.
Transport mode
97
WHAT connection security rule allows you to restrict inbound and outbound connections based on certain sets of criteria, such as membership in a particular Active Directory domain.
Isolation
98
Microsoft Network Monitor is an example of a real-world WHAT?
Packet sniffer
99
The Windows Firewall with Advanced Security MMC snap-in allows you to integrate IPSec into the Windows Firewall by configuring one or more WHAT?
Connection Security Rules
100
The default WHAT for IPSec connections in an Active Directory environment is the Kerberos v5 protocol.
Authentication method
101
Each Windows Firewall exception can be configured with a specific WHAT to control which computers the local computer will accept connections from.
Scope
102
A WHAT must occur before secure traffic can be sent, in order to determine the type of traffic to be secured and how it will be secured
Quick mode negotiation
103
3. The following protocol provides confidentiality (in addition to authentication, integrity, and anti-replay) for the IP payload:
a. Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
b. Authentication header (AH)
c. NTLMv2
d. LM
a.Encapsulating Security Payload (ESP)
104
This suite of protocols was introduced to provide a series of cryptographic algorithms that can be used to provide security for all TCP/IP hosts at the Internet layer, regardless of the actual application that is sending or receiving data.
a. ESP
b. IKE
c. IPSec
d. NTLM
c. IPSec
105
5. The following is a value contained in a received IKE message that is used to help identify the corresponding main mode SA:
a. Cookie
b. Cache
c. Exception
d. ISAKMP
a. Cookie
106
6. This Connection Security Rule allows you to specify one or more computers that do not need to be authenticated in order to pass traffic.
a. Isolation
b. Server-to-server
c. Tunnel
d. Authentication exemption
d. Authentication exemption
107
The following NTLM Authentication type is disabled by default in Windows Server 2003 and Windows Server 2008 servers; it should not be used in a production environment as it is weak and can be easily hacked by malicious users:
a. NTLMv2 authentication
b. NTLM authentication
c. LM authentication
d. Kerberos v5 authentication
c. LM authentication
108
PKI
public key infrastructure
109
NAP
Network Access Protection
110
CA
Certification authority
111
IKE
Internet Key Exchange
112
DNS MMC
Microsoft Management Console
