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4. Systems > 7 - Flight Controls > Flashcards

7 - Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-20) The pitch direct law is:

(a) a load factor demand with no protection
(b) a direct sidestick to elevator relationship
(c) a direct sidestick to elevator relationship with automatic pitch trim
(d) achieved through the THS using manual pitch trim control

A

(b) a direct sidestick to elevator relationship

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2
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10; DSC-27-20-30 ; DSC29-10) When is the Trimmable Horizontal Stabilizer (THS) not available?:

(a) if blue hydraulic system has failed
(b) if green and yellow hydraulic systems have failed
(c) it is always available manually
(d) after loss of Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) 1 and 2

A

(b) if green and yellow hydraulic systems have failed

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3
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) below what bank angle will the selected bank angle be maintained with the stick neutral ;

(a) 67 deg
(b) 33 deg
(c) 45 deg
(d) 90 deg

A

(b) 33 deg

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4
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) Which surfaces are used as ground spoilers for lift dumping?

(a) all spoilers
(b) spoilers 1 to 3
(c) spoilers 2,3,4
(d) spoilers 1 to 4

A

(a) all spoilers

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5
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) Which signals cause rudder pedal movement?:

(a) yaw damping
(b) rudder trim and yaw damping
(c) turn co-ordination
(d) rudder trim only

A

(d) rudder trim only

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6
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) If ELAC (Elevator Aileron Computer) 1 and 2 have failed:?

(a) pitch control is automatically transferred to SEC 1 or SEC 2
(b) pitch control is automatically transferred to SEC 1 or SEC 3
(c) pitch control is automatically transferred to SEC 3
(d) pitch control is automatically transferred to ELAC 3

A

(a) pitch control is automatically transferred to SEC 1 or SEC 2

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7
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) If FAC 1 and 2 have failed:?

(a) the rudder can still be controlled by the rudder pedals
(b) rudder control is lost
(c) rudder control is provided by SEC 3
(d) rudder control is provided by FMGC 1

A

(a) the rudder can still be controlled by the rudder pedals

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8
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10; DSC-27-20-10) When both sticks are moved in the same or opposite direction:
    (a) control surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflections of both sticks
    (b) control surface movement is proportional to the last stick deflected
    (c) control surface movement is proportional to the first stick deflected
    (d) the left stick has priority
A

(a) control surface movement is proportional to the algebraic sum of the deflections of both sticks

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9
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) Elevators, ailerons and spoilers are:

(a) mechanically controlled and hydraulically actuated
(b) hydraulically controlled and electrically actuated
(c) electrically controlled and electrically actuated
(d) electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

A

(d) electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated

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10
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10)For yaw damping and trim, rudder control is:

(a) electrical
(b) mechanical
(c) hydraulic
(d) pneumatic

A

(a) electrical

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11
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) Which statement is correct?:

(a) Ground spoiler function: all spoilers deploy
(b) Speedbrake function: spoilers 1,2 and 3 deploy
(c) Roll function: ailerons and spoilers 4 & 5 deploy
(d) Speedbrake function: all spoilers deploy

A

(a) Ground spoiler function: all spoilers deploy

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12
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) How many control modes are there on the elevator servo jacks?:

(a) 2 - active and damping
(b) 3 - active, damping and centering
(c) 1 - active
(d) 3 - active, standby and damping

A

(b) 3 - active, damping and centering

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13
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) What are the load factor limits?

(a) +2.5g and -1g in all configurations
(b) +2.0g and 0g in all configurations
(c) +2.5g and -1g : limits apply only in clean configuration
(d) +2.5g and -1g clean; +2.0g and 0g in other configurations

A

(d) +2.5g and -1g clean; +2.0g and 0g in other configurations

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14
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) Which Flight Control Computer (FCC) normally controls the elevator and stabilizer:

(a) ELAC 1
(b) ELAC 2
(c) SEC 1
(d) SEC 2

A

(b) ELAC 2

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15
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) How many hydraulic motors drive the stabilizer screw jack?

(a) 2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 3

A

(a) 2

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16
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) The hydraulic motors for the stabilizer are driven by:

(a) one of two electric motors for auto trim
(b) an electrical trim wheel
(c) one of two electric motors
(d) one of three electric motors for auto trim and a mechanical trim wheel 1

A

(d) one of three electric motors for auto trim and a mechanical trim wheel 1

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17
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) In normal law, the flight mode changes to flare mode for landing:

(a) when the aircraft passes 50’ RA
(b) passing 30’ RA
(c) passing 50’ RA
(d) passing 350’ RA

A

(a) when the aircraft passes 50’ RA

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18
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) At landing, as the aircraft descends through 30’:

(a) the pitch attitude is memorised
(b) the attitude is set as an initial reference for pitch attitude control
(c) the pitch attitude is reduced to 2° nose down over 8 seconds
(d) the pitch attitude is increased by 2°

A

(c) the pitch attitude is reduced to 2° nose down over 8 seconds

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19
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-30) How can a deactivated stick be reactivated?

(a) by momentarily pressing the takeover PB on the active stick
(b) by simultaneously pressing the takeover PB on both sticks
(c) by momentarily pressing the takeover PB on the deactivated stick
(d) by momentarily pressing the takeover PB on either stick

A

(d) by momentarily pressing the takeover PB on either stick

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20
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) In roll normal law, the bank angle protection maintains:

(a) roll attitude constant when stick is neutral, up to 45° bank
(b) maximum bank angle of 45°, provided no other protections are active
(c) maximum bank angle of 45° with full lateral sidestick deflection
(d) roll attitude constant when stick is neutral, up to 33° bank

A

(d) roll attitude constant when stick is neutral, up to 33° bank

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21
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) Roll normal law combines control of:

(a) ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder in the sidestick
(b) ailerons and all spoilers in the sidestick
(c) ailerons and speedbrakes in the sidestick
(d) ailerons and spoilers 2 & 4 in the sidestick

A

(a) ailerons, spoilers 2-5 and rudder in the sidestick

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22
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) If ELAC 1 and 2 are inoperative, roll control is provided by:

(a) ailerons only through the SECs
(b) ailerons and spoilers 2-5 through the SECs
(c) spoilers 2 4 only
(d) spoilers 2-5 through the SECs

A

(d) spoilers 2-5 through the SECs

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23
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) In flight, if a Wing Tip Brake (WTB) is activated:
    (a) it cannot be released and the corresponding surface cannot be operated
    (b) it can be released after applying the ECAM procedure
    (c) it can be released if hydraulic system pressure is available
    (d) it can be released provided there is no asymmetry
A

(a) it cannot be released and the corresponding surface cannot be operated

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24
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) What happens when SFCC1 fails?

(a) slat and flap operation remains normal
(b) flaps and slats operate at half speed
(c) flaps are lost
(d) slats are lost

A

(b) flaps and slats operate at half speed

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25
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) After take-off in CONF 1, if the pilot does not select configuration 0:

(a) flaps automatically retract at 180 kts
(b) flaps and slats automatically retract at 210kts
(c) flaps automatically retract at 210kts
(d) there is no automatic retraction feature for slats or flap

A

(c) flaps automatically retract at 210kts

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26
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) After an automatic retraction of the flaps:

(a) flaps automatically re-extend when speed decreases
(b) flaps do not automatically re-extend
(c) flaps do not re-extend unless speed decreased below VLS
(d) flaps automatically re-extend when speed decreases below green dot

A

(b) flaps do not automatically re-extend

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27
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) Is it possible to select an intermediate flap setting?

(a) yes, the flap lever can be placed in any position
(b) yes, but only for certain failure situations
(c) no, only slats can be selected to an intermediate position
(d) no, only positions 0,1,2,3 and Full can be selected

A

(d) no, only positions 0,1,2,3 and Full can be selected

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28
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) If the angle of attack is greater than alpha prot, when the sidestick is released:

(a) speed returns to Vls
(b) angle of attack reduces to alpha prot
(c) cannot fly at an angle greater than alpha prot
(d) angle of attack remains the same

A

(b) angle of attack reduces to alpha prot

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29
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-20) When alternate law is active:

(a) high speed and high angle of attack protections are lost
(b) high speed protection is available
(c) high angle of attack protection is available
(d) protections are degraded

A

(a) high speed and high angle of attack protections are lost

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30
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-20)when the aircraft is in direct law;
    (a) The pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals, while the yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost
    (b) The pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals, while the yaw damping and turn coordination functions remain
    (c) The autopilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals, while the yaw damping and turn coordination functions remain
    (d) The autopilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals, while the yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost
A

(a) The pilot controls yaw with the rudder pedals, while the yaw damping and turn coordination functions are lost

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31
Q
  1. (1 DSC-27-20-10) The slats alpha lock function accomplishes which of the following
    (a) Prevents runaway slats
    (b) Prevents slats retracting when the airspeed is too low or angle of attack is too high
    (c) Allows you to fly at any angle of attack
    (d) Extends the slats when slats or flaps are 0 and speed<200kts
A

(b) Prevents slats retracting when the airspeed is too low or angle of attack is too high

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32
Q
  1. (DSC-27-10) Which hydraulic systems actuate the rudder:

(a) Blue
(b) Blue and Green
(c) Green, Blue and Yellow
(d) Blue and Yellow

A

(c) Green, Blue and Yellow

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33
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) Lift augmentation is achieved on each wing by:

(a) 3 flap surfaces and 4 slat surfaces
(b) 2 flap surfaces and 5 slat surfaces
(c) 5 spoiler panels
(d) LAF, using ailerons and spoilers 4 & 5

A

(b) 2 flap surfaces and 5 slat surfaces

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34
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) Slat retraction from 1 to 0 is inhibited on A320 if:

(a) not inhibited
(b) speed > 210kts
(c) angle of attack is greater than alpha prot
(d) angle of attack > 8.60 or speed < 148

A

(d) angle of attack > 8.60 or speed < 148

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35
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-20) In alternate law, the change to direct law occurs when:

(a) landing gear down (or when Flap 2 selected if LGCIU 1+2 fault)
(b) landing gear down
(c) passing 50’ RA
(d) flap 3 selected

A

(a) landing gear down (or when Flap 2 selected if LGCIU 1+2 fault)

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36
Q
  1. (DSC-27-30) Slat SYS 1 Fault on ECAM means:

(a) SFCC 1 has failed
(b) the slat channel in SFCC 1 has failed
(c) the slat channel in one SFCC has failed
(d) both slat channels have failed

A

(b) the slat channel in SFCC 1 has failed

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37
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-20; PRO-ABN-27) With Hydraulic G+Y failure (Blue system only remaining) the flight control law is

(a) alternate, after landing gear extension
(b) direct, before landing gear extension
(c) normal, before landing gear extension
(d) direct, after landing gear extension

A

(d) direct, after landing gear extension

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38
Q
  1. (PRO-SUP-27) In flight control normal law, the stall warning is activated:

(a) at 148kts if slats are not extended
(b) when alpha max is reached
(c) when alpha prot is reached
(d) angle of attack corresponding to stall warning cannot be reached in normal law.

A

(d) angle of attack corresponding to stall warning cannot be reached in normal law.

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39
Q
  1. (DSC-27-20-10) The pitch normal law provides:
    (a) load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection and high speed protection
    (b) load factor limitation, high angle of attack and high speed protection
    (c) load factor limitation, high angle of attack, and high speed and pitch attitude protection
    (d) load factor limitation, pitch attitude protection and low speed stability
A

(c) load factor limitation, high angle of attack, and high speed and pitch attitude protection

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40
Q

What is the maximum pitch up in normal law for all configurations?

At what nose up pitch do the flight directors disappear?

A

30 NU clean to config 3 (25 low speed)
25 NU config full (20 low speed)

Flight directors disappear at 25 NU

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41
Q

What is the maximum pitch down in normal law for all configurations?

At what pitch down do the flight directors disappear?

A

15 ND in all config

Flight directors disappear at 13 ND

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42
Q

What protections do you have in Normal law?

A

Pitch protection
Roll protection
High speed protection
Load factor protection
AoA protection

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43
Q

What protections do you have in Alternate Law?

A

Only load factor protection.
Max RoT is 30 degrees per second

Alternate Law with protections you also have high and low speed stabilities.

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44
Q

What protections do you have in Direct Law?

A

None

Max RoT is 30 degrees per second

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45
Q

What protections do you have in Mechanical Law?

A

None

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46
Q

How are pitch and roll controlled in Normal Law?

A

Pitch = load factor

Roll = rate of roll

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47
Q

How are pitch and roll controlled in Alternate Law?

A

Pitch = load factor

Roll = direct input

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48
Q

How are pitch and roll controlled in Direct Law?

A

Pitch = direct input

Roll = direct input

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49
Q

How are pitch and roll controlled in Mechanical Law?

A

Pitch = direct input, controlled with stabiliser only

Roll = direct into, controlled by rudder only

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50
Q

What defines Abnormal Law? (pitch up and down, and bank)

A

Greater than 50 NU
Greater than 30 ND
Greater than 125 AoB

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51
Q

How is roll protected in Normal Law?

What is the max RoT?

A

33 AoB max neutral stick, anything past this must be held

Max AoB = 67
AP/FD disconnect at 45

Max RoT = 15 degrees per second

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52
Q

What is Vmo/Mmo?

Will the aircraft allow you to go beyond these speeds?

At what increment past Vmo/Mmo will the AP disconnect?

A

Vmo/Mmo = 350kts/.82M

No, the aircraft won’t allow you to go beyond Vmo/Mmo in Normal Law. Gives pitch up authority you can’t override. In other laws yes you can.

AP disconnects at Vmo + 6 and Mmo + 0.1

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53
Q

What are the Load Factor limits in all applicable laws?

(normal, alternate and abnormal)

A

+2.5g to -1g Clean
+2g. to 0g Any other config

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54
Q

What is the difference in Stall protection between Normal Law and Alternate Law (with protections)?

A

Normal law you have V alpha protection and V alpha max, as well as Alpha floor.

In Alternate Law you only have Vls and Vsw, as well as a pitch down command you CAN override

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55
Q

Unlike conventional aircraft, what are you commanding with the stick?

A

Roll rate in bank

G load in pitch (Load factor Demand)

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56
Q

How do you disconnect the autopilot with the sidestick?

A

Applying significant force to the stick will disconnect the autopilot, but using the disconnect button is better practice

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57
Q

How do you deactivate a side stick?

A

Press and hold the red button for command authority. Holding for 40 seconds will completely deactivate the opposite sidestick.

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58
Q

What are the actions done by the autopilot that is not represented on the rudder pedals?

A

turn coordination, rudder trim and yaw damping. All manual trim and other pilot inputs are felt through the pedals.

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59
Q

What are the Flat/Slat protections?

A

Surface asymmetry between left and right wing

Surface attachment failure

Uncommanded surface movement

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60
Q

What is S/F-Lock?

A

The Wing Tip Brakes are stopping the flaps/slats from moving to an uncommanded position.

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61
Q

What is A-LOCK?

A

A-LOCK prevents SLAT retraction at high AoA and low speeds

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62
Q

How many spoilers are there and why are they used?

A

10 total (5 per wing), they at as speed brakes(panels 2,3,4), roll spoilers and ground spoilers

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63
Q

What is different with the A320 when speed brakes are used while autopilot is on?

A

The A320 will only allow 1/2 deflection of speed brakes when autopilot is on.

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64
Q

What does it mean when the SPEED BRK message is amber?

A

Engine is above idle

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65
Q

When will the speed brakes auto retract?

A

Above MCT thrust

Flaps set to FULL (config 3 in A321)

High AoA

Flight Control Computer malfunctions

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66
Q

How do you arm the ground spoilers?

A

Pulling up on the speed brake lever until you see the GND SPLRS ARMED message and can see the white band around the base of the lever.

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67
Q

What happens to the ground spoilers during a rejected TO?

A

When ARMED:
72kts + IDLE = Spoilers Deployed

UnARMED:
72kts + reverse thrust = Spoilers Deloyed

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68
Q

Which control surfaces move in each Flap setting?

A

1+F (1 set on ground or retracting to 1 in flight)
Slats and Flaps Move position 1

1:
SLATS only to position 1

2:
FLAPS and SLATS position 2

3:
FLAPS only to position 3

FULL:
FLAPS and SLATS to FULL

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69
Q

After speed brakes are auto retracted due to TOGA power, how can you regain control of them?

A

Reduce power

Lever to retract

Wait 10 seconds

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70
Q

When will auto spoilers engage on landing?

A

Spoilers Armed:
Both Mains on Ground + Idle power

Spoilers not armed:
Both Mains on Ground + Reverse selected

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71
Q

When is partial spoiler deployment engaged?

A

Spoilers ARMED

Reverse (at least 1 engine)

One gear on ground

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72
Q

When will spoilers auto retract on landing?

A

Thrust above idle

Spoilers disarmed

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73
Q

What are the Flight Control Computers?

A

7 Total

3 ELAC (Elevator Aileron Computer)

2 SEC (Spoiler Elevator Computer)

2 FAC (Flight Augmentation Computer)

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74
Q

What do the ELACs control?

A

Elevator

Spoilers

THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

75
Q

What do the SEC control?

A

Spoilers

Backup Elevator Control

Backup THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

76
Q

What do the FAC control?

A

Rudder

Speed computations

Weight Calcs

Windshear warnings

77
Q

In the event of complete electrical failure, what surfaces have a mechanical backup?

A

Rudder and THS (trimmable horizontal stabilizer)

78
Q

How are the Slats/Flaps controlled?

A

2 Slat Flap Control Computers (SFCC)

Each SFCC has two channels which power their own hydraulic jack 4 jacks per slat/flap

79
Q

What will happen to the Aileron max deflection with flaps down?

A

Aileron max deflection is reduced with flaps down

80
Q

During pre-flight, the Slat/Flap surfaces are not in the commanded position? What do you do?

A

DO NOT MOVE THE LEVER, contact mx

81
Q

In normal law, how is sidestick control different on the ground?

A

On the ground, the flight controls act like a conventional aircraft for rotation and control surface checks.

82
Q

When is Normal Law switching from Direct Mode to Load Factor and Roll Rate Demand mode?

A

5 seconds after TO

83
Q

When will the Flap automatically retract?

A

210 kts

NOTE: THE SLATS WILL NOT AUTO RETRACT

84
Q

What are you requesting when you move the sidestick to neutral position?

A

1 G load

85
Q

When does THS engage?

A

When you release the sidestick, the THS moves the Elevator to center the elevators in respect to the stabilizer

86
Q

Little no back stick is required up to what bank angle?

A

33 degrees bank

87
Q

What are the pitch protections?

A

Pitch (30/-15)

Maneuver

High Speed (Vmo / Mmo)

Angle of Attack

88
Q

What are the G loading protections?

A

+2.5 / -1.0 G

+2 / 0 G with Flaps or Slats

89
Q

What is are the Pitch (Attitude) protection limits?

A

+30 / -15 degrees Pitch

Config 0-3 at low speed
+25 / -15

Config FULL at low speed
+20 / -15

90
Q

What is the High Speed Protection?

A

The green “=” is the speed where protection is activated.

Nose down trim inhibited

Autopilot disengages

Limited acceleration even with pilot full down input

91
Q

What is the priority protection in Normal Law?

A

Angle of Attack protection.

Flight Control computers will override the pilot inputs to prevent a stall.

92
Q

What is Vls?

A

Minimum airspeed FDs will allow. IF autothrust is engaged, they will not allow the aircraft to reduce speed below VLS.

93
Q

What happens at Alpha Prot?

A

Nose up trim inhibited

Autopilot disengaged

Logic changes from Load Factor Commands to Angle of Attack Commands

94
Q

What happens at Alpha Max?

A

Computers will ignore back stick commands preventing a stall.

95
Q

When is alpha floor available?

A

After TO

Entire flight

Descent

Down to 100AGL in config 1 or greater

96
Q

What is Alpha Floor and when will it engage?

A

TOGA power automatically engaged when:

Excessive AoA

Windshear

Excessive nose up attitudes combine with specific sidestick inputs

97
Q

When encountering turbulence during a turn, will autoflight return to commanded bank angle?

A

NO, you only control roll rate not bank angle. You must counter any roll change from external factors.

98
Q

What is the max roll rate in Normal Law?

A

15 degrees / second

99
Q

Bank Angle Hold activates to what roll limit?

A

33 degrees

100
Q

What is Positive Spiral Stability?

A

During bank angles 33-67, releasing the sidestick will return to 33 degrees bank.

NOTE: beyond 33 degrees, you will require back pressure like a normal aircraft

101
Q

What is the bank angle limit?

A

67 degrees bank

102
Q

What computers are involved in turn coordination?

A

ELAC and FAC

103
Q

What flight control has a cable driven backup?

A

Rudder

104
Q

When is the landing memo displayed on the E/WD panel?

A

2000 AGL

105
Q

When does FLARE MODE activate?

A

50 AGL

106
Q

What happens at 30 AGL?

A

slight forward pressure to simulate a conventional aircraft landing

107
Q

What is the only protection offered in ALTERNATE LAW?

A

Maneuver (G loading)

High Speed and Alpha are replaced by high and low speed stabilities

108
Q

How is Speed stability (ALT LAW) different than Speed Protection?

A

Speed Stability attempts to pitch up (down) during overspeed however this can be overridden by the pilot.

Protection, ignores pilot inputs to prevent an overspeed or stall

109
Q

How are sidestick inputs different in ALT Law?

A

Pitch is the same Load Factor Demand as NORMAL

Roll is now DIRECT like a conventional aircraft.

Roll rate doubles to 30/sec

110
Q

What happens with Rudder Limits in ALT LAW?

A

They maintain last position before failure.

When Slats extend, max rudder deflection is available

111
Q

When would DIRECT LAW be active?

A

In ALT LAW with landing gear down.

This allows for full flare mode during touchdown.

112
Q

What is special about SEC 3?

A

It can only control spoilers and can not replace pitch functions of SEC 1&2.

113
Q

What is Abnormal Attitude Law and what protections are available?

A

When in an outside normal attitude caused by external forces.

Maneuver protection is all that remains.

114
Q

What are the modes of teh FC servos?

A

Active
Damping
Centering

Only one servo can be active at a given time.

115
Q

If both ELAC fails, how is roll now controlled?

A

Roll spoilers only

116
Q

Q1. Which of the spoiler surfaces are the speed brake surfaces?

A

A1. Spoiler Surfaces 2,3 and 4 are the Speed Brake Surfaces.

117
Q

Q2. If a/c is dispatched with SEC1 inoperative {under MEL}, then which of the flight control surfaces are not available for you in flight?

A

A2. Spoilers 3 and 4 would not be available.

118
Q

Q3. Which of the flight controls are lost, if ELAC 1+2 are lost?

A

A3. Both Ailerons are lost and the THS Motor 1 is lost.

119
Q

Q4. Which of the flight control surfaces are lost, if G + Y are lost?

A

A4. The following are lost :-

(1) Yaw Damper
(2) Stabilizer
(3) Spoiler 1+2+4+5
(4) Flaps

120
Q

Q5. Which of the Flt/controls are lost, if FAC 1+2 are lost?

A

A5. With FAC 1+2 loss, the Rudder travel limit system, Rudder Trim Control and Yaw Damper are lost.

121
Q

Q6. Do you agree that there is no flight control available if you lose all the three hydraulics?

A

A6. Yes.

122
Q

Q7. What happens to the extended speed brakes when CONFIG FULL is selected?

A

A7. The Speed brakes retract automatically.

123
Q

Q8. What are the conditions in which Speed Brakes get retracted automatically?

A

automatically :-

(1) SEC 1 and 3 both have faults
(2) An Elevator(L or R) has a fault (only spoilers 3 and 4 are inhibited)
(3) Angle of Attack protection is active
(4) Flaps are in configuration Full
(5) Thrust levers above MCT position
(6) Alpha Floor Activation

124
Q

Q9. What happens to the symmetric surface on the other wing, when a speed brake surface (on one wing) fails?

A

A9. The symmetric surface on the other wing is inhibited.

125
Q

Q10. When does SPD BRK memo turn amber?

A

A10. The SPD BRK memo turns Amber in the following conditions:-
(1) When the speed brakes are extended in Flight Phases 2, 3, 4, and 5, the “SPEED BRK”
memo flashes in amber.
(2) When the speedbrakes are extended in Flight Phases 6 and 7, the “SPEED BRK” memo
appears in green. It flashes in amber, after 50 s, if at least one engine is above idle

126
Q

Q11. What is the new procedure if there is F/CTL SPOILER FAULT and one spoiler is indicated deflected in amber?

A

A11. AIRBUS recommendations assume that if the F/CTL SPLR FAULT ECAM caution triggers, along with at least one amber deflected spoiler arrow displayed on the F/CTL S/D page, the spoiler is supposed to be fully deflected. The following is the procedure :-
AP…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………OFF
Depending on the failed spoiler position, the AP may not have enough authority to counteract the roll induced by spoiler runaway.
SPEED………………………………………………………………………………………………….GDOT+10
Whenever possible, target green dot speed +10 kt to minimize fuel consumption. However, if buffet is encountered at GDOT speed +10 kt, increase speed to fly out of buffet condition.
CRUISE ALTITUDE……………………………………………………………..AS REQUIRED
Current Flight Level (FL) may not be maintained due to increased drag. Maintain a cruise FL as high as possible.
FUEL CONSUMPTION INCREASED
FMS FUEL PRED……………………………………………………………………DISREGARD
FUEL CONSUMPTION……………………………………………………………..DETERMINE
DIVERSION…………………………………………………………………………..CONSIDER
APPR PROC
In clean configuration, if VLS is above VFENEXT, the flight crew should deselect A/THR, decelerate to VFENEXT, and select CONF 1 when below VFENEXT. When established at CONF 1, the flight crew can reengage the A/THR and use managed speed again.
FOR LDG………………………………………………………………………………USE FLAP 3
GPWS LDG FLAP 3……………………………………………………………………………. ON
LANDING PERFORMANCE ASSESSMENT………………………………………. PERFORM

127
Q

Q12. What are the logic conditions for ground spoiler extension to occur during RTO?

A

A12. The following are the logic conditions for Ground Spoiler extension to occur during RTO :-
(1) If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground spoilers
will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are reset to idle.
(2) If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 kt, the ground
spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the
other thrust lever remains at idle).

128
Q

Q13. What are the logic conditions for full ground spoiler extension to occur during landing?

A

A13. The following are the logic conditions for Ground Spoiler extension to occur during landing :-
(1) If the ground spoilers are armed and all thrust levers are at idle, the ground spoilers
will automatically extend as soon as both main landing gears have touched down.
(2) If the ground spoilers are not armed and both main landing gears have touched
down, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected
on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

129
Q

Q14. Partial ground spoiler extension can also occur during landing. What are the conditions?

A

A14. The ground spoilers partially extend (10 °) when reverse is selected on at least one engine (other engine at idle), and one main landing gear strut is compressed. This partial extension, by decreasing the lift, eases the compression of the second main landing gear strut, and consequently leads to full ground spoiler extension.

130
Q

Q15. When will extension of ground spoilers take place, if ground spoilers were not armed before landing?

A

A15. If the ground spoilers are not armed and both main landing gears have touched down, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).

131
Q

Q16. How to retract the extended spoilers?

A

A16. The system automatically retracts the spoilers to their zero position, if it detects a fault or loses electrical control.

132
Q

Q17. Is it true that the Rudder deflection is a function of speed?

A

A17. Yes.

133
Q

Q18. Name the protections available in Normal Law?

A

A18. The normal law protects the aircraft throughout the flight envelope, as follows :
‐>> Load Factor Limitation
‐>> Pitch Attitude Protection
‐>> High-Angle-Of-Attack (AOA) Protection
‐>>High-Speed Protection
->>Bank Angle Protection.
In addition to the above, a Low Energy Warning is also provided.

134
Q

Q19. Mark it True or False..
..That when a/c is in Normal Law, computers will prevent excessive maneuvers and exceedance of the safe envelope in Pitch & Roll axis only. Rudder has no such protections.

A

A19. True.

135
Q

Q20. Explain the Load Factor Protection?

A

A20. The Load Factor Protection limits the Load Factor to :-

(a) +2.5 g to -1 g for clean configuration.
(b) +2 g to 0 for other configurations.

136
Q

Q21. Explain the Pitch Attitude protection?

A

A21. The Pitch Attitude Protection limits the Pitch Attitude to :-

(a) 30 ° nose up in conf 0 to 3 (progressively reduced to 25 ° at low speed).
(b) 25 ° nose up in conf FULL (progressively reduced to 20 ° at low speed).
(c) 15 ° nose down (indicated by green symbols “=” on the PFD’s pitch scale).

137
Q

Q22. Explain the High Angle of Attack protection?

A

A22. The ∝ Protection system will prevent the pitch angle to develop into the stall area. The system also assist the pilots in a windshear situation. In pitch normal law, when the angle of attack becomes higher than the alpha prot threshold, the elevator control is switched to a protection mode where AOA is proportional to the side stick deflection.
When ∝ Floor is reached the Auto Thrust System will trigger and provide full take off power at both engines, regardless of the power lever position.

138
Q

Q23. What happens when angle of attack becomes greater than α-Prot?

A

A23. Under normal law, when the angle-of-attack becomes greater than αprot, the system switches elevator control from normal mode to a protection mode, in which the angle-of-attack is proportional to sidestick deflection. That is, in the αprot range, from α prot to αMAX, the sidestick commands α directly. However, the angle-of-attack will not exceed αMAX, even if the pilot gently pulls the sidestick all the way back. If the pilot releases the sidestick, the angle-of-attack returns to αprot and stays there.

139
Q

Q24. What is α-max?

A

A24. α-max is the maximum Angle Of Attack that the aircraft will achieve.

140
Q

Q25. What is the High Speed protection when a/c is in Normal Law?

A

A25. High Speed Protection activates an automatic pitch up signal when the VMO or VMM limit is exceeded.
As the speed increases above VMO/MMO, the sidestick nose-down authority is progressively reduced, and a permanent nose-up order is applied to aid recovery to normal flight conditions. High Speed Protection is deactivated, when the aircraft speed decreases below VMO/MMO, where the usual normal control laws are recovered.
The autopilot disconnects, when High Speed Protection becomes active.

141
Q

Q26. What are the protections available when a/c is in alternate pitch law?

A

A26. The following protections are available when a/c is in alternate pitch law :-

(a) Load Factor Limitation
(b) Low Speed Stability
(c) High Speed Stability

142
Q

Q27. Are there any protections in Direct Law?

A

A27. No

143
Q

Q28. What are the indications on PFD when a/c is in Direct Law?

A

A28. The PFD displays in Amber the message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM”.

144
Q

Q29. What is the meaning of PFD displaying a message in red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”?

A

A29. The ‘MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY’ indication on the PFD indicates that the SideStick is inoperative and the Pitch back up can be achieved through the use of manual THS.

145
Q

Q30. If the flight controls degrade to alternate law, what will happen when the landing gear is extended (if no autopilots are engaged?)

A

A30. In pitch alternate law, the flight mode changes to the flare mode when the pilot selects landing gear down. The flare mode is a direct stick-to-elevator relationship

146
Q

Q31. Is automatic pitch trim available in alternate law?

A

A31. Yes.

147
Q

Q32. Is hydraulics required to fly the aircraft in mechanical backup?

A

A32. Yes.

148
Q

Q33. When both side sticks are operated simultaneously, is the sum of the side stick inputs limited to Normal law deflection limits?

A

A33. Yes.

149
Q

Q34. What would result if both side sticks were moved at the same time during flight with the autopilot OFF?

A

A34. When the pilots move both side stick simultaneously in the same or opposite direction and neither takes priority, the system adds the signals of both pilots algebraically. The total is limited to the signal that would result from the maximum deflection of a single sidestick.

150
Q

Q35. What are the indications when both side sticks are moved simultaneously?

A

A35. In the event of simultaneous input on both sidesticks the two green SIDE STICK PRIORITY lights on the glareshield come on and “DUAL INPUT” voice message is activated

151
Q

Q36. What is the meaning of SIDE STICK PRIORITY red arrow light?

A

A36. The Red Sidestick Priority Red Arrow Light comes on in front of the pilot losing authority.

152
Q

Q37. How does the crew know whose side stick has priority?

A

A37. A green light comes on in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other stick is not in the neutral position, also a “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” audio voice message is given each time priority is taken.

153
Q

Q38. If takeover p/b is pressed for more than 3 seconds, what are the indications in the cockpit?

A

A38. The following are the indications in the Cockpit :-

(a) Aural “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” audio voice message is heard
(b) CAPT or F/O Red Arrow light comes on.

154
Q
  1. If takeover p/b is pressed for more than 40 seconds, what are the indications in the cockpit?
A

A39. In case the takeover P/b is pressed for more than 40 seconds, the priority condition is latched. The following are the indications in the Cockpit :-

(a) A red light comes on in front of the pilot whose stick is deactivated
(b) A green light comes on in front of the pilot who has taken control, if the other stick is not in the neutral position
(c) A “PRIORITY LEFT” or “PRIORITY RIGHT” audio voice message is given each time priority is taken.

155
Q

Q40. If the takeoff configuration is 1+F and the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, what will happen?

A

A40. If the pilot does not select configuration 0 after takeoff, the flaps retract automatically at 210 kt.

156
Q

Q41. On approach when Config 1 is selected, what flaps/slats combination is received?

A

A41. Configuration 1 (18 °/0 °) is selected.

157
Q

Q42. Which computers control Slats operation?

A

A42. Two SFCC’s ( Slat Flap Control Computer ) control Slat operation.

158
Q

Q43. Which computers control Flaps operation?

A

A43. Two SFCC’s ( Slat Flap Control Computer ) control Flap operation.

159
Q

Q44. What do you understand by an ECAM of F/CTL SLATS FAULT?

A

A44. An ECAM of F/CTL SLATS FAULT indicates the failure of both slat channels.

160
Q

Q45. What do you understand by an ECAM of F/CTL FLAPS FAULT?

A

A45. An ECAM of F/CTL FLAPS FAULT indicates the failure of both flap channels.

161
Q

Q46. If one SFCC is lost, which of the flight controls are lost? What are the consequences of one SFCC failure?

A

A46. No flight controls are lost on failure of one SFCC. If one SFCC is inoperative, slats and flaps both operate at half speed.

162
Q

Q47. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Flaps inoperative

A

A47. A Dual Green+ Yellow system failure makes Flaps inoperative.

163
Q

Q48. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes Slats inoperative?

A

A48. A Dual Green+ Blue system failure makes Slats inoperative.

164
Q

Q49. Can the rudder be manually trimmed with the autopilot engaged?

A

A49. No.

165
Q

Q50. Is there any rudder pedal feedback for the yaw damping and turn coordination functions?

A

A50. No.

166
Q

Q51. When will Wingtip Brakes get activated?

A

A51. Wingtip brakes (WTBs), are activated in case of asymmetry, mechanism overspeed, symmetrical runaway, or uncommanded movement of the surfaces.

167
Q

Q52. If the WTBs lock the flap or slat surfaces and prevent further movement, can the remaining surfaces be extended?

A

A52. If the flap wingtip brakes are on, the pilot can still operate the slats, and if the slat wingtip brakes are on, he can still operate the flaps.

168
Q

Q53. What is the indication, if wing tip brakes are applied in the flap system?

A

A53. The following are the indications if Wing Tip Brakes are applied in the Flap system :-

(a) The ‘F’ legend appears in Amber on the Slat/Flap position indicator on upper ECAM
(b) F LOCKED legend appears in Amber
(c) Flaps Actual Position becomes Amber on Upper ECAM
(d) F/CTL FLAPS LOCKED caution is generated.

169
Q

Q54. What are the maximum winds for automatic approach, landing, and roll out?

A

A54. Maximum Winds for Automatic Approach, Landing and Roll Out :-

(a) Headwind : 30 knots
(b) Tailwind : 10 knots
(c) Crosswind : 20 knots

170
Q

Q55. What would the FAULT light in the ELAC 1 pushbutton indicate

A

A55. The FAULT Light comes on Amber for the following :-

(a) When a failure is detected
(b) During ELAC power up test (8 seconds)

171
Q

Q56. How many ELAC computers do we have, and what are their functions?

A

A56. There are 2 ELAC computers on board the A320. The ELAC’s provide output to control the Elevators, the Ailerons and the THS.

172
Q

Q57. How many SEC computers are installed and what are their functions?

A

A57. There are 3 SEC computers on board the A320. The SEC’s provide output control to the Spoilers and will be back-up for control of the Elevators and the THS.

173
Q

Q58. Can the rudders be moved with both FACs inoperative?

A

A58. Yes

174
Q

Q59. Which control surfaces are controlled by the FACs computers?

A

A59. Rudder.

175
Q

Q60. What are the functions of FAC computer?

A

A60. The aircraft has two flight augmentation computers (FACs) that perform four main functions:
(a) Yaw function
i- Yaw damping and turn coordination
ii- Rudder trim
iii- Rudder travel limitation
(b) Flight envelope function
i- PFD speed scale management
-> Minimum/maximum speed computation
-> Maneuvering speed computation
ii- Alpha Floor Protection
(c) Low-Energy Warning function
(d) Windshear detection function

176
Q

Q61. Which dual Hydraulic system failure makes THS inoperative?

A

A61. A Dual Green+ Yellow system failure makes the Stabiliser inoperative.

177
Q

Q62. Which dual hydraulic failures do not affect the flight control laws and the aircraft remain in Normal Laws?

A

A62. A Dual Yellow+ Blue Hydraulic failure does not affect the Flight Control laws and the aircraft remains in Normal Law.

178
Q

Q63. What is the warning if both L & R elevator Fault occurs in flight?

A

A63. On the ECAM, F/CTL L+R ELEV FAULT is generated.
On the PFD, “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” appears.

179
Q

Q64. What happens to rudder limiter system if both FAC fail in flight?

A

A64. The Rudder Travel Limit System is lost.

180
Q

Q65. When does ‘PITCH TRIM’ indication become amber on F/CTL page?

A

A65. It becomes amber, if the pitch trim jams.

181
Q

Q66. What are the effects of Slats ALPHA SPEED lock function

A

A66. This function inhibits slat retraction at high angles-of-attack and low speeds.

182
Q

Q67. When does “ALPHA SPEED LOCK” appear?

A

A67. If alpha exceeds 8.5 ° or the airspeed goes below 148 kt, retraction from position 1 to position 0 is inhibited.

183
Q

Q68. What happens to RUD TRIM selector and RESET p/b when AP is engaged?

A

A68. With the autopilot engaged, the FMGC computes the rudder trim orders. The rudder trim rotary switch and the rudder trim reset pushbutton are not active.

4. Systems (19 decks)

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