Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

4. Systems > 15 - Powerplant > Flashcards

15 - Powerplant Flashcards

1
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) On ground the start sequence is automatically aborted :
    (a) There is no automatic abort sequence.
    (b) Only in the case of hot start or hung start.
    (c) Only in the case of no light up.
    (d) In case of hot start, hung start, stall or no light up.
A

(d) In case of hot start, hung start, stall or no light up.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) During an automatic start on ground, the sequence is :
    (a) Ignition by N2>16%, HP fuel valve opening by 22%, start valve closure by N2>50%.
    (b) Ignition and HP fuel valve opening by N2>16 % - Start valve closure by N2>50%.
    (c) Ignition and HP fuel valve opening by N2 22%, Start valve closure by N2>50%
    (d) Ignition by N2>16%, - HP fuel valve opening by N2>22%, - Start valve closure by setting mode selector to norm.
A

(a) Ignition by N2>16%, HP fuel valve opening by 22%, start valve closure by N2>50%.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. (DSC-70-70) Thrust reversers are actuated by :
    (a) Hydraulic actuators ; Green for engine one - Yellow for engine two.
    (b) Hydraulic actuator ; Green for both engines.
    (c) Hydraulic actuators ; Blue for engine 1, Yellow for engine 2.
    (d) Pneumatic actuators.
A

(a) Hydraulic actuators ; Green for engine one - Yellow for engine two.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. (DSC-70-20) The FADEC is electrically supplied by ;
    (a) Aircraft electrical system only.
    (b) Batteries if A/C electrical power fails.
    (c) Self powered above 15% N2.
    (d) Aircraft electrical system or self powered in an emergency.
A

(c) Self powered above 15% N2.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. (DSC-70-30) In manual mode, when the thrust levers are between the climb detent and idle :
    (a) Each position of the levers correspond to an N1.
    (b) N1 is climb N1.
    (c) N1 is idle N1.
    (d) N1 is frozen.
A

(a) Each position of the levers correspond to an N1.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the EGT limit at TOGA power setting.
    (a) 850 deg.c
    (b) 725 deg.c.
    (c) 950 deg.c.
    (d) 915 deg.c.
A

(c) 950 deg.c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the maximum continuous oil temperature ;
    (a) 150 deg.c.
    (b) 140 deg.c.
    (c) 155 deg.c.
    (d) 105 deg.c.
A

(b) 140 deg.c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. (LIM-70) The max continuous oil temp limit may be exceeded, What is the limit and under what conditions ;
    (a) 155 deg.c for less than 15 mins.
    (b) 155 deg.c for 20 mins.
    (c) The max continuous oil temp must not be exceeded.
    (d) 195 deg.c for 20 mins.
A

(a) 155 deg.c for less than 15 mins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the minimum starting oil temperature ;
    (a) -40 deg.c.
    (b) -10 deg.c.
    (c) 0 deg.c.
    (d) -56 deg.c.
A

(a) -40 deg.c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. (PRO-NOR-SOP-04) What is the minimum oil quantity for dispatch ;
    (a) 5 quarts + estimated consumption (0.5 Qts/hr).
    (b) 9.5 quarts + estimated consumption (0.5 Qts/hr).
    (c) 16 Quarts from Irish stations or or 14 Quarts from outstations
    (d) 10 quarts.
A

(c) 16 Quarts from Irish stations or or 14 Quarts from outstations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the minimum oil pressure at ground idle :
    (a) 13 psi.
    (b) 10 psi.
    (c) Variable with oil temperature.
    (d) 11 psi.
A

(a) 13 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the maximum N1 :
    (a) 105 %
    (b) 104 %
    (c) 100 %
    (d) 120 %
A

(b) 104 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the maximum N2 :
    (a) 105 %
    (b) 102 %
    (c) 100 %
    (d) 120 %
A

(a) 105 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the maximum N2 for starter engagement :
    (a) 0 %
    (b) 25 %
    (c) 20%
    (d) 50 %
A

(c) 20%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. (LIM-70) What is the maximum starter operating time ;
    (a) 8 min followed by 15 min of no operation.
    (b) 5 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.
    (c) 2 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.
    (d) 1 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.
A

(c) 2 min followed by 20 sec of no operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. (LIM-70) Starter cooling time requirements are ;
    (a) 15 min cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 min.
    (b) 5 min cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 min.
    (c) 2 min cooling time after 4 cycles of 8 min.
    (d) 5 min cooling time after 2 cycles of 1 min.
A

(a) 15 min cooling time after 4 cycles of 2 min.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. (LIM-70) The MAXIMUM Reverse Thrust may be used down to ;
    (a) A/C Stop according to EGT limit.
    (b) 70 kts. ( idle reverse down to A/C stop)
    (c) 40 kts. ( idle reverse down to A/C stop)
    (d) 20 kts.
A

(b) 70 kts. ( idle reverse down to A/C stop)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. (PER-TOF-TOC-14) What is the (A321) maximum allowable flex temperature ;
    (a) ISA + 29c
    (b) ISA + 15c
    (c) ISA + 43c
    (d) ISA + 13c
A

(c) ISA + 43c

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. (PER-TOF-TOC-14) Reduced thrust is not permitted :
    (a) If outside air temp is lower than corrected temp.
    (b) On a contaminated runway or with one or more reverser inop.
    (c) If outside air temp is higher than T Ref (ISA +15).
    (d) If outside air temp is less than 15 c.
A

(b) On a contaminated runway or with one or more reverser inop.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. (PER-THR) In manual thrust, in cruise, the pilot should limit the N1, What is this limit;
    (a) Displayed max climb N1, minus 2.4 %
    (b) Displayed max climb N1
    (c) Displayed MCT N1
    (d) Idle N1 + 24%.
A

(a) Displayed max climb N1, minus 2.4 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. (PER-THR) Is the maximum cruise N1 displayed on the upper ECAM ;
    (a) No.
    (b) Yes.
    (c) Sometimes.
    (d) Always.
A

(a) No.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. (PER-TOF-TOC-14) At Toulouse (500 ft) ; TREF is 29c, outside air temp is 36c, and you found a corrected Flex TEMP of 33c, is it possible to use flex thrust for
    take off ;

(a) Yes, flex temp of 33c is OK.
(b) No, flex temp 33c is not allowed because it is less than OAT.
(c) Yes, because flex temp 33c is greater than TREF.
(d) Yes, because OAT is greater than TREF.

A

(b) No, flex temp 33c is not allowed because it is less than OAT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. (DSC-70-90) EGT indication becomes red on E/W display when EGT is higher than :
    (a) 855 deg.c
    (b) 950 deg.c.
    (c) 910 deg.c.
    (d) 700 deg.c.
A

(b) 950 deg.c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. (DSC-70-20) What is the FADEC ;
    (a) An engine control box.
    (b) A thrust control unit.
    (c) A digital control system that performs complete engine management consisting of the electronic control unit and its peripheral sensors and components.
    (d) A bleed control computer.
A

(c) A digital control system that performs complete engine management consisting of the electronic control unit and its peripheral sensors and components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. (DSC-70-20) The FADEC system is ;
    (a) Always powered by A/C electrical circuit.
    (b) Always self powered.
    (c) Self powered above 15 % N2 with A/C power when N2 is below 15 %.
    (d) Powered by the RAT.
A

(c) Self powered above 15 % N2 with A/C power when N2 is below 15 %.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) What device provides direct closure of the HP Shut Off Valve ;
    (a) The master switch at off position.
    (b) The ECU.
    (c) The HMU.
    (d) The eng. Man Start push button.
A

(a) The master switch at off position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. (DSC-70-40) Which valve ensures an adequate fuel flow ;
    (a) The HP fuel SOV.
    (b) The BSV (burner staging valve)
    (c) The fuel metering valve of the HMU.
    (d) The start valve.
A

(c) The fuel metering valve of the HMU.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. (DSC-70-40 + PRO-ABN-70) Is the engine still supplied in case of fuel filter clog;
    (a) Yes, by using the fuel coming from the idg cooling tank line.
    (b) Yes, by by-passing the fuel filter (by-pass valve).
    (c) No, the engine stops.
    (d) No fuel will be supplied to the engines if the filter is clogged.
A

(b) Yes, by by-passing the fuel filter (by-pass valve).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) Cranking may be manually selected by setting;
    (a) The mode selector to crank and the master switch to on.
    (b) With master switch to off the mode selector to crank and the man start PB to on.
    (c) With the master switch to on the mode selector to crank and the man start PB to on.
    (d) By selecting the mode selector to crank.
A

(b) With master switch to off the mode selector to crank and the man start PB to on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) During an automatic starting sequence, the pack valves close when ;
    (a) The master switch is selected to on and ignition start is selected.
    (b) Ign start is selected
    (c) Packs are on and ign start is selected.
    (d) The master switch is selected to on.
A

(c) Packs are on and ign start is selected.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) During an automatic starting sequence;
    (a) Start valve closes at N2 > 43%
    (b) Start valve closes at N2 > 45%
    (c) Start valve closes at N2 > 50 %
    (d) Start valve closes at N2 > 22%
A

(c) Start valve closes at N2 > 50 %

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. (LIM-70) Maximum EGT during engine start is ;
    (a) 855 c.
    (b) 890 c.
    (c) 725 c.
    (d) 950 c.
A

(c) 725 c.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. (DSC-70-80) The FADEC automatically selects continuous ignition in the following cases ;
    (a) Wing ant-ice on or engine flame out.
    (b) In flight restart or engine failure or EIU failure.
    (c) In flight automatic restart or engine flame out or EIU failure or engine ant-ice on.
    (d) Only when wing ant-ice is on.
A

(c) In flight automatic restart or engine flame out or EIU failure or engine ant-ice on.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. (DSC-70-50) How is the oil cooled ;
    (a) By the engine fuel /oil heat exchanger and the servo fuel heater.
    (b) By oil recirculation.
    (c) By the air / oil heat exchanger.
    (d) By the precooler.
A

(a) By the engine fuel /oil heat exchanger and the servo fuel heater.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. (DSC-70-90) The oil pressure indicator becomes red when pressure is lower than
    (a) 16 psi.
    (b) 200 psi.
    (c) 13 psi.
    (d) 85 psi.
A

(c) 13 psi.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. (DSC-70-30) In autothrust mode the thrust computed by the fmgc is limited ;
    (a) To the value corresponding to the thrust lever position(unless the alphafloor mode is activated)
    (b) By the mode engaged on the FCU.
    (c) By the FMGC itself.
    (d) To the TOGA detent.
A

(a) To the value corresponding to the thrust lever position(unless the alphafloor mode is activated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. (DSC-70-70) The thrust reverser activation conditions are ;
    (a) Aircraft on the ground and thrust lever between reverse idle detent and max reverse.
    (b) Spoilers armed and thrust levers on the reverse sector.
    (c) Thrust levers in full reverse sector.
    (d) Aircraft in flight and thrust levers on the reverse sector.
A

(a) Aircraft on the ground and thrust lever between reverse idle detent and max reverse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. (DSC-70-90) REV green appears on the N1 indicator when ;
    (a) The thrust levers are selected to full reverse sector.
    (b) The reverse doors are fully deployed.
    (c) The thrust lever position is in the idle reverse sector.
    (d) Any one reverse door is deployed.
A

(b) The reverse doors are fully deployed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. (DSC-70-70) Reverse deployment requires TLA. signal from the SECs, one reverse will be lost if;
    (a) SEC 2 fails.
    (b) SEC 3 fails.
    (c) SECs 1+2 fail or SECs 1+3 fail.
    (d) SEC 1 fails.
A

(c) SECs 1+2 fail or SECs 1+3 fail.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. (DSC-70-10) The low pressure rotor (N1) consists of ;
    (a) A front fan - 2 stage booster - 5 stage Lp turbine.
    (b) A front fan - 4 stage booster - 4 stage Lp turbine.
    (c) A front fan - 3 stage booster - 3 stage Lp turbine.
    (d) A front fan - 5 stage booster - 5 stage Lp turbine.
A

(b) A front fan - 4 stage booster - 4 stage Lp turbine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. (DSC-22-30) A/thr can be engaged ;
    (a) Manually on ground (eng running), automatically after take-off.
    (b) In flight, manually or automatically if there is an alpha floor detection.
    (c) Automatically when the pilot initiates a take off or a go-around or if there is an alpha floor detection after take off and down to 100 ft radio on landing.
    (d) In flight, only if it has been armed on the ground first.
A

(c) Automatically when the pilot initiates a take off or a go-around or if there is an alpha floor detection after take off and down to 100 ft radio on landing.

42
Q
  1. (DSC-22-30) In flight, if the instinctive disconnect pushbutton is pressed for more than 15 secs, the A/thr including alpha floor is:
    (a) Lost
    (b) Available.
    (c) Armed
    (d) Active
A

(a) Lost

43
Q
  1. (DSC-22-30) At takeoff as soon as the power is set (flex or toga) ;
    (a) A/THR function is engaged provided A/THR PB on FCU is pressed in.
    (b) A/THR function is active.
    (c) A/THR function is armed but not active
    (d) A/THR function is not engaged.
A

(c) A/THR function is armed but not active

44
Q
  1. (DSC-70-30) After a flex take off, you have an engine failure and you want to select MCT ;
    (a) You have the thrust lever in flex; MCT selection is automatic.
    (b) You set the thrust levers out of the flex/MCT detent then back to flex/MCT position.
    (c) You must disconnect the ATHR
    (d) You must disconnect the ATHR and the A/P
A

(b) You set the thrust levers out of the flex/MCT detent then back to flex/MCT position.

45
Q
  1. (DSC-26-20) Pressing the engine fire Pb switch on the eng. fire panel causes the closure of ;
    (a) Fuel Lp valve.
    (b) Fuel Lp valve and Hp valve (due to LP valve closure)
    (c) Fuel Hp valve.
    (d) Only the hydraulic isolation valve.
A

(a) Fuel Lp valve.

46
Q
  1. (DSC-22-30) ASYM amber message (FMA) means ;
    (a) One thrust lever is set out of climb detent (both engines running).
    (b) Asymmetric power is established due to fadec malfunction.
    (c) Asymmetric power is established due to TLA resolver fault.
    (d) One engine has failed.
A

(a) One thrust lever is set out of climb detent (both engines running).

47
Q
  1. (DSC-70-30) LVR MCT flashing white message ( in the left part of theFMA) means ;
    (a) Thrust Levers are not in MCT position after engine failure in flight.
    (b) Thrust Levers are not in MCT position after engine failure when speed is greater than green dot.
    (c) MCT should not be set for this phase of flight.
    (d) MCT is not available.
A

(b) Thrust Levers are not in MCT position after engine failure when speed is greater than green dot.

48
Q
  1. (DSC-70-30) LVR CLB flashes white on the FMA if the throttles are not in the climb position when ;
    (a) The a/c is above the altitude of thrust reduction.
    (b) The a/c is at lift off.
    (c) The landing gear is retracted.
    (d) The a/c is below the altitude of thrust reduction.
A

(a) The a/c is above the altitude of thrust reduction.

49
Q
  1. (DSC-70-30) The thrust rating limit is computed by ;
    (a) The fmgc according to the AP/FD mode.
    (b) The FADEC (ECU) according to the thrust lever position.
    (c) The ECU according to the AP/FD mode.
    (d) The FMGC according to the ECU order.
A

(b) The FADEC (ECU) according to the thrust lever position.

50
Q

What engine is in the A319?

A

IAE V2524-A5 (24,000#)

51
Q

What engine is in the A320?

A

IAE V2527-A5 (27,000#)

52
Q

What engine is in the A321?

A

IAE V2530-A5 (32,500#)

53
Q

What is on the N1 shaft?

A

Fan, LP compressor and LP turbine

54
Q

What is on the N2 shaft?

A

HP compressor and HP turbine

55
Q

What is on the accessory gearbox and what are they powered by?

A

Fuel Pump
Oil Pump
Alternator

Powered by the N2 shaft

56
Q

What are the functions of the FADECs?

A

Fuel flow, thrust reverser and ignition control

N1, N2 and EPR limits protection

EGT limits protection

Starter engagement time and speed protection

Fuel and Thrust limit computations

Computation of thrust penalties

Accelleration and deceleration schedules

Idle settings

Engine information to cockpit

57
Q

What does the FADEC control during ground starts?

A

Controls start sequence

Provides full protections

Has start abort authority

58
Q

What FADEC feature is only available during ground starts?

A

Start abort authority

EGT protection

59
Q

What does the FADEC do during manual starts?

A

Monitors and provides cautions and warnings

60
Q

What are the 3 idle settings?

A

Modulated Idle: on ground and in-flight when slats retracted (lowest idle, long spool up times)

Approach idle: in-flight when slats are extended (low spool up time for go arounds)

Reverse Idle: REV IDLE position (slightly higher than modulated idle)

61
Q

How is (EPR) Engine Pressure Ratio calculated?

A

P5 (LP turbine exhaust) vs P2 (engine inlet pressure)

62
Q

What are the 2 modes of the FADEC for setting thrust?

A

EPR (Engine Pressure Ratio)

N1

63
Q

When the FADEC regulates thrust in EPR mode, what are the parameters?

A

Thrust Lever Angle (TLA)

Altitude

Mach Number

Ambient Temperature

Air inlet total temperature

Air bleed demands

64
Q

When EPR mode fails, the FADEC reverts to N1 mode. What important features are lost in N1 mode?

A

No Autothrust

No Alpha Floor

65
Q

What are the 2 types of N1 mode?

A

Rated N1 mode

Unrated N1 mode

66
Q

What is the difference between Rated and Unrated N1 modes?

A

Rated N1 Mode: N1 limits and protections are displayed on E/WD, can be selected manually

Unrated N1 Mode: Used with EPR and Rated N1 mode failures. N1 limits not displayed and FADEC provides limited overspeed protection. (emergency)

67
Q

What is the redundancy within the FADEC?

A

Channels A and B provide backup and redundancy

68
Q

When does the engine alternator provide power to the FADEC?

A

N2>10%

69
Q

How is the IDG and Engine Oil cooled?

A

By heat exchange with the fuel

70
Q

When does the FADEC command continuous ignition?

A

ENG ANTI ICE ON

Take off thrust selected

Engine Interface Unit (EIU) fails

Approach Idle (slats extended)

Engine flameout or surge detected

ENG MASTER cycled on-off-on

71
Q

What type of reverse thrust is used?

A

Translating Sleeve, which redirects Fan Air only

72
Q

What does the thrust reversers require prior to activation?

A

At least 1 FADEC channel op

Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU) detects aircraft is on the ground.

73
Q

When would you get a FAULT light on the engine control section of the pedestal?

A

Auto start is aborted

Start valve fault

HP fuel valve not in commanded position

74
Q

What does the IGN/START switch do?

A

Manually selects continuous ignition

Prepares the engine for the start process

75
Q

What does the CRANK switch do?

A

Prepares the engine for dry cranking (no ignition or fuel flow)

Starter will engage when MAN START is selected

76
Q

How long is TOGO powered limited to?

A

5 minutes

77
Q

What is the speed limitation of Max Reverse?

A

Max reverse should not be used below 70 kts

78
Q

What are the 2 auto-thrust modes?

A

Armed: during TOGO or FLX or when Thrust levers not in active range (between CLB and IDLE)

Active: pushing the FCU A/THR pb

79
Q

When auto-thrust is activated, what do the levers do?

A

The lever now become thrust limiters, therefore us leave them at the CL detent to give auto-thrust full authority.

Note: the exception is when Alpha Floor is activated in which TOGA power is activated regardless of lever position

80
Q

How can you disengage auto-thrust?

A

Disengage buttons on the levers

Selecting A/THR pb off

Moving the thrust levers to idle (landing)

81
Q

The amber tick mark on the EGT gauge is the calculated max EGT for that thrust range. When is the tick mark not present?

A

TO
Reverse
Alpha floor

82
Q

What is the red tick mark on the EGT gauge?

A

Highest value achieved

83
Q

What does a “+” by N1 mean?

A

N1 went above 100%

84
Q

When will the oil pressure be amber?

A

<80psi

85
Q

When will the oil pressure be red?

A

<60psi

86
Q

When will oil temp be amber?

A

>155C

87
Q

When will oil temp be red?

A

>155C for 15 minutes or >165C

88
Q

When will vibration pulse?

A

5 units

89
Q

Which engine is started first and why?

A

2 because it provides pressure for the yellow hydraulic system which provides parking brake pressure

90
Q

What is the memory air for ensuring a stabilized engine start?

A

2,4,6,8,10

20% N1
400 EGT
60% N2
800 Fuel Flow
1.0 EPR

91
Q

Why would you manually start an engine?

A

To allow the engine to reach its max motoring speed prior to ignition and fuel flow

92
Q

When is a manual start recommended?

A

Engine Stall

EGT overlimit

LO START AIR PRESS

No N1 rotation

Hungstart

IGN A/B Fault

93
Q

What is the minimum N2% required for a manual start prior to turning ON the engine master switch?

A

15% N2

94
Q

When does the FADEC close the start valve?

A

N2 between 43-48%

95
Q

What are the advantages to a FLEX TO?

A

Extending engine life

less fuel

96
Q

What does the FADEC do to reduce Fan Flutter?

A

Prevents N1 from stabilizing 60-74% N1, thus when you advance thrust levers, it will skip this range

97
Q

What EPR valve do you aim for to ensure proper engine indications before setting TO power?

A

1.1 EPR

98
Q

When shutting down the engine using the ENG FIRE button what happens?

A

Only the LP fuel valve is closed causing a 40 second delay as the fuel in the line is burned.

99
Q

When will the FADEC abort a start on the ground and indicate a FAULT?

A

Starter time exceeded

EGT overtemp

No light off

Lower than normal N1

Starter failure

Hung Start

100
Q

How can you tell if the FADEC reverted to UNRATED N1 mode?

A

Loss of the max N1% tick mark

101
Q

At what OAT would you select TOGA rather than FLEX?

A

When FLEX temp is within 10 degrees of OAT to avoid asymmetrical thrust (EPR/N1 discrepancy)

4. Systems (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions