7 Burn, part 1 (Tintinalli) Flashcards

1
Q

Remarks on Burn situation in the US

A

“The vast majority of burn patients are treated in the acute setting by emergency physicians and discharged with outpatient follow-up.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Cardiovascular consequence of burn

A

In patients with burns >60% TBSA, depression of cardiac output results in a lack of response to aggressive volume resuscitation, likely due to circulating myocardial depressants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Zones of burn tissue injury

A

“Jackson zones”
1. Zone of coagulation
- tissue is irreversibly destroyed with thrombosis of blood vessels
2. Zone of stasis
- stagnation of the microciculation
3. Zone of hyperemia
- increased blood flow
- minimal damage to the cells and spontanous recovery is likely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Remaks on zone of stasis

A

can become progressively more hypoxemic and ischemi if resuscitation is not adequate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the Rule of Nines

A

18% - Front torso
18% - back torso
18% - R LE
18% - L LE
9% - R UE
9% - L LE
9% - head
1% - perineum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

“area of the hand”

A

area of the hand of the patient, including the digits, represent 1%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

More precise and accurate representation of TBSA

A

Lund-Browder burn diagram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

remarks on determining burn depth

A
  1. Requires clinician judgment using commonly observed wound features
  2. There is no objective method of measuring burn depth
  3. Burn wound biopsy is not routine practice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Superficial burn

A
  1. only the epidermal layer
  2. red, painful, and tender without blister
  3. require only symptomatic treatment
  4. usually heal in about 7 days without scarring
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Superficial partial-thickness burn

A
  1. epidermis and superficial dermis (papillary layer), with sparing of hair follicles and sweat and sebaceous glands
  2. often caused by hot water scalding
  3. blistered, and the exposed dermis is red, moist , and very tender*
  4. dermis is well-perfused with intact capillary refill
  5. healing typically occurs in 14 to 21 days, scarring is usually minimal, with full return of function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Deep partial thickness burn

A
  1. extend into the deep dermis (reticular layer), with damage of hair folllicles and sweat and sebaceous glands
  2. usually from hot oil/grease, steawm, or flame
  3. exposed dermis is pale white to yellow, with absent pain sensation
  4. burned area does NOT blanch; with absent capillary refill,
  5. Healing takes 3 weeks to 2 months; scarring is common; and surgical debridement and skin grafting may be necessary to obtain maximum function
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Full thickness burn

A
  1. skin is charred, pale, painless, and leathery
  2. Because all dermal elements are destroyed, these injuries do not heal spontaneously
  3. Surgical repair and skin grafting are necessary
  4. significant scarring is the norm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

4th degree burns

A

those that extend throught the skin, to the subcutaneous fat, muscle, and even bone
these are devastating, life-threatening injuries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Major burn characteristics

A
  1. Partial-thickness >25% BSA, age 10-50y
  2. Partial-thickness >20% BSA, age <10y or >50y
  3. Full-thickness >10% BSA in anyone
  4. Burns involving hands, face, feet, or perineum
  5. Burns crossing major joints
  6. Circumferential burns of an extremity
  7. Burns complicated by inhalation injury
  8. Electrical burns
  9. Burns complicated by fracture or other trauma
  10. Burns in high-risk patients
    Disposition: Burn center treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Moderate burn characteristics

A
  1. Partial-thickness 15%-25% BSA, age 10-50 y
  2. Partial-thickness 10%-20% BSA, age <10 y or >50 y
  3. Full-thickness ≤10% BSA in enyone
  4. No major burn characteristics
    Disposition: hospitalization
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Minor burn characteristics

A
  1. Partial-thickness <15% BSA, age 10-50 y
  2. Partial thickness <10% BSA, age <10 y or >50 y
  3. Full-thickness <2% in anyone
  4. No major burn characteristics present
    Disposition: outpatient treatment
17
Q

Inhalation injury is associated with the following situations/conditions

A
  1. closed-space fires
  2. conditions that decresease mentation
    - overdose
    - alchol intoxiation
    - drug abuse
    - head injury
18
Q

the 2 major tissue asphyxiants

A

carbon monoxide
hydrogen cyanide`

19
Q

Carbon monoxide poisoning

A

All patients should receive 100% oxygen by NRM

20
Q

Hydrogen cyanide poisoning

A
  1. Formed by the combustion of nitrogen-containing polymers such as wool, silk, polyurethane, and vinyl
  2. cyanide binds to cytochrome oxidase and uncouples mitochondrial oxidative phosphorylation –> profound tissue hypoxia
  3. Traditionally taught but rare presentation: bitter almond breath and cherry red skin
21
Q

Mechanisms of injury of inhalation injury in burn

A
  1. Inhalation injury damages endothelial cells, produces mucosal edema of the small airways, and decreases alveolar surfactant activity, resulting in bronchospasm, airflow obstructoin, and atelectasis
  2. Approx half of intubated burn patients develop ARDS
  3. Prophylactic antiobiotics and corticosteroids are NOT recommended
22
Q

Can help avoid pulmonary edema and ARDS

A

careful fluid resuscitation guided by hemodynamic monitoring

23
Q

upper vs lower airway edema

A

Upper airway edema can occur rapidly,
whereas lower airway edema may not be clinically evident for up to 6 hours