6. Acute Inflammation II Flashcards

1
Q

Left: In order to have inflammation > stimulus (microbe, necrotic tissue, etc.); in order to initiate inflammatory response: recognize the stimulus (the sentinel cells are responsible [____, and ____]); then, recruitment of cells (in acute: mostly ____); then, removal/elimination of microbes; then, ____ of inflammatory cells (regulated because when neutrophils enter, they release mediators that kill microbes but also cause tissue damage), and lastly repair of the tissue

Middle, top: without inflammation a wound doesn’t heal properly
Right, top: pregnancy gingivitis > when someone is pregnant they are more sensitive to the presence of ____; can be a good or bad thing; necrotic tissue with inflammation surrounding it, and the inflammation responds in order to remove the dead tissue
Right, bottom: freezer burn, inflammation responds in order to heal it

All of these phrases to describe middle bottom > ____: inflamed tissue (red); erythematous: same as hyperemia; edematous: lots of fluid; and tender

A

mast cells
macrophages
neutrophils
regulation

bacteria
hyperemia

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2
Q

Left, top: inflammatory response to peanuts, this swelling is not protective > potentially lethal because it is activated inappropriately
Left, bottom: infected appendix > ruptured colon (if inflammation is produce in an ____ inflammation can be lethal); and meningitis > ____

Middle: periapical abscess > can spread ____ giving ____ thrombosis and can spread south giving ____ (appendicitis migrates ____)

A

open cavity
closed cavity

north
???
ludwig’s angina
laterally

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3
Q

A > surface of heart pericardium; this is an exudate > ____
B > lung > ____exudate (purulent implies necrotic tissue, but this has no necrotic tissue, so sometimes this is called a “____” exudate)
C > skin > blister > ____ exudate (very light fluid)
D > ____: loss of epithelium
E > bowel mucosa > red material > inflamed > yellowish material sitting on it: ____ exudate
F > abscess (____ exudate contained within a cavity)

A
fibrinous
purulent
neutrophilic
serous
ulcer
purulent
purulent
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4
Q
Inflammatory (Exudate)
Pathogenesis: \_\_\_\_
Status of vessel: \_\_\_\_
Protein in tissue: \_\_\_\_
Tendency to clot: \_\_\_\_
Pain: \_\_\_\_
Inflam. cells: \_\_\_\_
Examples: \_\_\_\_
Non-inflammatory (Transudate)
Pathogenesis: \_\_\_\_
Status of vessel: \_\_\_\_
Protein in tissue: \_\_\_\_
Tendency to clot: \_\_\_\_
Pain: \_\_\_\_
Inflam. cells: \_\_\_\_
Examples: \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_, \_\_\_\_
A
loss of vascular barrier
increased perm. to proteins
yes
yes
usually present
yes/no
inflammatory disorders
abnormal fluid dynamics
unaltered: retains plasma protein
no
no
usually absent
no
CHF
kwashiorkor
cirrhosis
cancer
elephantiasis
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5
Q

Middle: longitudinal section of BV; showing only protein
Exudate: when fluid and protein are ____
Transudate: fluid in the extravascular tissue but the protein is retained within the ____
Both are edemas, but differ in the location of the protein

Exudate would clot because now ____ are in the EC space

Mediators are produced in exudate so they trigger the ____ > pain

Exudate > ____ exudate will have inflam cells; ____ and ____ will have no inflam cells; transudate > no protein, no cells

CHF = congestive heart failure; kwashiokor: protein ____, and the others result of edema in extravascular tissue, and that edema is transudate

A

outside
BV

clotting factors
inflammatory response
purulent
serous
fibrinous

malnutrition

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6
Q

Transudate: Altered fluid dynamics/Diseases

• Increased Hydrostatic Pressure:
– Disorders with impaired ____ return
– Congestive ____, Deep ____

• Reduced Osmotic Pressure:
– ____ (malnutrition or inadequate synthesis)
– ____, Liver ____

• Lymphatic Obstruction:
– Lymphedema (____)
– Lymphedema (Breast Cancer ____)
– Lymphedema (____)

A

venous
heart failure
vein thrombosis

albumin
kwahiorkor
cirrhosis

breast cancer
treatment
fibrosis/elephantiasis

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7
Q

Increased Hydrostatic Pressure

Hyperemia (____)
Defintion: Increased ____ within tissue
Etiology: Irritation/Injury (____), Increased ____ (exercise)
Pathogenesis: Arteriolar ____/increased ____ (Active)
Gross appearance: ____
Microscopic appearance: Capillaries/Arterioles ____, Engorged with ____

Congestion (____)
Definition: Increased ____ within tissue
Etiology: ____ failure, ____ Obstruction
Pathogenesis: Impaired outflow from of ____ from tissue (Passive)
Gross appearance: ____
Microscopic appearance: Capillaries/venules ____ with blood, ____ in lung (Left sided HF)

A
active
blood volume
inflammation
demand
dilation
blood flow
redness/heat
dilated
blood
passive
blood volume
cardiac
venous
venous blood
red blue (cyanosis)
engorged
hemosiderin
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8
Q

Increased HP

Right-sided heart failure > problem with outflow > edema (generalized ____, ____)

Left-sided heart failure > edema would develop in the ____ (____)

Deep venous thrombosis in one leg > localized edema (____)

Depending on where the heart failure is located, and whether or not there is a thrombosis, each of these examples will ensue

Increased hydrostatic pressure > ____

A

edema
transudate

lung
transudate

transudate

transudate

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9
Q

Increased HP

Middle: normal lung, and BV are tightly packed

Left: pneumonia > fluid accumulate into alveolar space and BV dilate and loss of BV > with time, formation of “____” exudate (purulent)

Left-sided heart failure > fluid w/o any protein (____), and capillaries are engorged and packed with fluid and because they are very thin you may have RBC leaking out which contain ____ > alveolar macrophages containing hemosiderin engulf dead RBC (____ cell)

A

neutrophilic

transudate
hemosiderin
heart failure

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10
Q

Reduced Osmotic Pressure: Kwashiorkor

  • Severe ____ in some poor countries.
  • ~25% of children may be affected.
  • ____ give rise to general edema.
  • Severe cases; weight ~60% of normal but the true weight lost is masked by increased ____.

Not enough protein > the blue is affected > hypoalbuminia (reduced albumin content in plasma) > if this content is reduced, then the three components are impaired > ____ forces fluid out, but not enough ____ to pull fluid back in and fluid accumulates

Weight loss masked by increased edema > if you were to not account for the fluid in their body, the weight loss would be much more than 60%

The fluid is a ____

A

protein-energy malnutrition (PEM)
hypoalbuminemia
edema

hydrostatic pressure
osmotic pressure

transudate

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11
Q

Reduced Osmotic Pressure: Liver Cirrhosis

  • ____: Replacement of normal liver with fibrotic (scar tissue).
  • ____ and reduced plasma osmotic pressure.
  • Transudate (____)
  • Portal ____.

Condition where normal liver tissue is replaced with fibrotic tissue > liver is not functioning properly (____)

Liver makes the ____, and as you destroy the liver you do not make enough albumin > hypoalbumenia > reduced ____

Fluid that accumulates in peritoneum = ____; ascites is a general term that says how there is fluid in ____, this fluid can be either exudate or transudate; if a response of liver > fluid is transudate; if infection in cavity > exudate

A

cirrhosis
hypoalbuminemia
ascites
hypertension

chronic alcoholism

albumin
osmotic pressure

ascites
peritoneum

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12
Q

Lymphatic Obstruction: Breast cancer

  • ____: swelling caused by compromised lymphatic system.
  • Obstruction of superficial lymphatics by breast cancer cells.
  • Edema of overlying skin
  • “____”

If lymphatics do not drain properly > fluid in EV space

How can you have a compromised lymphatic system > breast cancer that is initially localized and then metastasizing by invading the nearby lymph nodes > breast cancer cells will obstruct ____ > cannot drain as much fluid as it normally does

Woman has breast cancer, the redness (orange circle) = ____ > this breast cancer is invading the lymphatics > obstructing resulting in fluid accumulation

A

lymphedema
peau d’orange

lymphatic nodes

peau d’orange

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13
Q

Lymphatic Obstruction: Resection/Irradiation

• Lymphedema caused by breast cancer treatment:
– ____
– ____
• ____ lymph nodes from other body parts to relieve pain and swelling?

Woman has been treated for breast cancer by resection (removal of breast) or irradiation; if breast is removed > local lymph nodes are removed; if treating by irradiation > destroying the lymphatics

Left breast removed > the ____ can also swell up (due to the transudate) because of lymph node resection (along with breast) or destroyed because of irradiation

A

resection
irradiation
transplanting

left arm

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14
Q

Lymphatic obstruction: Filariasis/Elephantiasis

If lymphatic becomes ____ inflamed and they become ____ (replace normal lymph node with collagenous tissue) and the normal function is gone; cannot drain fluid and there is fluid accumulation in the EV space

Middle: don’t really need to know this, but if bitten by ____, they transmit a ____ that can enter lymphatic and destroy it (by bringing in macrophages as well, etc.); if fibrosis it takes a long time to occur; and once they’re destroyed you’ll have swelling of the extremities

Can be ____ or ____, depends on what part of body is infected

A

chronically
fibrosis

mosquito
parasite

unilateral
generalized (both legs)

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15
Q

Mediators of vascular permeability

Mediators as they relate to increased vascular permeability

Mast cells are located close to ____, and they have tons of granules that are released almost ____ following activation

____ mediators, and mediators that come from ____ (cytokines that come later in the inflammation process)

A

BV
immediately

plasma
macrophages

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16
Q

Mediators can be derived from the cell or from the plasma

The most important mediator released early in inflammation > ____ (can come from ____, some believe it comes from ____, and ____)

Newly synthesized (5-10 mins) mediators are PGs/LTs; they come from ____ and all ____ (macrophages and neutrophils)

Cytokines come from ____, and for acute inflammation they come from ____ and ____, and ____

Plasma-derived mediators

In terms of timing there are ____ (histamines: seconds and minutes) (PHs/LTs overlap in minutes) and cytokines [from macrophages and other listed above] take hours (you need ____ and ____ of genes)

A

histamine
basophils
plasma cells
mast cells

mast cells
leukocytes

macrophages
endothelial cells
mast cells
lymphocytes

overlap
transcription
translation

17
Q

Left: skin, langerhans cells within epidermis, within the BV there are T cells, eosinophils and neutrophils, and mast cells are surrounding in the ____ and are in close proximity to ____ and ____ (found in the connective tissue layer of skin [____], not epidermal)

Middle: mast cells: granules are packed with ____

Right: SEM of activated mast cells, as soon as activated the ____ are released and they release their contents > the most important content of the granule: histamine [activated quickly]

A

dermis
BV
nerve endings
dermis

histamine

granules

18
Q

How are mast cells activated?

In response to ____ > close to nerve endings (NP)
(NP) > ____ [pain?]
AMP > ____ peptides
____ component (C3a, C5a)

There are different ____ on mast cells for each of these; important ____ because they can sense almost anything that can initiate inflammation

Once mast cell is activated, granules are released, and histamine exits these granules (claritin and benadryl > ____, used for runny nose and allergic diseases)

A

trauma
substance P
anti-microbial
complement

receptors
sentinels

anti-histamine

19
Q

Mast Cells

Function of histamine: ____ of arterioles > as a result > the tissue looks ____ and feels ____ because of hyperemia (increased blood flow); it also increases ____ to protein > ____ formation

A
dilation
red
warm
vascular permeability
exudate
20
Q

Lipid derived mediators

Left: membrane phospholipids, when phospholipases are activated (____) they cleave ____ > resulting in ____ or ____ pathway

Once cyclooxygenase is activated (PGG2 to ____) > in mast cells ____ and ____ > increase vasodilation and increase vascular permeability; ____ initiates, and ____ maintain the effect [after] because histamine is cleaved

Endothelial cells > produce ____ > ____, but also inhibits platelet ____ and ____

Platelets > ____ > causes ____ and promotes platelet ____ (important in wound healing)

A

A2/C
arachadonic acid
COX
5-lipoxygenase

PGH2
PGD2
PGE2
histamine
PGs/LTs

PGI2
vasodilation
activation
aggregation

thromboxin A2
vasoconstriction
aggregation

21
Q

Lipid mediators

Lipoxygenase pathway > leukotrienes (C4, D4, E4) from ____ > increase vascular ____, but also cause ____ from interaction of mast cells > ____ used for treatment of asthma (involved with the bronchoconstriction)

Leukocytes > neutrophils > ____ > mediator for ____

In order for neutrophils to provide normal function > ____ (produced from neutrophils and platelets) > inhibit ____

Steroids > inhibit ____ and block the entire time; if you have inflammatory reaction, it blocks everything

COX inhibitors > inhibit ____ and any pain ____

A

HPETE
permeability
bronchoconstriction
leukotriene inhibitors

leukotriene B4
neutrophil chemotaxis

lipoxins
neutrophil adhesion/chemotaxis

phospholipases

COX pathway
production

22
Q

Plasma derived mediators

Three different sources, but activated by a similar mechanism

3 interrelated systems, one is ____, other is ____, and the last is ____ (most well known)

Normally all three are circulating, and they’re not activated, but during inflammation they are activated, how? > inactive enzyme, and something happens during inflammation that activates it and it works on substrate, and once cleaved you have formation of product > increased vascular permeability in inflammation

Kinin system: Pre-K (____ is produce in liver, when comes into contact with damaged endothelial cells, it converts Pre-K into ____) > substrate = ____, which is already present in blood > converted into ____ > increased vascular permeability and pain (in acute inflammation)

Plasmin > also uses ____, cleaves plasminogen into ____, which works on ____ and once cleaved it forms ____ > increased vascular permeability

Complement > C1-C9 (activated by three different pathways: ____, ____, ____) > converted into ____ > C3/C5 > ____ > activated ____ to increase vascular permeability

A

kinin
plasmin
complement

factor XII
kallikrein
kininogen
bradykinin

factor XII
plasmin
fibrin
peptides

Ag/Ab
LPS
plasmin

C3 conver
C3a, C5a
mast cells

23
Q
Cytokines (local inflammation)
• Polypeptides produced by \_\_\_, \_\_\_ and \_\_\_
• IL-1, TNF, IL-6
• IL-1 and TNF: (Effect on \_\_\_ cells)
• Increased vascular \_\_\_
• Increased expression of \_\_\_ molecules

• Chemokines (CXC and CC)

  • –• CXC: ___ (___)
  • –• CC: ___ (___)

Cytokines are produced ___ > effect on local inflammation

Formation of TNF, IL-1 (from mast cells, macrophages or endothelial cells) > activate leukocytes to release chemokines

Play a role in increasing vascular permeability pf endothelium later in the process

Chemokines are important for recruitment of neutrophils and monocytes

A

IL-1
TNF
IL-6

endothelial
permeability
adhesion

IL-8
neutrophils
MCP-1
monocytes

last

24
Q

Mediators for Retraction: cell-derived (histamine), then PG/LT, then plasma derived and then cytokines [___ (histamine), ___ (PG/LT, plasma) to ___ (cytokines)]

How to increase vascular permeability > receptors for all things are on endothelial cells, and as activated they ___ and pull away from one another, creating space for proteins to go through

Cell injury produced by other mediators (___, ___), can be ___ or ___; after sun-bathing > skin is red > sun has damaged endothelial cells and producing ___, which takes a while > creating increased vascular permeability and redness

A

seconds
minutes
hours

retract

burns
IL-1
rapid
long-lasting
IL-1
25
Q

Histamine, PGs, C3a/C5a, Kinins (Cytokines? TNF, IL-1, IL-6): ___

Histamine, PGs, LTs, C3a/C5a, Kinins, cytokines: ___

PGs, Kinins: ___

PGs, Cytokines: ___

C3a/C5a > ___ > ___

Cytokines do not play an important role in ___

A

vasodilation
increased vascular permeability

pain

fevers

vasodilation

26
Q

Fever: Acute phase reaction

  • Bacterial products (LPS, ___ pyrogen) causes the release of ___ and ___ from leukocytes (___ Pyrogens).
  • TNF−α /IL-1 → ___ → AA →___
  • In hypothalamus PGE2 → ___
  • Reset temperature set point at ___ level

Pyrogen > something that causes fever

A

exogenous
TNFalpha
IL-1
endogenous

COX
PGE2
NT
higher

27
Q

Elevated plasma acute phase proteins

  • Mostly synthesized in ___ (~100 fold increase)
  • C-reactive Proteins (CRP)
  • Serum Amyloid A (SAA)
  • CRP and SAA activate ___ →Microbe elimination
  • Fibrinogen →___

C-reactive protein (CRP) and serum amyloid A (SAA)> synthesized in the liver in response to ___ > production of these proteins are increased 100-fold

CRP/SAA > activate ___ pathway > contribute to elimination of microbe

A

liver
complement
rouleaux (ESR)

IL6/IL1

complement

28
Q

Leukocytosis and other Manifestations

  • Common in ___ infection
  • Increases to ___/mm3
  • ___, ___ and ___ cause release from reserve in bone marrow
  • Infections cause the release of ___ from Mac/Fibroblasts
  • G-CSF causes increased production of ___ in bone barrow
  • Increased ___
  • ___
  • ___

Normal is 4-6,000 mm3

Either increased ___ or increased ___ from BM

___ > don’t feel well; these symptoms are a result of leukocytosis (and systemic inflammation)

A
bacterial
15,000-20,000
TNF
IL-1
IL-6
G-CSF
neutrophils

heart rate
shivering/chills
malaise

production
release

malaise

29
Q

PAMPs and DAMPs

PAMP: ___
DAMP: ___

Mast cells are a sentinel cell, but macrophages are also important sentinel cells > expression of ___ (nine or eleven different types, some present on PM, and some intracellularly) > these receptors bind to ___ that are present on pathogens (EC: ___; IC: ___, ___, and ___)

DAMP > as a result of ___ tissue (not apoptotic tissue, because it doesn’t release anything outside of the cell, releases anti-inflam cytokines); necrotic tissue release danger-signals: ___ that can cleave on EC matrix proteins to generate ___, or activate ___ pathway > C3a/C5a, and there are IC DAMPs > bind ___ > generate ___ > cause inflammation

A

pathogen-associated molecular pattern
danger-associated molecular pattern

TLR
receptors
LPS
ssRNA
ssDNA
dsDNA
necrotic
proteases
EC DAMPs
complement
TLR
IL-1
30
Q

Inflammasome, IL-1β and Acute Inflammation

Inflammasome complex:
• ___ protein: NLR pyrin domain- containing-3 (NLRP3)
• ___ protein: (ASC; apoptosis- associated speck-like protein with CARD)
• Enzyme: ___; Pro-IL-1β to IL-1β

Cytosolic complex, and contains three components: sensor protein > senses ___ and ___; adaptor protein > binds to sensor; enzyme > caspase-1; the whole complex is known as an inflammasome complex

When activated > activation of caspase-1 > pro-IL1beta is inactive that is present because of activation of other receptors, caspase1 cleaves this > IL1beta > ___

A

sensor
adaptor
caspase

PAMP
DAMP

acute inflammation

31
Q

Autoinflammatory versus Autoimmune Diseases

Autoinflammatory:
• Malfunction in \_\_\_ immune system
• Macrophages/mast cells/Neutrophils
• No \_\_\_ (presence of \_\_\_, IL-1)
• \_\_\_ (CAPS, FMF, PAAND)
• \_\_\_ effect (Fever, skin rash)
Autoimmune
• Malfunction in \_\_\_ immune system
• \_\_\_ cells and \_\_\_ cells
• Presence of \_\_\_ or antigen-specific T cells.
• \_\_\_; ~80 types described e.g. \_\_\_/\_\_\_
• \_\_\_ specific
A
innate
autoantibodies
cytokines
rare
systemic
adaptive
B
T
autoantibodies
common
rhematoid arthritis
pemphigus vulgaris
tissue
32
Q

Cryopyrin-Associated Periodic Syndrome (CAPS)
• Cryopyrin is a protein that is encoded by the ___ gene
• ___ mutations in cryopyrin
• Constitutively active ___
• Excessive production of ___

Cryopyrin > encoded by NLRP3 gene > gain-of-function mutation > inflammasome complex is constitutively active > IL1beta production > excessive ___

Etiology > ___
Pathogenesis > constitutive ___ activation resulting in IL1beta production

Disease: ___

A

NLRP3
gain of function
caspase-1
IL-1beta

acute inflammation

mutation
caspase

autoinflammatory

33
Q

CAPS: Clinical manifestations, diagnosis and treatment

• ___ different subtypes; Episodes of Rash, fever, chills, eye redness, fatigue

• Diagnosis: (challenging) ___ composed mostly of ___ and does not
respond to ___.

  • During episodes: ___ (30,0000 PMNs/mm3) and elevated ___.
  • ___ testing.
  • ___ antagonist (Anakinra; ___ injection), ___ (Rilonacept, ___), ___ (Canakinumab, every ___ weeks)

Challenging because many other illnesses contain ___

Diagnose this by ___ testing

Can treat this by targeting IL1:
IL1R antagonist ___ is low, need to inject daily in order for it to work

IL-1 trap > protein that binds and removes the IL1 from system > inject weekly

Anti-IL-1beta antibody > antibody that binds IL1 and removes from circulation > use every 8 weeks

A
three
rash
neutrophils
neutrophils
anti-histamine

leukocytosis
ESR

genetic

IL-1R
daily
IL-1 trap
weekly
Anti-IL-1B antibody
8

rashes

genetic

half-life

34
Q

Familial Mediterranean Fever (FMF)
• Well-characterized hereditary ___disorder
• In 1997; Mediterranean fever gene identified (___)
• MEFV encodes a protein called ___ (“Pyrin inflammasome”)
• ___ mutation in pyrin (V726, M690V, M680I)
• Constitutively active ___
• ___ production

Similar mechanism to CAPS

Pyrin from MEFV is a different ___ for the inflammasome

Constitutively producing IL-1beta because of constitutively active caspase-1

A
autoinflammatory
MEFV
pyrin
gain of function
caspase-1
IL-1beta

sensor

35
Q

FMF: Clinical manifestations diagnosis and treatment

  • Recurrent episodes of fever, ___, skin rash (often below ___), joint pain, ___ redness, fatigue (lasting ___ hours).
  • Long term ___ complications (hematuria, ___).
  • Diagnosis: clinical and ___ testing.
  • Colchicine (1972); affect Leukocyte ___
  • ___ (Anakinra), ___ (Rilonacept), ___ (Canakinumab)

Patients may have blood and protein in the urine

Can be treated by same drugs of CAPS

A

serositis
knee
eye
12-72

renal
proteinuria

genetic
migration/gene expression

IL-1R
IL-1 trap
anti-IL-1B

36
Q

Pyrin-associated Autoinflammation with neutrophilic dermatosis (PAAND)

  • Three generation of a Belgian family of 22 individuals
  • 12 individuals developed ___ disease
  • ___ onset, recurrent episodes of ___ (lasting several ___)
  • ___: Acne, sterile skin abscess, (pyoderma) neutrophilic vasculitis
  • Elevated ___
  • Ser242Arg (S242R) mutation in ___ (encoded by the ___ gene)
A
auto-inflammatory
childhood
fever
weeks
neutrophilic dermatosis
plasma IL-1
pyrin
MFMF
37
Q

PAAND: Clinical Presentation:

___

___ Acne

___: Perivascular and interstitial Neutrophils

Right: BV, inflammation of the BV (vasculitis); presence of neutrophils

One would predict that this disease can also be treated by the same drugs that target ___

A

pyoderma
pustular
vasculitis

IL1

38
Q

Summary of major cytokines in acute inflammation

TNF
Principal source: \_\_\_/\_\_\_
Major Actions in Acute: 
• \_\_\_ molecules on Endothelial cells
• Secretion of other \_\_\_
• \_\_\_ effects
IL-1
Principal source: \_\_\_/\_\_\_/\_\_\_
Major Actions in Acute: 
• Similar to \_\_\_
• \_\_\_
• (\_\_\_, \_\_\_, \_\_\_)
IL-6
Principal source: \_\_\_/\_\_\_
Major actions in Acute: 
• \_\_\_ effects
• \_\_\_ response

Chemokines
Principal source: ___/___
Major actions in Acute:
• Recruitment of ___

A
macro's
mast cells
adhesion
cytokines
systemic
macro's
mast cells
epithelial cells
TNF
fever
CAPS
FMF
PAAND

macro’s
mast cells
systemic
acute phase

macro’s
mast cells
neutrophils/monocytes