Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1/2 Psych > 5.Developmental Psychology > Flashcards

5.Developmental Psychology Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Psychology 101 flashcards GRE® Psychology flashcards
1
Q

what is lifespan development

A

Lifespan development refers to the age-related changes that occur from conception until the time of death
-includes various stages and various areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what makes a change ‘developmental’

A

changes must be relatively permanent (ie not a broken arm that last briefly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is maturation

A

Maturation refers to physical growth of the body and all its physical components (biological growth process)
-it is automatic and follows a consistent pattern (developmental norms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are developmental norms

A

standards by which the progress of a child’s development can be measured, such as the average age they learn to walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

identify areas of development

A

physical
cognitive
emotional
social

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is physical development

A

changes to the body and its systems
-Motor- physical skills development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what is cognitive development

A

changes in how we think and learn
-perceptual- how we interpret the environment around us

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is a other name for cognitive development

A

psychological development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is emotional development

A

changes in how we experience, express and interpret feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is social development

A

changes in how we interact with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

identify the stages of lifespan

A

infancy
childhood
adolescence
early adulthood
middle age
old age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what ages are infancy

A

0-2 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what ages are childhood

A

2-10 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what ages are adolescence

A

10-20 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what ages are early adulthood

A

20-40 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what ages are middle age

A

40-65 y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what ages are old age

A

65+ y/o

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

physical development during infancy

A

-development of fine motor skills eg grasping
-reflexes eg sucking
-motor production of speech- development of mouth and tongue
-gross motor skills to be able to walk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

psychological development during infancy

A

-rapid development of perceptual abilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

social development during infancy

A

social skills- introduced to new people (other than family)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

emotional development during infancy

A

-emotional attachment, infant to primary care giver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

physical development during childhood

A

-motor skills: fine (handwriting) and gross (jump, kick, throw, leap)
-teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

psychological development during childhood

A

-moral development (right and wrong)
-development through play

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

social development during childhood

A

-independence from adults
-play with others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

emotional development during childhood

A

-moral development
-appropriate emotional expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

physical development during adolescence

A

-puberty - development of sex characteristics
-growth in height

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

psychological development during adolescence

A

-seek independence from parents
-advances in logical and abstract thinking
-develop identify
-personality changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

social development during adolescence

A

-strengthening of peer groups
-develop sense of self and identity - personal fable
-personality changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

emotional development during adolescence

A

-personality changes
-changes in hormone levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

physical development during early adulthood

A

-fully developed
eg female ready to conceive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

psychological development during early adulthood

A

-financial independence
-career
-ready to start family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

social development during early adulthood

A

-establishing personal relationships
-select life partners
-development of intimate relationships

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

emotional development during early adulthood

A

start family
-emotional attachment to child / partner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

physical development during middle age

A

-decreased muscle tone
-decreased posture and balance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

psychological development during middle age

A

-increased responsibility eg earn money, provide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

social development during middle age

A

-expand social and personal involvements
-support children in their development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

emotional development during middle age

A

expand social and personal involvements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

physical development during old age

A

-decreased strength
-decline in overall health
-new hobbies eg lawn bowls t/f increased motor development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

psychological development during old age

A

-decreased work
-new hobbies eg sudoku

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

social development during old age

A

-death of friends and family
-increased freedom
-new hobbies eg join book club

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

emotional development during old age

A

death of friends and family

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what is personal fable

A

cognitive distortion leading to an inflated sense of self worth, uniqueness and importance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

continuous development

A

Involves gradual ongoing changes throughout life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

discontinuous development

A

involves specific stages with bursts of rapid development within those stages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what are sensitive periods
+eg

A

the period of time in which organism is more responsive to certain stimulation
eg sensitive period for language acquisition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are critical periods
+eg

A

the narrow period of time where development in an animal is preprogrammed for learning to occur
eg critical period for vision

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what is the principle of readiness

A

states that unless the necessary physical maturation has occurred, no amount of practice will produce a particular mental process or behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is epigenetics

A

the study of how environmental factor affect how our genes are expressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

identify the two types of twins

A

monozygotic and dizygotic twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are monozygotic twins

A

when a single (mono) fertilised egg (zygote) spontaneously splits into two and develops into two foetuses, monozygotic twins share 100% of their genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are dizygotic twins

A

when two eggs are released at the same time and fertilised by two different sperm. They share 50% of the same genes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

criticism of twin studies

A

parents tend to treat identical twins in a moire similar way than non identical twins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the nature vs nurture debate

A

refers to the question of whether our development is due mainly to genetics (nature) (heredity) or the environment (nurture)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what is attachment

A

attachment refers to the emotional bond that forms between an infant and their caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

who first proposed the attachment theory

A

John Bowlby

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

identify the characteristics of attachment

A

4 characteristics
-Proximity maintenance
-Safe haven
-Secure base
-Seperation distress

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what is proximity maintenance

A

the level of desire the infant has to be near the caregiver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is safe haven

A

the ability for the infant to return to the caregiver when stressed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is secure base

A

the attachment figure becomes the base from which to explore

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is separation distress

A

level of anxiety felt by infant when caregiver leaves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

who developed the strange situation test

A

Mary Ainsworth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how old are infants who undergo the strange situation test

A

between 9 and 18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

8 steps of the strange situation test

A
  1. Infant and Primary care giver (PCG) enter room
    2.The PCG observes the infant exploring the room and playing with toys
    3.Stranger enters the room and tries to interact with infant
  2. PCG leaves the room -may observe separation anxiety
    5.PCG returns and stranger leaves- observe reunion
    6.PCG leaves room and infant is alone in room
  3. Stranger enters the room- is the infant comforted by the stranger?
    8.PCG enters (observe reunion) and stranger leaves the room
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is stranger anxiety

A

refers to an infants cautiousness towards and around unfamiliar people

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what is separation anxiety

A

signs of distress displayed by an infant when not in the prescence of their primary care giver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

identify the types of attachment +percentages

A

-secure attachment (65%)
-insecure avoidant attachment (20%)
-insecure resistant attachment (12%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is secure attachment

A

-infant uses primary caregiver as a base for exploration
-shows sign of separation anxiety, but easily soothed by primary care giver when reunited

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what is insecure avoidant attachment

A

-infant does not seek closeness with primary care giver
-when separated, infant shows no signs of separation anxiety
-infant ignores primary care giver upon reunion
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what may be the cause of insecure avoidant attachment

A

neglect and/or abuse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what is insecure resistant attachment

A

-infant seems anxious, even in presence of primary care giver
-extreme distress when the primary care giver leaves
-initially seek comfort from primary care giver upon reunion, but is difficult to soothe
-

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what may cause insecure resistant attachment

A

primary care giver is frequently unresponsive to the infants needs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is disorganised attachment

A

infants are said to display disorganised attachment when their behaviour is inconsistent with the patterns displayed in secure and insecure attachment and seemingly contradictory.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

examples of disorganised attachment behaviour

A

-respond to reunions with fearful behaviours, rocking, ear pulling or freezing
-seeking contact with primary care giver upon reunion, but moving very slowly towards them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

possible causes of disorganised attachment

A

maltreatment, hostile caregiving, post natal depression, primary care giver experiencing trauma or loss, however some infants with disorganised attachment have seemingly normal upbringings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

possible outcomes of disorganised attachment

A

-mental health issues later in life
-extreme mood swings
-low levels of self esteem
-controlling behaviour
-high levels of aggression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

long term outcomes of secure attachment

A

-good self esteem
-trusting relationships with friends and romantic partners
-seek out social support
-comfortable expressing feelings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

long term outcomes of insecure attachment

A

-anxiety
-difficulty forming and maintaining close relationships with others
-difficulty expressing emotions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

why are the theories on long term impacts of attachment controversial

A

because the longitudinal research that has occurred and lack of control over variables

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

identify the factors influencing attachment

A

-genetics
-temperament
-early life experiences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

how do genetics influence attachment

A

-Bowlby suggested that infants are genetically pre programmed to display attachment signals such as crying, clinging, smiling and gazing at their caregiver
-these develop through maturation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

how does temperament influence attachment

A

-differs between infants and is is evident from birth through to childhood and adulthood
-have a genetic basis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is temperament

A

an individuals characteristic way of reacting to people, objects and events

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

identify the different infant temperaments

A

-easy
-difficult
-slow to warm up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

describe easy temperament in an infant

A

Usually content and happy, adaptable to new experiences, regular feeding and sleeping habits, tolerant of frustration and discomfort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

describe difficult temperament in an infant

A

Often irritable, irregular sleep and eating habits, negative reactions to disruptions to their routines, throw tantrums when frustrated or uncomfortable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

describe a slow to warm up temperament in an infant

A

Somewhat moody, moderately regular sleeping and eating habits ,cautious in new situations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

how can early life experiences influence attachment

A

sensitivity and responsiveness of the caregiver
-infants are more likely to form secure attachments to caregivers who are able to respond quickly and appropriately signs of their discomfort

demographic factors
-Family income ,family size, parental age and education level, stability of parent relationships, cultural background

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

sample for Harlows rhesus monkeys experiment

A

eight infant/newborn rhesus monkeys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

IV for Harlows rhesus monkeys experiment

A

the form of the surrogate mother that provided food (either clothed or wired)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

DV for Harlows rhesus monkeys experiment

A

the strength of affectional attachment between the infants and their surrogate mothers (measured by mean time spent on surrogate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

results from harlows rhesus monkeys experiments

A

-all infant monkeys spent most of their time clinging to the the cloth-covered surrogates
-infant monkeys ran to cloth covered surrogates when frightened
-concluded that contact comfort was more important than feeding when it came to forming attachment bonds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Identify the stages of Erikson’s theory of psychosocial development

A

1.Trust vs mistrust
2.Autonomy vs shame and doubt
3.Initiative vs guilt
4.Industry vs Inferiority
5.Identity vs role confusion
6.Intimacy vs isolation
7.Generativity vs Stagnation
8.Integrity vs despair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what is the age range for trust vs mistrust

A

0-18 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

describe trust vs mistrust

A

-infants develop a sense of trust when caregivers provide reliability, warmth, love, physical care, a lack of this will cause mistrust to develop
-trust helps infant form attachment to their parents
-mistrust can cause insecurity, suspiciousness and inability to relate to others

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what is the age range for autonomy vs shame and doubt

A

18 months - 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

describe autonomy vs shame and doubt

A

-children learn to develop a sense of control over physical skills and a sense of independence
-autonomy refers to the ability to do things independently and the feelings of self control, self confidence, self reliance and competence which accompanies this
-if caregivers are overprotective then shame and doubt will develop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what is the age range for initiative vs guilt

A

3-5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

describe initiative vs guilt

A

-through play, children learn to make plans and carry out tasks
-parents reinforce via giving children freedom to play, use imagination and ask questions. This promotes initiative
-feelings of guilt about initiating activities are formed if parents criticise severely, prevent play or discourage questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what is initiative

A

using ones own resourcefulness to solve problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what is the age range for industry vs inferiority

A

5-12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

what is the age range for industry vs inferiority

A

5-12 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

describe industry vs inferiority

A

-children have to cope with new social and economic demands. They become interested in how things are made
-any encouragement allows their sense of industry to increase as they feel worthwhile
-if a childs work is considered messy, childish or inadequate, then the child can develop feelings of inferiority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is the age range for identity vs role confusion

A

12-18 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

describe identity vs role confusion

A

-at this age, adolescents have to build a steady identity for themselves based on their talents, values, relationships, culture and so on
-those who successfully overcome this dilemma will come out with a new sense of self that is inspirational and normal
-those who do not develop an identity will suffer from role confusion and uncertainty about who they are and where they are going

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is the age range for intimacy vs isolation

A

18-25 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

describe intimacy vs isolation

A

-after developing a stable identity a person is prepared to share meaningful love or deep friendship with others
-young adults who achieve intimacy are able to experience a mature and intimate love
-failure to establish a sense of intimacy with others can lead to a deep sense of self isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is intimacy

A

ability to care about others and share experiences with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is the age range for generativity vs stagnation

A

25-65 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

describe generativity vs stagnation

A

-generativity is expressed by caring about oneself, ones children and future generations, this may be achieved by guiding ones own children or by helping other children
-adults who do not achieve generativity may feel stagnation (self absorption and failing to find a way to contribute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is another word for generativity

A

primary crisis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is the age range for integrity vs despair

A

65+ years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

describe integrity vs despair

A

-a person must be able to look back over life with acceptance and satisfaction
-the person who has lived richly and responsibly develops a sense of integrity, this allows a person to face ageing and death with dignity
-of adults feel unhappy with their life paths and missed opportunities then they may suffer from despair and regret

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what did Piagets base his observations from

A

his own children behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is a schema (schemata)

A

-Schema is a mental idea of what something is and how to act on it
-the basic building block of intelligent behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is an action schemata

A

-action schemata are inborn survival reflexes, like sucking and grasping
-they enable us to interact with the world from birth
-they get more sophisticated as we mature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

by which process are schemata produced

A

through adaptation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

identify the two processes of adaptation (schemata)

A

-assimilation
-accommodation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

what is assimilation (schemata)
+eg

A

when new information is fit into existing schemata
eg
-new knowledge = see a cat
-schema = furry things with four legs are dogs, they are for patting
-b/c its furry and has four legs its a dog, lets give it a pat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is accommodation (schemata)
+eg

A

when schemata are altered to let in new information
eg
-new knowledge = there are different furry things with four legs. Dogs say woof and cats say meow
-t/f this is a cat not a dog

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

identify Piaget’s four stages of cognitive development

A
  1. sensorimotor
  2. pre operational stage
  3. concrete operational stage
    4 .formal operational stage
    (small pigs can fly)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what is the age range for the sensorimotor stage

A

0-2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

key characteristics of the sensorimotor stage

A

-infants learning about their surroundings through their senses and motor interactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

key achievements of the sensorimotor stage

A

-sensory and motor coordination
-increased goal directed behaviour-successfully completing a sequence of actions with a particular purpose in mind
-acquire object permanence- understanding that objects still exist when they can’t be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what is the age range for the pre operational stage

A

2-7 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

key characteristics of the pre operational stage

A

egocentrism
animism
centration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what is egocentrism

A

The tendency to perceive the world solely from one’s own point of view

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is animism

A

The belief that everything that exist has some kind of consciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what is centration

A

inability to focus on more than one feature of an object at a time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what is the link between centration and conservation

A

pre operational children are unable to grasp conservation of mass/volume/number because of centration

130
Q

key achievements of the pre operational stage

A

-increase in symbolic thinking (ability to use symbols to represent objects not physically present)
-transformation- understand that something can change from one state to another
-reversibility- ability to mentally follow a sequence of events back to its starting point

131
Q

what is the age range for concrete operational stage

A

7-12 years

132
Q

key characteristics of concrete operational stage

A

-children are able to perform mental operations, however they are limited to concrete objects and events (that can be experienced with the senses)

133
Q

key achievements of the concrete operational stage

A

-understanding conservation of mass, numbers and volume
-decentering- ability to consider more than one characteristic of an object or problem
-classification- able to classify objects or events based on common characteristics

134
Q

what is the age range for the formal operational stage

A

12+ years

135
Q

key characteristics of the formal operational stage

A

-achieve abstract thinking and ability to conduct mental operations

-deductive reasoning - draw conclusions from two pieces of info eg. if sam sleeps she will be late, sam was late to school therefore sam slept in

-systematic problem solving - test solutions to problems in orderly way

-idealistic thinking - envisage better alternatives to reality

136
Q

what is the type of thought in sensorimotor stage

A

concrete

137
Q

what is the type of thought in pre operational stage

A

mainly concrete with signs of symbolic beginning to develop

138
Q

what is the type of thought in concrete operational stage

A

concrete and symbolic (almost fully developed)

139
Q

what is the type of thought during the formal operational stage

A

concrete and symbolic (fully developed)

140
Q

identify the different approaches to describing normality

A

-sociocultural approach
-functional approach
-historical approach
-medical approach
-statistical approach
-situational approach

141
Q

what is the sociocultural approach to describing normality

A

thoughts feelings and behaviours that are considered acceptable in a particular society

142
Q

two examples of the sociocultural approach in describing normality

A

-in some cultures, loud wailing at a funeral is considered appropriate, whereas in other it is not

-eating with your hands is considered appropriate in some cultures, whereas it would be more appropriate to use utensils in other cultures

143
Q

what is the functional approach to describing normality

A

thoughts, feelings and behaviours are viewed as normal, so long as they don’t interfere with individuals living independently (functionally)

144
Q

two examples of the functional approach in describing normality

A

-being unhappy from time to time is normal, but being so unhappy you can’t get out of bed and go to work is abnormal
-being constantly worried about germs so that you are unable to catch public transport is abnormal

145
Q

what is the historical approach to describing normality

A

the thoughts, feelings and behaviours that are considered acceptable depends on the period of time in which the judgment is being made

146
Q

two examples of the historical approach in describing normality

A

-modern day beach wear would be considered indecent 60 years ago
-wearing a top hat or big dress would be considered abnormal

147
Q

what is the medical approach to describing normality

A

thoughts, feelings and behaviour may be considered abnormal if they have an underlying biological cause and can be diagnosed or treated

148
Q

two examples of the medical approach in describing normality

A
149
Q

what is the statistical approach to describing normality

A

thoughts, feelings and behaviour can be considered normal if they are shared by a large majority of people and abnormal if they only occur in a small minority of people

150
Q

two examples of the statistical approach in studying normality

A

-most people score between 85 and 115 on an IQ test, whereas only 0.1% will score above 145 or below 55
-having blue eyes is less common than having brown eyes

151
Q

what is the situational approach to describing normality

A

particular thoughts, feelings and emotions can be appropriate in some contexts and inappropriate in others

152
Q

two examples of the situational approach in studying normality

A

-tackling a stranger on the football field is fine, but not on the street
-yelling at a football match is appropriate, but yelling is inappropriate in the classroom

153
Q

typical vs atypical behaviour +eg

A

typical behaviour describes the usual actions of an individual, whereas atypical behaviour refers to actions that are out of character for an individual

eg if a person is usually outgoing and friendly and suddenly becomes withdrawn fro prolonged period of time, then they are exhibiting atypical behaviour

154
Q

what is adaptive behaviour
+eg

A

adaptive behaviours enable individuals to adjust to their environment appropriately and effectively
e.g getting enough sleep, controlling temper

155
Q

what is maladaptive behaviour
+eg

A

maladaptive behaviour interfere with the ability to adjust to the environment appropriately and effectively
e.g over exercising, engaging in regular physical fights

156
Q

what is mental health

A

A state of well-being in which an individual realises his or her abilities, can cope with normal stresses of life, can work productively and is able to contribute to his or her community

157
Q

what is a mental health problem

A

mental health problems most often occur as a result of a life stressor, and are usually resolved with time or when the stressor passes

158
Q

what are mental disorders

A

involve a combination of thoughts, feelings and behaviour which impair the ability to function efficiently in everyday life

159
Q

other names for mental disorder

A

psychological disorder / mental illness

160
Q

mental health and mental disorders exist on a ____

A

continuum and there is no clear boundary between the two

161
Q

what are the characteristics of a mental disorder

A

1.occurs within the individual and results from dysfunction within the individual
2.there is clinically diagnosable dysfunction in thoughts, feelings and/or behaviour
3.it causes significant distress or disability in functioning in everyday life
4.actions and reactions are atypical of the person and inappropriate within their culture
5.it is not the result of personal conflict with society

(A3DNC)

162
Q

what is the biopsychosocial model of mental health

A

-proposes that mental health and mental illness are due to the interactions between and influences of various biological, psychological and social factors

163
Q

what are examples of biological factors-biopsychosocial model

A

genes, brain chemistry, disability, sex

164
Q

what are examples of psychological factors -biopsychosocial model

A

-beliefs, attitudes, personality, self esteem

165
Q

what are examples of social factors- biopsychosocial model

A

lifestyle, social behaviour, poverty, SES, family background

166
Q

identify the parts of 4P factor model

A

-predisposing risk factors
-precipitating risk factors
-perpetuating risk factors
-protective factors

167
Q

what is the 4P factor model

A

proposes that the occurrence and reoccurrence of mental disorders is influenced by four kinds of factors

168
Q

what is a predisposing risk factor
+eg

A

-increase susceptibility to a mental disorder
(vulnerability)

eg. Family history of condition

169
Q

what is a precipitating risk factor
+eg

A

-increase susceptibility and contribute to the onset of a mental disorder
(triggers)

eg. being diagnosed with an illness

170
Q

what is a perpetuating risk factor
+eg

A

-maintain and prevent recovery from a mental disorder
(prolong)

eg. lifestyle factors

171
Q

what are protective factors
+eg

A

-prevent occurrence or reoccurrence of a mental disorder
(safety)

eg. strong peer group

172
Q

how are mental disorders diagnosed

A

mental health professionals refer to the DSM-5

173
Q

what does DSM-5 stand for

A

diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders

174
Q

what is labelling (mental disorder)

A

labelling describes the process of classifying and naming a mental disorder following a diagnosis

175
Q

what is stigma

A

a sign of social unacceptability or undesirability

176
Q

what is social stigma

A

the negative attitudes and beliefs held in the wider community that lead people to fear, reject, avoid plus discriminate against people with a mental disorder

177
Q

what is self-stigma

A

occurs when an individual accepts the negative views of others and applies them to themselves

178
Q

what did rosenhans (1973) study consist of

A
  • 8 participants who had never experiences any symptoms of a mental disorders presented themselves to various psychiatric hospitals and told the staff they had been hearing voices
  • all were diagnosed with schizophrenia
  • from the moment they were admitted, they behaved normally and reported no further symptoms
    -none of them were were identified by staff as having faked their symptoms however some actual patients recognised the participants as frauds
    -when participants were discharged their symptoms were said to be ‘in remission’
179
Q

criticism of rosenhans study

A

-some psychologists have criticised the study because ‘hearing voices’ is a sign of serious mental dysfunction and the staff were obliged to take it seriously
-‘in remission’ is a rare diagnosis and demonstrated that staff recognised a lack of symptoms

180
Q

what is addiction

A

refers to the condition in which someone feels a recurring urge to use a substance or engage in an activity despite potentially harmful consequences

181
Q

what are characteristics of addiction

A

-activation of brains rewards system
-persistent and repeated thoughts, feelings and behaviour associated with substance or activity
-decreased self control
-decreased sensitivity to substance or activity over time
-withdrawal

182
Q

what is withdrawal

A

unpleasant physical or psychological reactions when the use of the substance or activity is reduced or discontinued

183
Q

what is gambling

A

any activity in which something of value (eg money) is put at risk in the hope of obtaining something of higher value (eg more money)

184
Q

what is problem gambling

A

characterised by
-difficulty limiting time or money spent on gambling
-linked to excessive dopamine

185
Q

what are the 3 characteristics of gambling disorder

A

-need to gamble with increasing amounts of money in order to achieve the desired excitement
-after losing money, returns next day to to get even
-has jeopardized or lost relationship, job or career opportunity

186
Q

biological factors contributing to gambling disorder

A

dopamine reward system

187
Q

psychological factors contributing to gambling disorder

A

cognitive distortions
-illusion of control
-the gambler’s fallacy

188
Q

social factors contributing to gambling disorder

A

-social acceptability of gambling

189
Q

what is the dopamine reward system

A

-dopamine rewards system is a group of neural pathways that when stimulated, results in pleasurable effects.
-These positive feelings reinforce behaviour

190
Q

what is the link between L-dopa and gambling addictions

A

patients treated with L-dopa have subsequently developed gambling addictions

191
Q

what is a cognitive distortion

A

cognitive distortions are inaccurate thoughts, beliefs and attitudes that can lead to poor decision making

192
Q

what is illusion of control
+eg

A

the mistaken belief that they can influence random unpredictable events with their own thoughts and actions

eg.choosing specific lucky numbers in the lottery

193
Q

what is the gamblers fallacy

A

the gamblers fallacy is the mistaken belief that in a series of independent chance events, future events can be predicted from past events

eg. if the past 10 coin tosses were heads the 11th will be tails

194
Q

how does the social acceptability of gambling influence gambling rates

A

-75% of Australians have gambled at some point in the last 12 months
-many forms of gambling are legal in Australia
-gambling apps and activities are heavily advertised
-young Australians are more likely to perceive gambling as socially acceptable
-young people are more likely to engage in regular gambling if their family and friends promote positive attitudes towards gambling

195
Q

treatment for gambling disorder

A

-cognitive behavioural therapy aims to change patterns in people’s thinking that leads to maladaptive behaviour, this is done so by replacing cognitive distortions with more accurate thoughts and beliefs
-support groups are groups of people who interact on the basics of common experiences to provide mutual support

196
Q

what is anxiety

A

a state of physiological arousal associated with feelings of apprehension, worry or uneasiness that something is wrong, or something is about to happen
-should be relatively brief experience

197
Q

what is stress

A

is a state of physiological and psychological arousal produced by internal or external stressors that are perceived by the individual as challenging or exceeding their ability or resources to cope

198
Q

what is a phobia

A

excessive or unreasonable fear of a particular object or situation. The fear response is out of proportion to the actual danger posed by the object or situation

199
Q

compare stress and anxiety

A

-both stress and anxiety are considered a ‘normal’ experiences of everyday life
-stress may be eustress or distress whereas anxiety is distress only
-stress and anxiety can both be a potential contributing factor to mental disorder

200
Q

compare stress and a phobia

A

-stress is considered a ‘normal’ experience of everyday life whereas a phobia is not considered ‘normal’
-stress may be eustress or distress whereas a phobia is distress only
-stress can contribute to mental disorder whereas phobia is a diagnosable mental disorder

201
Q

compare anxiety and a phobia

A

-anxiety is considered a normal experience of everyday life whereas a phobia is not considered normal
-anxiety MAY impact on a person functioning in everyday life whereas a phobia SIGNIFICANTLY impacts on a persons functioning

202
Q

identify some mental disorders

A

-addiction disorders eg gambling disorder
-anxiety disorders
-mood disorders
-personality disorders
-psychotic disorders eg schizophrenia

203
Q

what does the DSM stand for

A

Diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders

204
Q

what is an anxiety disorder

A

anxiety disorders are characterised by persistent feelings of tension, distress, nervousness and apprehension about the future with negative effect. A person with an anxiety disorder may feel uneasy or distressed a lot of the time, with no apparent reason.

205
Q

identify + describe types of anxiety disorder

A

-generalised anxiety disorder: persistent, excessive or unrealistic anxiety and worry
-panic disorder: recurring or unexpected panic attacks
-specific phobia: excessive or unreasonable fear of a specific object or situation
-social anxiety disorder: excessive or unreasonable fear of being negatively judged by others
-agoraphobia: persistent, excessive or unreasonable fear of being in a situation where something bad may happen

206
Q

identify biological factors contributing to anxiety disorder

A

-stress response
-brain chemistry ‘

207
Q

identify psychological factors contributing to anxiety disorders

A

-learning processes
-catastrophic thinking

208
Q

identify social factors contributing to anxiety disorders

A

-transmission of threat information
-parental modelling

209
Q

how does stress response contribute to anxiety disorders

A

-research suggests that a people with an anxiety disorders experience an over reactive autonomic nervous system (sympathetic nervous system)

210
Q

how does brain chemistry contribute to anxiety disorders

A

-An imbalance in brain chemistry involving the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA may contribute to anxiety disorders (low levels of GABA)

211
Q

how do learning processes contribute to anxiety disorders

A

Precipitation by classical conditioning
-a fear response is learned initially by associating a fear response to a stimulus that did not initially cause that response eg little Albert

Perpetuation by Operant conditioning
-once a response has been learned the person starts to avoid the stimulus which reinforces the avoidance behaviour (negative reinforcement)

212
Q

how does faulty thinking/catastrophic thinking contribute to anxiety disorders

A

Catastrophic thinking- a thinking style that involves overestimating, exaggerating or magnifying an object or situation and predicting the worst possible outcome

213
Q

how does transmission of threat information contribute to anxiety disorders

A

transmission of threat information refers to how people around us communicate about potentially dangerous events or objects eg ‘don’t touch that’

214
Q

how does parental modelling contribute to anxiety disorders

A

parental modelling refers to the process of children learning to imitate their parents behaviours, has a significant impact on the types of objects and events that children view as threatening or stressful

215
Q

identify psychological, biological and social interventions for anxiety disorder

A

psychological interventions-systematic desensitisation
biological interventions-anti anxiety meds (benzodiazepine)
social intervention- psychoeducation for families and supporters

216
Q

what is systematic desensitisation

A

three steps
1. learn to relax
2. breaking down anxiety object into anxiety hierarchy
3.gradually pair items in hierarchy with relaxation technique (eg focus on breathing)

217
Q

how can anti anxiety medication (benzodiazepine) assist those with anxiety disorders

A

benzodizepenine are a group of drugs that work on the central nervous system acting selectively on GABA receptors in the brain to increase GABA’s inhibitory effect and make the post synaptic neurones more resistant to excitation

218
Q

how can psychoeducation for families and supporters assist those with anxiety disorders

A

this can be done by
-challenging unrealistic or anxious thoughts
-not encouraging avoidance behaviours eg not going to the exam

219
Q

biological predisposing risk factors for anxiety disorders

A

neurotransmitter (GABA) dysfunction

220
Q

biological precipitating risk factors for anxiety disorder

A

role of the stress response

221
Q

biological perpetuating risk factors for anxiety disorder

A

long term potentiation (repeated biological association of CS/fear and CR/fear responses)

222
Q

biological protective factors for anxiety disorders

A

-use of GABA agonists
-controlled breathing
-physical exercise

223
Q

psychological precipitating risk factors for anxiety disorder

A

classical conditioning

224
Q

psychological perpetuating risk factors for anxiety disorder

A

-operant conditioning
-cognitive biases eg catastrophic thinking

225
Q

psychological protective factors for anxiety disorder

A

-CBT (cognitive behaviour therapy)
-systemic desensitisation

226
Q

social precipitating risk factors for anxiety disorder

A

specific environmental triggers

227
Q

social perpetuating risk factors for anxiety disorder

A

stigma related to receiving treatment

228
Q

social protective factors for anxiety disorder

A

psychoeducation for families and supporters

229
Q

what is mood

A

mood is an overall feeling that colours our perception of the world and influences how we go about daily life
-sometimes referred to as a non specific emotional state

230
Q

what is a mood disorder

A

mood disorders involve a disabling disturbance in emotional state

231
Q

what is depression

A

Depression is a lasting and continuous deeply sad mood or loss of pleasure

232
Q

what is mania

A

mania is an elevated mood involving intense elation or irritability

233
Q

what is hypomania

A

is an extremely happy or irritated mood that is not as extreme as mania

234
Q

what are manic episodes characterised by

A

-talking excessively
-being easily distracted
-unrealistically high opinions on oneself
-oblivious to negative consequences of ones actions
-decreased need for sleep
-rapid changes to trains of thought

235
Q

list the types of mood disorder

A

1.Major depressive disorder
2.Dysthymia
3.Premenstrual dysphoric disorder
4.Bipolar I disorder
5.Bipolar II disorder
6.Cyclothymia

236
Q

other name for dysthymia

A

persistent depressive disorder

237
Q

what is major depressive disorder (symptoms)

A

-duration must persist at least two weeks
-feeling sad most of the time or loss of pleasure most of the time
-plus 4 or more of the following symptoms occurring most days: feeling fatigued, irritable, sleep problems, loss or change of appetite, significant weight loss or gain, feelings of worthlessness or guilt, difficulty concentrating, thinking or making decisions

238
Q

what is dysthymia

A

similar symptoms to major depressive disorder but less severe, with a longer duration (must persist for two years for diagnosis)

239
Q

what is premenstrual dysphoric disorder

A

dysfunctional changes in mood in the week before the onset of menstruation eg mood swings, feeling suddenly sad or tearful, loss of control, increased sensitivity, irritability, hopelessness, sleep problems, loss of interest in usual activities

240
Q

what is bipolar I disorder

A

fluctuations between periods of major depression and mania

241
Q

what is bipolar II disorder

A

fluctuations between periods of major depression and hypomania

242
Q

what is cyclothymia

A

experience periods of manic symptoms and depressive symptoms over a period of at least two years (these periods are shorter and less severe than bipolar disorders)

243
Q

identify biological factors contributing to depression

A

genes and brain chemistry

244
Q

identify psychological factors contributing to depression

A

-psychological responses to change
-habitually negative thinking

245
Q

identify social factors contributing to depression

A

-poverty
-social status
-social isolation

246
Q

how do genes contribute to depression

A

-depression has a genetic component
-means that there is a genetic predisposition
-depression is not a genetic disorder

247
Q

how does brain chemistry (neurotransmitters) contribute to depression

A

-deficiency in neurotransmitters serotonin and noradrenaline (excitatory neurotransmitters) is thought to lead to depression
-an oversupply may be an underlying cause of mania

248
Q

how does ones psychological response to change contribute to depression

A

-major depression is often precipitated by stressful life events that disrupt everyday life in an ongoing way
-persons response to stressor rather than stressor itself that can precipitate (trigger) depression

249
Q

how can having habitually negative thoughts contribute to depression

A

-depression is often perpetuated by habitually negative thoughts which pop up automatically in response to every day events
-the constant stream of negative thoughts leads to negative feelings and affects behaviour

250
Q

how can poverty contribute to depression

A

-strong correlation between suffering from poverty and being diagnosed with depression, but the direction of causality is unclear

251
Q

how can social stress and isolation contribute to depression

A

social stress is produced when we experience friction in our relationships with others
-this is a precipitating risk factor

social isolation is a lack of interaction and relationship with others

252
Q

identify intervention for depression

A

biological
-medications, diet and exercise

psychological
-meditation

social
-support

253
Q

how can medication help those with depression
+what are antidepressant meds

A
254
Q

how can diet and exercise help those with depression

A

-a diet with a variety of foods from a variety of food groups is associated with deceased risk of depression
-a diet lacking variety (high in sat fats, red meats etc) is associated with increased risk of depression

regular exercise may alleviate symptoms of depression as it may distract one from worries and rumination, improve sleep etc

255
Q

how can meditation help those with depression

A

Meditation/mindfulness trains the mind to focus on a single stimuli there by blocking habitually negative thoughts

256
Q

how can social support help those with depression

A

can include:
-listening to their concerns
-challenging negative thinking
-providing positive alternatives to negative reinforcing behaviours

257
Q

what is personality

A

unique pattern of thoughts, feelings and behaviours that is relatively stable across times and situations

258
Q

what is a personality disorder

A

characterised by inflexible/maladaptive personality characteristics that interfere with functioning or cause significant personal distress

259
Q

identify types of personality disorders

A

narcissist
borderline
histrionic
dependent
paranoid
antisocial

260
Q

characteristics of narcissistic personality disorder

A

-exaggerated sense of self importance
-overwhelming need for admiration from others
-lack of empathy for others
-lack of interest in others
-extreme sensitivity to criticism
-preoccupations with fantasies of power and success
-overestimation of personal qualities and achievements

261
Q

characteristics of borderline personality disorder

A

-ongoing impulsivity and intense fluctuations in mood/ self image and relationship with others
-frequent feelings of depression, emptiness and fear of abandonment
-self damaging behaviours

262
Q

describe histrionic personality disorder

A

continual attention seeking behaviour
and exaggerated expression of emotions

263
Q

describe dependent personality disorder

A

over reliance on others
and reluctance to take responsibility for oneself

264
Q

describe paranoid personality disorder

A

distrust and suspicion of others

265
Q

characteristics of antisocial personality disorder

A

-disregard for rights of others and the law
-irresponsibility
-lack of remorse for wrongdoing
-impulsive and aggressive behaviour
-shallow emotions
-lack of empathy for others
-lack of loyalty towards others

266
Q

factors contributing to antisocial personality disorder

A

Biological:
-genes
-brain structures
psychological:
-emotional poverty
social:
-family environment
-social modelling

267
Q

how do genes contribute to antisocial personality disorder

A

need to inherit at least 4 (out of 6) of the ‘psychopathic’ alleles to be at a higher risk

268
Q

how does brain structure contribute to antisocial personality disorder

A

-associated with lower frontal lobe activity
-lower activity in the limbic system, thought to be responsible for lack of fear of punishment and shallow emotions

269
Q

how does emotional poverty contribute to antisocial personality disorder

A

-less depth of feelings experienced by those with antisocial personality disorder
-leads to less empathy

270
Q

how does family environment contribute to antisocial personality disorder

A

inadequate supervision, abuse, neglect, harsh and inconsistent discipline can increase the risk of developing anti social personality disorder

271
Q

how does social modelling contribute to antisocial personality disorder

A

children learn antisocial behaviour from their parents

272
Q

interventions for antisocial personality disorder

A

-no ‘cures’ and treatments are often ineffective for adults
-many people with antisocial personality disorder experience co ocurring mental disorders that can be treated
-treatment for children and adolescents who exhibit symptoms of ‘conduct disorder’ work by using positive reinforcement to encourage normal behaviour

273
Q

what is psychosis

A

condition in which a person experiences a loss of contact with reality

274
Q

what are psychotic disroders

A

characterised by symptoms of delusion, hallucinations and disorganised thinking

275
Q

identify two types symptoms of psychotic disorders

A

positive symptoms
negative symptoms

276
Q

what is meant by positive symptoms
+eg

A

experiences and behaviours that have been added to a persons normal way of functioning
-E.G hallucinations and delusions

277
Q

identify positive symptoms for psychotic disorders

A

-delusions
-hallucinations
-disorganised speech and thinking
-grossly disorganised motor behaviour

278
Q

what are delusions

A

-fixed false beliefs that are held with absolute certainty, even in the face of contradictory factual evidence
-4 themes of delusion

279
Q

identify 4 themes of delusion

A

persecution
raference
control
grandeur

280
Q

what is persecution delusion

A

‘everyone is out to get me’

281
Q

what is reference delusion

A

‘someone powerful is sending me secret messages’

282
Q

what is control delusion

A

‘someone is controlling what i say and do’

283
Q

what is grandeur delusion

A

‘im a very special and important person’

284
Q

what are hallucinations

A

perceptual experience during which the individual sees/ hears/ smells/ tastes/feels something that is not actually present
-most commonly auditory, which can be either through the ears or directly to the brain

285
Q

what is disorganised speech and thinking

A

-reflects disorganised thinking, thoughts are disconnected and jumbled
-derailment
-tangentiality

286
Q

what is derailment (disorganised thinking)

A

when patients are suddenly switching from one topic to another completely unrelated one

287
Q

what is tangentialiity (disorganised thinking)

A

when answers to questions are only vaguely related or completely unrelated to the questions asked

288
Q

what is grossly disorganised motor behaviour

A

the behaviour of people with psychotic disorders often seem unusual/inappropriate/purposeless/erratic
e.g shouting and swearing for no apparent reason

289
Q

what is catatonia (grossly disorganised motor behaviour)

A

refers to reduced responsivity to external events and often involves unusual motor behaviour

290
Q

identify types of catatonia

A

catatonic negativism
catatonic mutism
catatonic stupor
catatonic excitement

291
Q

what is catatonic negativism

A

reduced responsiveness to instructions

292
Q

what is catatonic mutism

A

lack of verbal responsiveness

293
Q

what is catatonic stupor

A

lack of motor responsiveness

294
Q

what is catatonic excitement

A

purposeless and excessive motor activity

295
Q

what is a negative symptom

A

take something away from a persons normal way of functioning
e.g loss of interest in normal activities

296
Q

what is affective flattening

A

reduction in the intensity of emotional expression
e.g facial expressions

297
Q

what is avolition

A

a decrease in self initiated purposeful activities

298
Q

what is alogia

A

reduction in the content and fluency of speech

299
Q

what is anhedonia

A

decreased ability to experience pleasure from normally enjoyable activities

300
Q

identify types of psychotic disorders

A

schizophrenia
delusional disorder
breif psychotic disorder
schizoaffective disorder
substance/medicine induced psychotic disorder

301
Q

what is schizophrenia

A

persistent symptoms of psychosis
-must be persistent for at least 6 months

302
Q

what is delusional disorder

A

persistent delusions

303
Q

what is brief psychotic disorder

A

characterised by one or more symptoms of psychosis that is experienced for between one day and one month before symptoms disappear

304
Q

what are schizoaffective disorders

A

mixture of symptoms of psychotic disorders and mood disorders

305
Q

what is substance/medicine induced psychotic disorders

A

persistent delusions/hallucinations due to excessive substance abuse or withdrawal from substance use

306
Q

identify biological factors contributing to schizophrenia

A

genes
brain structures

307
Q

identify psychological factors contributing to schizophrenia

A

-stress
-cognitive impairments

308
Q

identify social factors contributing to schizophrenia

A

family environment

309
Q

how can genes contribute to schizophrenia

A

-the more closely related an individual is to someone with schizophrenia the greater the chances of developing schizophrenia themselves
-for identical twins, risk is 50%
-for other siblings, risk is 10%

310
Q

how can brain structures contribute to schizophrenia

A

-reduced activity in prefrontal cortex
-lower amounts of grey matter (dendrites, cell bodies, glial cells)
-enlarged ventricles in the cerebral cortex
-smaller hippocampus and amygdala

311
Q

how can stress contribute to schizophrenia

A

-stress can be a precipitating risk factor for the onset of schizophrenia
-people with schizophrenia tend to be more reactive and psychologically affected under stress

312
Q

describe stress vulnerability model

A

all people have some level of vulnerability for any given mental disorder and the risk of developing the disorder varies in relation to the combined affect of a number of stressors

313
Q

how can cognitive impairments contribute to schizophrenia

A

-jumping to conclusions can lead to the formation of delusions
-working memory is slower and has a lower capacity
-episodic memory is deficient
-goal directed thinking and impaired reasoning
-impaired probabilistic thinking

314
Q

what is probabilistic thinking

A

making judgments related to probability; more specifically, the likelihood of something happening or being true

315
Q

how can social factors contribute to schizophrenia

A

-children with genetic predisposition were at a much higher risk if raised in a psychologically unhealthy environment

316
Q

what is meant by the two hit hypothesis

A

schizophrenia is caused by two sequential events
1. A biological vulnerability eg inheritance of genes associated to schizophrenia
2.A major stressful life event eg abuse or trauma

317
Q

identify intervention for schizophrenia

A

-antipsychotic medications
-CBT
-Social support programs

318
Q

how can anti psychotic medications help those with schizophrenia

A
319
Q

how can cognitive behavioural therapy help those with schizophrenia

A

-can be used in tandem with medication and help people recognise and change patterns of irrational thinking

320
Q

how can social support help those with schizophrenia

A

can help find work and accommodation to reduce stress related to poverty and stigma

321
Q

psychological factors contributing to schizophrenia

A

stress-stress vulnerability model
cognitive impairment-impaired reasoning

1/2 Psych (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions