501-1000 Flashcards

1
Q

Question

A

Answer

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2
Q

Modern furnace walls are usually lined with

A

tile or have water walls

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3
Q

Biological safety equipment includes

A

a. biosafety cabinets, c. personal protective equipment

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4
Q

Office space should provide at least ______ per minute per occupant of clean outside air at minimum where smoking is not prohibited.

A

20 ft3

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5
Q

Regulation of bloodborne pathogens is promulgated by

A

OSHA

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6
Q

The Medical Waste Tracking Act of 1988, which amended the Solid Waste Disposal Act, required ______ to establish a two year demonstration program for tracking medical waste in selected states.

A

EPA

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7
Q

Excessive condensation, corrosion, and mildew occur when the relative humidity exceeds

A

60 percent

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8
Q

A biohazard is

A

a material of biological composition, especially if infective, that constitutes a threat to humans or their environment

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9
Q

To prevent chimney backdrafts, the chimney must be constructed ______ inches above the highest point of the roof at a minimum.

A

24 inches

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10
Q

Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers and

A

indirect waste piping

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11
Q

The protection of personnel and the immediate laboratory environment from exposure to infectious agents by good microbiological technique and safety equipment is called

A

primary containment

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12
Q

In unsewered areas, the responsibility for water and sewer for new subdivisions is assigned to the

A

developer

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13
Q

Which of the following are not typically members of the infection control committee

A

hospital CEO

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14
Q

Mobile homes have been in general production since

A

1954

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15
Q

The reasons for nosocomial infections in hospitals, and nursing homes are

A

REF!

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16
Q

The drain line of an ice machine should connect to the sewer system through

A

an open receptacle with an air gap

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17
Q

Most urban dwellers spend what percent of their total time indoors

A

80 to 90 percent

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18
Q

Which of the following is the primary cause of indoor air quality problems?

A

inadequate ventilation

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19
Q

Minimum APHA-PHS standards for housing include

A

running water piped in

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20
Q

The high moisture content of combustion vent gases create

A

acids which eat away at the mortar in the chimney

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21
Q

Nosocomial infections are a recurring problem in

A

hospitals

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22
Q

Universal precautions refer to

A

an infection control measure in which all human blood and certain body fluids are treated as infectious

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23
Q

Minimum wash water temperature in a hospital laundry is

A

160 to 167 degrees F

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24
Q

The development and maintenance of an exposure control plan is one requirement of

A

OSHA’s bloodborne pathogens regulations

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25
Q

Those laboratory activities that may result in personnel exposure to aerosols may result in

A

increased containment

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26
Q

Exposure to formaldehyde can cause

A

REF!

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27
Q

Lead poisoning is commonly associated with children living in homes built before

A

1970

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28
Q

Vent gases combined with high moisture inside a chimney will form

A

sulfuric acid

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29
Q

Which or the following are the most frequent disease transmission routes in child day care centers?

A

REF!

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30
Q

Radon is detected in a home through measurment of

A

alpha particles

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31
Q

The major potential entry sources of radon are

A

REF!

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32
Q

The appointment and maintenance of an Institutional Biosafety Committee (IBC) is one of the requirements of

A

NIH

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33
Q

The Muerto Canyon virus causes disease of the ______ in humans.

A

lungs

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34
Q

A class II biological safety cabinet (BSC) is designed to protect

A

REF!

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35
Q

In the APHA-PHS Recommended Housing Maintenance and Occupancy Ordinance, the responsibility of storing and disposing of all rubbish is assigned to the

A

owner and occupant jointly

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36
Q

Laboratories working with infectious agents in a properly controlled setting have been shown to

A

represent no threat to the community

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37
Q

Herpesvirus simiae (B-virus) is naturally occurring in certain species of monkeys namely the macaque. The highest risk of humans acquiring this virus is from

A

the bite of a macaque

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38
Q

The air gap between the end of the faucet and the overflow rim of the sink should be ______ times the diameter of the supply pipe.

A

1 1/2

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39
Q

Muerto Canyon virus (MCV) is a hantavirus mainly carried by

A

deer mice

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40
Q

A clean bench should be considered for use

A

only when there is no possible risk to personnel

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41
Q

Biological safety cabinets should be performance tested every

A

1 year

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42
Q

The biosafety containment level suitable for work involving agents of moderate potential hazard to personnel and the environment is

A

biosafety level 2

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43
Q

The housefly consumes only liquids, and therefore, must transform all other substances to the liquid state before digestion.

A

TRUE

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44
Q

The poison of poison ivy, oak, and sumac is an oleoresin that is found in all parts of the plant except the

A

wood

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45
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is transmitted by

A

dog ticks

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46
Q

For a pesticide to be permitted for application on a raw agricultural food or feed, the residue must exceed the tolerance established for the product by the Department of Health and Human Services under the conditions of use.

A

FALSE

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47
Q

Psittacosis/Ornithosis is spread by

A

pigeons

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48
Q

Malaria prevention programs have been losing their effectiveness in many countries mainly because of

A

a. inadequate funding and research, b. adaption of mosquitoes to new environments, c. resistance to certain insecticides and resistance of Plasmodium falciparum parasites to drugs used to prevent and treat malarial infections

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49
Q

DDT has been banned for use in all countries except parts of Africa, Sweden, Great Britain, and all South American Countries.

A

FALSE

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50
Q

Rattus norvegicus is also referred to as the

A

REF!

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51
Q

The most practical way to control hay fever is to

A

treat the patient

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52
Q

Lice require human blood to live.

A

TRUE

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53
Q

Black flies are disease vectors for onchocerciasis.

A

TRUE

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54
Q

Vector-borne encephalitidies are not communicable directly from person to person, but only by the bite of infected mosquitoes.

A

TRUE

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55
Q

Bats are threat to humans because they carry

A

rabies

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56
Q

A pesticide that ______ is referred to as a “Restricted Classification” pesticide and is generally not available to the homeowner.

A

REF!

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57
Q

In order to control rats at open dumps, a poison-bait application program should be started ______ before a site is abandoned or converted and before earthmoving equipment is brought to the site.

A

2 weeks

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58
Q

A “chigger” is the larval stage of a type of

A

mite

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59
Q

The Federal Insecticide, Fungicide, and Rodenticide Act

A

REF!

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60
Q

The female and male mosquito feed only on the blood of humans and animals.

A

FALSE

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61
Q

The first step in a rat control program is

A

a community survey

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62
Q

The peak seasons for rats to breed in temperate zones are

A

spring and fall

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63
Q

The prime feeding time of the Anopheles mosquito is usually around midday.

A

FALSE

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64
Q

Items such as tennis balls, golf balls, gloves, and auto tires that come into contact with poison ivy, oak, and sumac may spread the poison as well as physical contact with the plants.

A

TRUE

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65
Q

Yellow jackets usually build their nests below the ground.

A

TRUE

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66
Q

Rattus Rattus is also referred to as the

A

roof rat

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67
Q

Some of the main sources of pollen are trees in the summer, grasses in the spring, and weeds in the winter.

A

FALSE

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68
Q

Relief from hay fever may be obtained by

A

REF!

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69
Q

An example of an anticoagulant rodenticide is

A

warfarin

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70
Q

Sodium fluoroacetate, also known as “1080,” is the most effective fast-acting rodenticide available for use throughout the United States.

A

FALSE

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71
Q

Wasps are usually attracted to

A

REF!

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72
Q

Vector-borne encephalitidies have replaced malaria as the major mosquito-borne disease in North America.

A

TRUE

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73
Q

The poison found in poison ivy, oak, and sumac is extremely volatile.

A

FALSE

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74
Q

Burning off poisonous plants is not advisable because smoke will carry particles long distances and spread the infection.

A

TRUE

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75
Q

Bat-proofing should not be conducted from May through August because baby bats can be trapped inside.

A

TRUE

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76
Q

Hormone or growth regulators also known as systematic herbicides are toxic to the plant living cells they cover and are usually absorbed through the stem of the plant upon contact.

A

FALSE

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77
Q

Bat-proofing should be done in the ______, when bats are hibernating in caves.

A

midautumn through spring

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78
Q

An effective pest management and weed control program focuses on the

A

integration of a combination of methods

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79
Q

A mature ragweed plant can produce up to ______ pollen grains in one season

A

1 billion

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80
Q

In general, there are three kinds of weeds. These are

A

annuals, biennials, and perennials

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81
Q

When first considering the control of houseflies, roaches, and rats, the primary emphasis should be on

A

basic community environmental sanitation to eliminate the conditions that make possible their survival and reproduction

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82
Q

An adult rat requires approximately ______ of food per day.

A

1 ounce

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83
Q

The Norway rat has a normal home range of

A

100 to 150 feet

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84
Q

Bats serve a useful purpose by keeping down the number of insects.

A

TRUE

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85
Q

Rodents are the primary reservoir/host of the hantavirus. In particular, ______ appears to be the primary reservoir for hantavirus, which was first recognized in 1993 in the southeastern United States.

A

deer mouse

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86
Q

The full potential of naturalistic and source-reduction measures should be applied before considering chemical means for controlling arthropods, rodents, and weeds.

A

TRUE

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87
Q

______ is an infectious disease of the skin caused by burrowing of the female mite into the skin where it deposits its eggs.

A

scabies

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88
Q

Because the pesticides lindane and malathion do not stain they are excellent liquid insecticide sprays to use for controlling bedbugs in mattresses or other bedding.

A

FALSE

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89
Q

Storage of clothing, bedding, and any other lice infested items for at least ______ will cause the lice to die of starvation.

A

2 weeks

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90
Q

Soil sterilants are a type of herbicide which are

A

absorbed by the plant root system

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91
Q

The best preventive measure for poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac is

A

REF!

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92
Q

Which of the following is not a condition that encourages the growth of weeds?

A

none of the above

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93
Q

It is known that some common pathogenic organisms found in wastewater will survive more than __________ of harsh temperature extremes.

A

2 years

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94
Q

Stream pollution is sometimes apparent by

A

a zone of degradation

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95
Q

A lump of soil with good characteristics will break apart with little pressure along definite cleavage plains and should be blue or grayish in color.

A

FALSE

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96
Q

When storm water and domestic sewage enter the same sewer it is known as a

A

combined sewer

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97
Q

The recommended maximum length of the system materials for a gravity flow absorption field is 75 feet.

A

TRUE

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98
Q

If the septic tank will have a garbage disposal unit feeding into it

A

the size of the tank should be increased 50 percent

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99
Q

The recommended backfill over the absorption field is 8 to12 inches.

A

TRUE

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100
Q

The plans for an area to be sewered should

A

REF!

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101
Q

The detention time for wastewater in a septic tank is recommended to be

A

24 to 72 hours

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102
Q

A storm sewer is used to

A

remove rain other standing surface water

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103
Q

What is the most common method of applying wastewater to land?

A

spray irrigation

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104
Q

Brine from water softening units as low as ______ may inhibit bacterial action in septic tanks.

A

1.2 percent

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105
Q

Each water quality class has a ______ standard established.

A

REF!

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106
Q

Trickling filters can remove 90 to 95 percent of the __________ found in soil, water, and wastewater.

A

REF!

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107
Q

Grease traps are installed for the purpose of minimizing grease in the sewer system. The trap

A

is not of proven value in many commercial applications

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108
Q

The use of a cesspool is prohibited due to

A

greater potential for groundwater contamination

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109
Q

Chlorination of untreated wastewater is typically NOT an effective treatment for

A

REF!

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110
Q

The permeability of soil is directly related to the __________ of the soil.

A

REF!

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111
Q

After a septic tank has been cleaned, it should not be scrubbed and disinfected. Why?

A

a. the sludge sticking to the insides would have a seeding effect and assist in renewing the bacterial activity, c. it would be considered a safety hazard

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112
Q

The amount of dissolved oxygen required in aerobic bacterial decomposition, measured in ppm or mg/l and used in determining the strength of wastewater is

A

biochemical oxygen demand

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113
Q

The septic tank functions as a

A

REF!

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114
Q

Facultative bacteria can

A

live under both aerobic and anaerobic condition

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115
Q

While it is arguably preferable to conduct a soil analysis for sizing absorption fields percolation tests are sometimes used. In order to obtain reproducible results with a soil percolation test, it is very important to:

A

soak the hole with water before the test is made

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116
Q

Ozone disinfection has many advantages. Which of the following is NOT true?

A

ozone is approximately equal in cost to chlorine

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117
Q

Loam is composed of which of the following?

A

REF!

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118
Q

Sludge accumulation in a tank serving a normal home has been estimated at

A

18 to 21 gals. per person per year

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119
Q

The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) prohibits the discharge of pollutants into U.S. waters unless a permit is issued by

A

a. EPA, b. the State

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120
Q

Plants employing trickling filters, activated sludge, and spray irrigation present a possible health hazard to their employees due to

A

inhalation of airborne microorganisms

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121
Q

Common causes of failure of septic tank seepage field systems include improper sizing, nonsuitable soil, nonservicing, and

A

leaking fixtures

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122
Q

The wastewater from a toilet or latrine flushing is referred to as

A

black water

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123
Q

Sewer gas may contain

A

REF!

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124
Q

The reliability and interpretation of the soil percolation test are affected by all of the following except

A

shape of the test hole

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125
Q

Which of the following is not true concerning sewage and disease hazards?

A

entamoeba histolytica, hepatitis viruses, and giardia cysts are easily destroyed by normal chlorination of sewage

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126
Q

In the usage of septic-tank additives, which of the following compounds is not recommended?

A

REF!

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127
Q

Sewage treatment plants should be designed for

A

the population at least 10 years in the future

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128
Q

The exposure of excreta or sewage on the surface of the ground sets the stage for disease transmission by both direct contact or

A

REF!

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129
Q

After the absorption field has failed, which of the following will NOT correct or repair the field?

A

increase the water pressure

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130
Q

The examination of road cuts, stream embankments, and/or building excavations provides only marginal information about soils due to oxidation.

A

FALSE

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131
Q

A water leak no larger than 1/8 inch in diameter can result in a loss of up to:

A

400 gallons in 24 hours

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132
Q

The sand filter is used to

A

a. remove suspended solids from water - b. remove bacteria from water

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133
Q

The typical limitation of use of the septic tank absorption field system is due to

A

soil type and size requirements

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134
Q

Which of the following is an explosive component of sewer gas?

A

methane

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135
Q

The field distribution piping should be surrounded with ______ and at least 2 inches deep under the pipe.

A

washed gravel, 3/4 inches to 2 1/2 inches

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136
Q

The ability of the soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is called

A

permeability

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137
Q

Septage is best defined as

A

a. sludge, b. scum, c. gray water

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138
Q

Which of the following is typically used at a residential sewage treatment system with a surface discharge?

A

a. sodium hypochlorite, b. calcium hypochlorite

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139
Q

Soil containing loam will remove most of the phosphorus in sewage effluent.

A

TRUE

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140
Q

Low-pressure, vacuum and cluster systems may be used

A

REF!

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141
Q

The volume of the dose from a properly sized dosing tank should be equal to:

A

60% of the volume of the lines dosed

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142
Q

The suitability of soil for the subsurface disposal of sewage and other wastewater can be determined by a study of soil characteristics and the

A

soil percolation test

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143
Q

The traditional absorption field should be laid in trenches not more than ______ below the ground surface.

A

24 inches

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144
Q

Yeast added to a new septic tank speeds up digestion by a factor of 2.7.

A

FALSE

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145
Q

The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the ground water table or rock is 62 inches.

A

FALSE

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146
Q

Which of the following is non-toxic to aquatic organisms, a good viricide, and adds oxygen to treated wastewater effluents?

A

ozone

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147
Q

Excreta typically is defined as containing

A

2000 million fecal coliform, 450 million fecal streptococci, and 400 billion E. coli per 100 to 200 grams

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148
Q

The degree of eutrophication of a lake is indicated by

A

REF!

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149
Q

Human disease from aerosols of wastewater

A

is related primarily to wastewater treatment by the activated sludge, trickling filter, and spray irrigation processes

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150
Q

Chemical coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration remove

A

REF!

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151
Q

Disinfection or chlorination of sewage effluent is

A

an added safeguard to reduce the risk of disease transmission where the probability exists

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152
Q

Which of the following are least important in reducing sewage to “soil,” liquids, and gases?

A

anaerobic bacteria

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153
Q

The top of the absorption field gravel should be covered with

A

permeable material

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154
Q

A soil which is mottled brown and red would indicate

A

a tight soil probably due to a fluctuating water table or lack of aeration

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155
Q

Which of the following soils would be most suitable for subsurface absorption of wastewater

A

a yellow, brown, or red soil

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156
Q

A young lake is considered to be

A

oligotrophic

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157
Q

Sludge and scum accumulation, and the appearance of particles of solids in the effluent from a septic tank is an indication of what?

A

a septic tank in need of cleaning

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158
Q

The placement of the distribution box is not critical as long as it is water tight.

A

FALSE

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159
Q

The effectiveness of disinfection depends on

A

REF!

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160
Q

The use of a serial distribution system is considered to have disadvantages over the use of distribution boxes.

A

FALSE

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161
Q

Any excavation in clay, loam, silt or sand more than ______ in depth should have side wall protection to prevent a cave-in.

A

4 feet

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162
Q

Loam is a mixture of gravel, sand, silt, and clay containing what?

A

decayed plant and animal matter

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163
Q

The type of filter that is recommended for use at small communities and rural places is the

A

slow sand filter

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164
Q

In emergencies, small quantities of water can be disinfected by boiling or using

A

tincture of iodine

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165
Q

A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered by

A

water

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166
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true concerning the presence of coliform organisms in drinking water?

A

the drinking water should be considered unsanitary

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167
Q

In testing for residual chlorine, which of the following determines free available chlorine with minimal interference from combined chlorine, iron, nitrates, and nitrites?

A

DPD-colormetric method

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168
Q

Alkalinity of water is desirable at levels of

A

30 to 100 mg/l

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169
Q

Which of the following methods of backsiphonage prevention is least effective?

A

barometric loop

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170
Q

Which of the following chemicals is the most widely used to destroy microorganisms?

A

chlorine

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171
Q

The flushometer valve is typically protected by

A

a non-pressure-type vacuum breaker

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172
Q

Which of the following is not used to disinfect water?

A

fluorine

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173
Q

The geophysical methods used to identify and investigate the extent and characteristics of ground water pollution include

A

REF!

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174
Q

Microscopic photosynthetic plants of the simplest forms, having neither roots, stems, nor leaves, that are associated with taste and odor, filter clogging, and other water problems are known as

A

algae

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175
Q

The control of corrosion in piping requires all of the following steps except

A

an increase in water velocity

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176
Q

Of the following, which is not a variable to be considered when deciding upon a safe distance between a well and a sewage disposal system?

A

the number of individuals utilizing the well

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177
Q

Cross-connections are frequent causes of disease resulting from

A

REF!

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178
Q

Which of the following statements is (are) true?

A

a. all surface water must be considered unsanitary unless given adequate treatment, c. when considering surface water as a water supply, the entire watershed must be surveyed

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179
Q

Control of infectious, intestinal diseases of humans requires

A

REF!

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180
Q

Which of the following disinfecting compounds can be used full strength for disinfection?

A

sodium hypochlorite

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181
Q

A centrifugal pump is limited to use where the lift of the water is not in excess of

A

15 feet

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182
Q

The Langelier index is used to determine the point of stability of

A

calcium carbonate

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183
Q

Which of the following is used to properly seal a drilled well to prevent contamination of the water supply?

A

grouting

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184
Q

Granular activated carbon (GAC) filters are used to

A

REF!

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185
Q

Ozone is effective against

A

REF!

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186
Q

Which of the following is the more common and least expensive method of backflow control?

A

air gap separation

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187
Q

Which of the following is (are) fundamental to the control of inorganic chemicals in drinking water?

A

REF!

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188
Q

Which of the following wells is considered the most dependable source of water and is less likely to become contaminated?

A

drilled well

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189
Q

Which of the following factors contributes to water hardness?

A

dissolved bicarbonates, sulfates, and/or chlorides of magnesium and calcium in groundwater

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190
Q

The gas causing the distinct “rotten egg” odor in many water sources is

A

hydrogen sulfide

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191
Q

What is desalination?

A

the conversion of seawater or brackish water to fresh water

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192
Q

Which of the following is not considered a satisfactory solution to the problem of chemical contamination in well systems?

A

boiling the water

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193
Q

Which of the following is not a primary consideration when locating a groundwater supply?

A

the distance that the water will need to travel

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194
Q

The sources of water supply are divided into which of the following major classifications?

A

groundwater and surface water

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195
Q

Which of the following is not a commonly accepted method or device to prevent backsiphonage?

A

cross-connections

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196
Q

The gases frequently found in water that encourage corrosion are

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide

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197
Q

Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through

A

sandy loam or clay

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198
Q

Water containing nitrates generally indicates

A

evidence of agricultural/previous pollution

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199
Q

Drinking water standards generally specify that a water is safe provided that testing in a specified manner does not reveal more than an average of

A

1 positive sample out of 40 samples taken

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200
Q

Hardness in drinking water is desirable at levels of

A

50 to 80 mg/l

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201
Q

Trihalomethanes are synthetic organic chemicals primarily created

A

during the pre-chlorination process

202
Q

When considering water storage requirements, which of the following is not considered a recommended practice?

A

the retention time for the stored water should not be over 8 hours

203
Q

All of the following will generally vary directly with the quantity of water used for domestic purposes except

A

amount of minerals in the water

204
Q

Porosity is

A

a measure of the amount of water that can be held by a rock in its pores or voids, expressed as a percentage of the total volume

205
Q

A sanitary survey of a water system is necessary for what reason?

A

to determine the safety and the adequacy of the water supply

206
Q

It has been estimated that waterborne disease worldwide accounts for in excess of

A

250 million illnesses per year

207
Q

Domestic community water system pumps should be of such capacity as to deliver the average daily water demanded to the storage tank in

A

6 to 12 hours

208
Q

Which of the following organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

A

clostridium sporulates

209
Q

Centrifugal pumps are of several types depending on the design of the

A

impeller

210
Q

In sandy soil, sewage organisms can travel about

A

200 feet

211
Q

Which of the following is not commonly used for disinfection of water?

A

silver nitrate

212
Q

Barium is a muscle stimulant and in large quantities may be harmful to the nervous system and heart. The fatal dose is

A

550 to 600 mg

213
Q

Which of the following compounds would not contribute to water hardness?

A

sodium chloride

214
Q

One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay, or hardpan is

A

failure to seal well casings properly

215
Q

A jet pump will lift water a maximum of

A

120 feet

216
Q

The quiescent settling of water such as would occur in a reservoir, lake or basin without the aid of chemicals is known as

A

plain sedimentation

217
Q

If sufficient amounts of activated carbon in the powdered form are used, practically all tastes and odors are removed from water by

A

adsorption

218
Q

High concentrations of nitrates in drinking water are

A

a possible cause of methemoglobinemia

219
Q

Often over 90% of sodium arsenate can be removed by

A

coagulation

220
Q

As you know from previous readings, the composition of soil is very important in the removal of both viruses and bacteria. Which of the following soil conditions is most favorable for removal of viruses?

A

fine loamy sand over course sand and gravel

221
Q

Proper disinfection of water using chlorine depends on the concentration of chlorine plus which of the following?

A

REF!

222
Q

Diatomaceous earth filters

A

should be augmented by chlorination

223
Q

The amount of color in water should be less than

A

15 color units

224
Q

Which of the following is used to control the growth of algae and protozoa?

A

filtration

225
Q

The limitation of the lift capability of the centrifugal pump is based on

A

the weight of the atmosphere

226
Q

A well casing should be equipped with a vent and installed

A

with concrete used as grout

227
Q

The presence of which of the following is most easily identified by laboratory analysis in water contaminated by feces?

A

coliform

228
Q

It is estimated that at any given time, there is/are _____ times more water stored underground than in all the surface streams and lakes.

A

20 to 30 times as much

229
Q

Direct filtration can produce a good quality water at a lower cost provided that the water being treated is

A

REF!

230
Q

An example of a surface water supply would be

A

a reservoir

231
Q

It is recommended that a contaminated well be abandoned unless

A

a. all the sources of pollution can be found and removed, b. the contaminated stratum from which water is being extracted is effectively sealed off

232
Q

The conversation of seawater or brackish water to fresh water is called

A

desalination

233
Q

Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at exposure of

A

300 ppm

234
Q

The type of water that makes it difficult to produce suds or to rinse laundry, dishes or food equipment is

A

hard water

235
Q

Which of the following defines effective porosity or specific yield?

A

the amount of water that will drain out of saturated rock or soil by gravity

236
Q

When using presettling reservoirs to eliminate heavy turbidity or pollution before treatment, what is the desirable retention time?

A

2 to 3 days

237
Q

The safe distance between a well and a waste disposal system is dependant on

A

REF!

238
Q

Residential cesspool and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge

A

400 billion gallons of sewage into the ground per day

239
Q

The most practical method for removing nitrates from water is

A

ion exchange

240
Q

Hydropneumatic or pressure-tank water systems are suitable for

A

small communities, housing developments, private homes and estates, camps, food service operations, and hotels

241
Q

This substance is the first product of the decomposition of organic matter. Its presence in water usually indicates “fresh pollution” of sanitary significance. What is it?

A

ammonia

242
Q

In distillation, sea water is heated to the boiling point and then into steam, usually under pressure, at a starting temperature of

A

258 degrees F

243
Q

What does it mean when a body of water has a high JTU?

A

It has high turbidity

244
Q

Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU) are most commonly used to

A

Determine turbidity

245
Q

What is the first step in evaluating the safety of a potential water system?

A

A detailed sanitary survey of the water supply

246
Q

What are examples of groundwater systems?

A

Dug, bored, driver, drilled well; rock, sand or earth springs; infiltration galleries

247
Q

The quality of surface water depends on

A

The watersheds area drained, land use, location and sources of pollution and the natural agencies of purificatio

248
Q

The hydro pneumatic tank typically contains_____ of its volume as water.

A

20 percent

249
Q

Which of the following is not a practical method for removal of cadmium?

A

Reverse osmosis

250
Q

Typically, an abundant supply of groundwater may be yielded from

A

Sedimentary rocks

251
Q

Groundwater in the soil travels up through a plant’s root system and then comes out from the leaf structure as

A

Transpiration

252
Q

Turbidity of water will

A

REF!

253
Q

The presence of which of the following elements in water treatment plant effluent is used as a measure of filtration efficiency?

A

Aluminum

254
Q

Proper disinfection of water using chlorine depends on the concentration of chlorine plus which of the following?

A

REF!

255
Q

The presence of which of the following in water would indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

A

Clostridium perfringes

256
Q

Which of the following is a measure of the amount of light scattered by particles suspended in a water test sample?

A

Nephelometric Turbidity Units (NTU)

257
Q

Reduction of the level of fluorides in drinking water can be accomplished b

A

REF!

258
Q

What are the fundamental steps involved in the control of organic chemicals in drinking water?

A

Conduct sanitary survey to identify sources, types and amounts of pollution

259
Q

Backflow of nonpotable materials into the potable water system may occur by

A

a. Backpressure, b. Backsiphonage

260
Q

Residential cesspool and septic tank soil absorption systems discharge

A

400 million gallons of sewage into the ground each year

261
Q

In a test conducted in North Carolina by the PHS in sandy soil, sewage organisms traveled

A

In excess of 200 feet

262
Q

Leaching from a garbage dump has been found to pollute wells

A

2000 feet away

263
Q

Which of the following would be classified as a non-transient, non-community water system (NTNCWS)?

A

Water supply serving a factory with at least 25 employees

264
Q

A water system serving one apartment building with three apartments, having a total of six residents is a Public Water Supply (PWS)?

A

FALSE

265
Q

Of the following, which are included as major regulatory requirements in the Safe Drinking Water Act (SDWA)?

A

Public information

266
Q

The primary Drinking Water Standards

A

b and c

267
Q

The Maximum Contaminant Level (MCL) is the highest concentration of a contaminant that is allowable in a water system.

A

TRUE

268
Q

Any time a MCL is exceeded the NTNCWA must give notice by continuous posting in a conspicuous location within the area served by the water system.

A

TRUE

269
Q

Which of the following is not included in the nine contaminant groups?

A

Microorganisms

270
Q

Which would not be classified as a sedimentary formation?

A

olivine

271
Q

Rocks such as serpentine, slate, soapstone and marble belong to which class:

A

metamorphic

272
Q

Which soil has the greatest % porosity

A

silt

273
Q

Which is included in the sanitary survey of groundwater supplies?

A

REF!

274
Q

When collecting bacteriological samples that have been chlorinated, what chemical is used to dechlorinate the water?

A

sodium thiosulfate

275
Q

What is the purpose of using a forward sweeping motion when collecting water samples from a stream or lake?

A

prohibits contamination from samples hands

276
Q

Which bacterial group is indicative of fecal contamination or sewage pollution?

A

coliform

277
Q

Which soil condition is most favorable for removal of viruses?

A

fine loamy sand over coarse sand and gravel

278
Q

What water constituent has been associated with staining plumbing and clothing dark brown or black?

A

Mn

279
Q

Methylene Blue Active Substance (MBAS) is a test to identify:

A

presence of detergents containing phosphates

280
Q

In domestic water well supplies, which two elements cause most hardness?

A

Ca and Mg

281
Q

Which residual test for chlorine would be least desirable?

A

OTA

282
Q

Which would not be used as coagulant?

A

sodium hypochlorite

283
Q

Which organism is not known as an iron bacteria?

A

Giardia lambia

284
Q

What conditions would result in the worst case of pipe damage due to corrosion?

A

soft water, low alkalinity, presence of oxygen

285
Q

Which statement is most correct:

A

facultative bacteria live in either aerobic or anaerobic conditions

286
Q

Which increases the chance of pollution travel?

A

REF!

287
Q

Measure of the amount of water held by a rock or soil in pores or voids, expressed as % of the total volume:

A

porosity

288
Q

What is the primary organism identified in the fecal coli form test?

A

Escherichia coil

289
Q

Which is not a measure of water turbidity?

A

siple turbidity unit

290
Q

Which is the standard measure for water turbidity?

A

nephelometric turbidity unit

291
Q

Another name for epsom salt is:

A

magnesium sulfate

292
Q

The final product in biochemical oxidation of ammonia yield:

A

nitrate

293
Q

Which contaminant in water is associated with methemoglobinemia?

A

nitrate

294
Q

Which will cause taste and odor in water supplies?

A

REF!

295
Q

What statement concerning ozone is incorrect?

A

Ozone residual can last several hours

296
Q

Regulation of drinking water additives is the responsibility of:

A

EPA

297
Q

Which conditions indicate organic stream pollution?

A

REF!

298
Q

Lakes having characteristics of being clean, high in DO, deep and receiving few nutrients:

A

Oligotrophic

299
Q

Which organisms are most resistant to unfavorable environmental conditions and indicate past or possibly intermittent pollution?

A

Clostridium sporulates

300
Q

Algae development will cause all conditions except:

A

Rapid fall in pH

301
Q

The presence of bacteria responsible for typhoid fever in a public water supply could be traced to:

A

Fecal contamination

302
Q

Objectionable tastes and odors in public water supplies are, in a great majority of cases, due to the presence of:

A

Algae and protozoa

303
Q

Hydrogen sulfide can be fatal at an exposure of

A

300 ppm

304
Q

Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through

A

Sandy loam or clay

305
Q

Infectious Hepatitis A (HAV) is a disease caused by:

A

virus

306
Q

The pH of a solution in which the apparent hydrogen ion concentration is equal to 1 x 10-8 moles per liter is:

A

8

307
Q

The substance commonly used as a coagulant in water treatment is:

A

Aluminum sulfate

308
Q

A sample of water taken for bacteriological analysis is usually packed in ice, if the sample cannot be analyzed immediately. The main reason for this procedure is to retard changes in the:

A

Number of bacteria in the water

309
Q

The disinfecting ability of chlorine is affected most by:

A

Hydrogen ion concentration

310
Q

Alkalinity exists in three forms. Which is not one of these forms?

A

hypochlorite

311
Q

Which of the following compounds would not contribute to water hardness?

A

Sodium chloride

312
Q

Improperly located wells, allowing fecal pollution of the water supply, may lead to outbreaks of:

A

Salmonellosis, shigellosis, cholera, hepatitis

313
Q

Viral hepatitis B (HBV) is most often associated with:

A

Administration of blood products

314
Q

Historically in the US, most of the impetus for adequate water treatment came from the need to control:

A

typhoid

315
Q

Communicable diseases such as typhoid fever, cholera, shigellosis, and infectious hepatitis are most commonly transmitted by the:

A

Fecal/oral or vehicle-borne route

316
Q

Which of the following chemicals that can be used for the disinfection of water does not provide a residual?

A

Ozone

317
Q

Aeration is advantageous in the treatment of water containing:

A

Dissolved iron and manganese

318
Q

Masonry reservoirs of rural water supplies are called:

A

Cisterns

319
Q

The liquid form of chlorine used for emergency disinfection of small volumes of

A

Sodium hypochlorite

320
Q

A general rule when surface waters are used for drinking water supplies is:

A

That they must be considered contaminated

321
Q

If you had to rely on only one of the following to determine the safety of a drinking water supply, which one would you choose?

A

Sanitary survey of supply (source, equipment, etc)

322
Q

The general type of subsurface formation in which groundwater contamination is likely to travel the farthest is:

A

Limestone

323
Q

The presence of coliform in water indicates:

A

The possible presence of pathogens

324
Q

The presumptive evidence of the presence of coliform in the MPN test is:

A

The presence of gas from the fermentation of the media

325
Q

If a series of three consecutive water samples from one supply all showed the presence of E coli when each sample was run through presumptive, confirmed and completed tests, the most logical interpretation would be:

A

The supply was possibly exposed to human fecal contamination

326
Q

Activated carbon is used to:

A

Control tastes and odors

327
Q

A physical cross-connection:

A

Is a connection which may permit the flow of water into an approved potable water supply from an unapproved (non-potable) water supply

328
Q

Backsiphonage is likely to result if:

A

A potable water line is connected with non-potable water supply used for fire fighting

329
Q

In the bacteriological analysis of water a positive completed test is definite proof that the sample of water:

A

Contained coliform bacteria and may be unsafe to drink

330
Q

The DPD test is commonly used for the determination of:

A

Chlorine or bromine

331
Q

If hard water is softened by the ion exchange method, which one of the following will increase?

A

sodium

332
Q

The proper method of obtaining a sample of tap water for bacteriological analysis is to collect the sample from a tap that has:

A

Been opened for 2-3 minutes, holding the sample bottle near the base and filling it to within an inch of the top

333
Q

According to the Safe Drinking Water Act, the minimum number of water samples which must be submitted for bacteriological analysis for a public water supply depends upon the:

A

Population served

334
Q

The type of filter that is recommended for use at small communities and rural places is the

A

Slow sand filter

335
Q

In plumbing system, where a faucet feeds a sink, it is advisable to have the faucet situated well above the rim of the sink. Why?

A

Possible suction of wastewater into the supply of potable water

336
Q

One of the most common reasons for the contamination of wells drilled through rock, clay or hardpan is

A

Failure to seal well casing properly

337
Q

Aeration is a natural process or mechanical process which:

A

a. Increases the contact between air and water, b. Improves the physical and chemical characteristics of water

338
Q

If water in a stream is a 20 degrees C and has nine mg/1 oxygen per liter:

A

It would probably be comfortable for rainbow trout

339
Q

The main function of a sand filter is to:

A

Remove suspended solids

340
Q

A chlorine concentration of 30 ppm in a drinking water supply is:

A

Excessive

341
Q

The gases frequently found in water that encourage corrosion are

A

Oxygen and carbon dioxide

342
Q

Ozone is effective against

A

REF!

343
Q

A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered by

A

Water

344
Q

The manner in which water moves from place to place, changing from one form to another is called the:

A

Hydrologic cycle

345
Q

The process whereby water that has fallen on land finds its way back to the oceans is called:

A

run-off

346
Q

The majority of fresh water is found:

A

As groundwater

347
Q

Just to maintain bodily functions, a person needs:

A

4-12 pints of water each day

348
Q

To improve the health and living standards among Third World populations, one of the best things that could be done is:

A

Increase the quantity of readily available safe water

349
Q

The factor that will ultimately result in chronic water shortage is:

A

Unchecked population size

350
Q

For their drinking water supply, over 95% of all farm families depend on:

A

Groundwater

351
Q

Which one of the following is not a characteristic of groundwater?

A

It is more expensive to access than surface water

352
Q

Most cases of groundwater pollution occur in areas:

A

Of high pollution

353
Q

The Amendments to the Safe Drinking Water Act do not cover:

A

Private wells

354
Q

Degradation of groundwater supplied by human-generated pollutants is generally the result of:

A

Faulty waste disposal practices

355
Q

The primary reason for the decline in the water table in some groundwater dependent areas of the world is:

A

Over-pumping

356
Q

In the United States, saltwater intrusion into depleted aquifers is becoming a problem in:

A

Southern California

357
Q

The majority of the world’s water is used in:

A

Agriculture

358
Q

Perhaps the greatest potential for reducing the demand for water could result from:

A

Better use of technology in agriculture irrigation

359
Q

The easiest and least expensive way to conserve water within most households is:

A

Repairing leaky toilet fixtures

360
Q

It is estimated that installation of water-saving plumbing devices in homes would save approximately:

A

55 gallons of water per day per 2-3 person household

361
Q

The major problem associated with desalinization of water is:

A

The amount of energy required

362
Q

Xeriscape landscaping means:

A

Selecting plants that can thrive on natural precipitation

363
Q

Swimming pools receive fecal waste, urine, dead tissue, saliva, mucous from the nose, sweat and pollution and contaminates from the surrounding environment. This emphasizes the importance of proper swimming pool design including

A

REF!

364
Q

Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU or Nephelometric Turbidity Units. It is recommend a level of 0.5 NTU

A

shall not be exceeded

365
Q

The gutters or skimmers receive a minimum of __ of the total pool water due to the large quantity of organisms and materials which typically float.

A

60 percent

366
Q

Eye irritation can be caused by prolonged exposure to water with a pH

A

below 7.4, of 7.0

367
Q

One advantage of using cyanuric acid additive is that it

A

stabilizes residual chlorine

368
Q

The increase of dissolved solids due to evaporation in whirlpools, hot tubs and spas is indicated by

A

cloudy water

369
Q

Swimming pools have been implicated in many outbreaks of disease, including

A

leptospirosis

370
Q

The bottom of multiple-use pools should have a bottom slope not greater than __ when the depth is less than 5.5 feet

A

1 inch per 12 inch

371
Q

Approved public swimming pools should have

A

REF!

372
Q

The fresh water supply line to the pool must

A

fill to the pool through an approved air gap

373
Q

The speed with which emergency action can be taken is largely dependent on

A

prior planning

374
Q

The evacuation and survival of individuals in an emergency or natural disaster are dependent of the extent to which

A

REF!

375
Q

The __ is usually involved in dealing with major disasters.

A

b. Federal Emergency Management Agency, c. Red Cross

376
Q

If temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency, shelter selection should take into consideration

A

a. protection from flooding and the elements, b. availability of heat, light and space

377
Q

Natural disaster victims should be provided with how much water per day.

A

3 to 6 gallons

378
Q

There is no need for vaccination after flooding and other natural disasters, although it is frequently cause for public concern.

A

typhoid

379
Q

A quantity of liquid bleach (household) can be used to retreat 1000 gallons of water for drinking.

A

1 pint

380
Q

___ is a satisfactory method for disinfecting water that is not grossly polluted.

A

chlorination

381
Q

When treating water with chlorine in emergency situations, the chlorine dosage should be __ when the water is turbid or colored.

A

doubled

382
Q

Approved emergency response plans at nuclear electric power plants sites must be tested at least every.

A

2 years

383
Q

The emergency plan at a nuclear electric power plant must include a means for notification of the public living within of the plant within a 15-minute period.

A

10 miles

384
Q

During nuclear emergencies __ provides technical support.

A

REF!

385
Q

The most hazardous category of nuclear emergency is

A

general emergency

386
Q

HAZWOPER requirements apply to

A

voluntary clean-ups at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites

387
Q

OSHA regulations other the HAZWOPER apply to emergency response and hazardous waste operations if they are

A

more stringent

388
Q

The written safety and health program must incorporate

A

REF!

389
Q

Hazardous waste sites must be characterized __ general site entry to determine the hazards present at the site.

A

prior to

390
Q

The site control program at an uncontrolled hazardous waste site must include

A

site work zones

391
Q

Those who work on uncontrolled hazardous waste sites are required to receive a minimum of __ training

A

40 hours

392
Q

Workers involved in waste operations at hazardous waste TSD facilities are required to receive at least __ of training before working in hazardous waste operations.

A

24 hours

393
Q

Air monitoring at uncontrolled hazardous waste sites can be conducted by

A

a person knowledgeable about industrial hygiene practices

394
Q

Air monitoring shall be conducted in order to ensure proper selection of

A

REF!

395
Q

A medical surveillance program must be provided to workers at hazardous waste sites by the

A

employer

396
Q

Employers are required to develop and implement a program to inform __ of the degree of exposure likely as a result of participation in hazardous waste operations.

A

a. employees, b. contractors

397
Q

Containers used in site clean-up operations must be marked and labeled in accordance with regulations.

A

OSHA, EPA, DOT

398
Q

If equipment or clothing is sent from an uncontrolled hazardous waste site for cleaning, the __ associated with the equipment must be communicated to the off-site facility.

A

hazards

399
Q

Decontamination solvents must be

A

disposed of properly

400
Q

Uncontrolled hazardous waste sites must have an emergency response plan with the following elements

A

REF!

401
Q

Showers must be provided at hazardous waste clean-up sites when operations will last longer than

A

6 months

402
Q

Those involved in hazardous waste operations at permitted TSD facilities must receive __ of initial training.

A

24 hours

403
Q

The yellow pages of the emergency response guidebook lists

A

hazardous material by ID number

404
Q

The orange pages of the emergency response guidebook lists

A

guides to use when responding to hazardous materials transportation incidents

405
Q

The green pages of the emergency response guidebook lists

A

initial isolation and protective action distances

406
Q

The US DOT emergency response guidebook can be used to

A

quickly identify the specific or generic classification of hazardous materials during the initial response phase of an incident

407
Q

To disinfect a well, one should and pour directly into the well.

A

mix one quart of bleach in five gallons of water

408
Q

Following floods or other natural disasters, there is frequently public concern for __ vaccination

A

typhoid

409
Q

The number one item listed under emergency equipment and supplies is __

A

water

410
Q

In case of disasters, the speed with which action may be implemented is dependent upon

A

prior plans for emergencies

411
Q

During an emergency, the drinking water source should be

A

assumed unsafe

412
Q

Following a disaster raw food should be

A

b. cooked well, c. avoided if possible

413
Q

In an emergency, people will need __ of water per day each

A

3 to 6 gallons

414
Q

Emergency shelters should provide a minimum of __ per person.

A

30 sq ft2 per person

415
Q

To disinfect clear water using 5% household bleach,

A

mix 1 tablespoon to 10 gallons and let set 30 minutes

416
Q

The provisions of the CFR Part 1910 of Title 29 “Bloodborne Pathogens” are under the authority of?

A

Department of Labor

417
Q

All patients should be considered to be potentially infectious for HIV and other bloodborne pathogens. Therefore you should

A

REF!

418
Q

Engineering controls are:

A

controls that isolate or remove hazards from the workplace

419
Q

According to “Universal Precautions”, which of the following are considered to be infectious?

A

a. all blood from human sources, b. certain body fluids

420
Q

Wearing contact lenses in an area that has the potential to expose workers to body fluids requires

A

that they may not be cleaned in the work area

421
Q

Contaminated needles must always be

A

none of the above

422
Q

Protective equipment such as gloves for workers in contamination risk areas must be

A

provided at no cost to the employee for work purposes

423
Q

Broken glassware found in contamination risk areas or if suspected to have contained infectious material

A

must be picked up using mechanical means

424
Q

Hepatitis B vaccinations for employees that work in contamination risk jobs and areas

A

must be offered at no cost

425
Q

Which one of the following is not a man-made toxic substances?

A

asbestos

426
Q

It is generally accepted that the most widespread chemical contaminant known is:

A

polychlorinated biphenyls

427
Q

PCBs were first synthesized in:

A

1920s

428
Q

Which one of the following is a characteristics of PCBs?

A

high heat resistant

429
Q

What characteristic of PCBs made them an environmental and health hazard?

A

chemical stability

430
Q

The highest PCB concentrations documented in the US are in:

A

Waukegan Harbor

431
Q

The process of a toxic substance being increasingly stored in body tissue is called:

A

bioaccumulation

432
Q

An electrical transformer leak of PCBs resulted in the destruction of millions of dollars worth of chicken and eggs in:

A

Montana

433
Q

The primary route of entry of PCBs into human is:

A

ingestion

434
Q

Which one of the following has not been shown to be associated with PCBs?

A

fertility

435
Q

Which of the following would most likely contain the highest proportion of PCBs?

A

chinook salmon

436
Q

The most characteristic symptom of individuals occupationally exposed to PCBs is:

A

chloracne

437
Q

A major worry associated with prolonged, low-level PCB exposure is:

A

liver cancer

438
Q

Which one of the following was not initially associated with PCBs?

A

minimata disease

439
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?

A

there is no definitive evidence that links PCBs with cancer and other chronic health problems in humans

440
Q

The approved method of disposing of PCBs is:

A

high-temperature incineration

441
Q

Which of the following statements is true?

A

dioxin is formed as a unwanted by-product of herbicide manufacturing

442
Q

Which one of the following is not a major source of human exposure to dioxin?

A

Water

443
Q

Consumption of contaminated:

A

water

444
Q

The statement “dioxin is the most toxic of all man-made chemicals” is somewhat misleading because of the testing done on:

A

guinea pigs

445
Q

Immune system interference has been demonstrated with dioxin exposure in all the following except:

A

mice

446
Q

Perhaps the most significant long-term effect of dioxin exposure appears to be:

A

disruption of hormonal regulation of reproduction

447
Q

Which one of the following general human health problems has been definitively associated with general exposure to dioxin?

A

chloracne

448
Q

What is a major issue that is confronting public health professionals responsible for setting exposure limits to TCCD?

A

the chemical seldom appears alone

449
Q

Perhaps the number one cause of disease as a result of general environmental exposure is:

A

asbestos

450
Q

A major problem associated with occupational exposure to asbestos is:

A

cancer

451
Q

Airborne exposure to asbestos fibers is most commonly associated with:

A

fibers being released through automobile braking

452
Q

The primary route of asbestos entering the human body is through:

A

inhalation

453
Q

Which one of the following cities has a water concentration of asbestos that is 10-100 million fibers per liter?

A

San Francisco

454
Q

Which one of the following has not been associated with asbestos?

A

multiple myeloma

455
Q

The number 1 cause of asbestos-related mortality is:

A

lung cancer

456
Q

Asbestos is the only known cause of:

A

mesothelioma

457
Q

For which one of the following has no direct, causative link been conclusively established:

A

gastrointestinal cancer

458
Q

Which one of the following statements is false?

A

safe levels for asbestos exposure have been established

459
Q

Perhaps the most important determinant of the cancer-causing potential of asbestos is:

A

the size of the asbestos fibers to which one is exposed

460
Q

The extent of risk of development of an asbestos-related disease is probably most associated with:

A

level and duration of exposure

461
Q

A major population group that has increased concern associated with exposure to asbestos fibers has been expressed for:

A

school children

462
Q

A major drawback facing compliance with the Asbestos Hazard Emergency Response Act is:

A

lack of funding to comply with the provisions of the Act

463
Q

Which one of the following is not a way of remedying an asbestos hazard?

A

demolition

464
Q

Which one of the following means of remedying an asbestos hazard is most expensive?

A

removal

465
Q

When engaging in complete asbestos removal, the provisions of which one of the following must be strictly met?

A

Clean Air Act

466
Q

Which one of the following is not a requirement for complete removal and disposal of asbestos?

A

the material may be transported in an open vehicle

467
Q

The number one environmental health problem that affects America’s children is:

A

lead poisoning

468
Q

Perhaps the first occupational exposure to a toxic mineral was associated with:

A

silver processing

469
Q

A major event that lessened environmental exposure to lead was:

A

phase-out of leaded gasoline

470
Q

Which one of the following has been identified as the major source of adult lead exposure?

A

ceramic coffee mugs

471
Q

Which one of the following has not been identified as a hazard associated with lead exposure?

A

occasional use of antique or collectible dinnerware

472
Q

The major source of lead poisoning today is:

A

ingestion of lead-based house paint

473
Q

Lead-based paint may be used for:

A

painting bridges

474
Q

The major cause of lead poisoning of children is from:

A

inhaling lead contaminated household dust

475
Q

Lead poisoning is most acute for:

A

infants

476
Q

Occupational risk of lead poisoning is most prominent among:

A

construction workers who demolish bridges

477
Q

The leaching of lead from solder into home-brewed liquor is a frequent source of lead poisoning in some rural counties of

A

Alabama

478
Q

The estimated half-life of lead in bones is:

A

27 years

479
Q

Which one of the following could produce the sudden release of lead that has been stored in the bones into the bloodstream?

A

pregnancy

480
Q

Which one of the following conditions is not a specifically identified health damaging effect of lead in the human body?

A

heart attack

481
Q

Perhaps the most serious manifestation of damage done as a result of lead being in the bloodstream is to:

A

nerve tissue

482
Q

In children, perhaps the most damage result of chronic low-level exposure to lead can:

A

produce lowered IQ scores

483
Q

Which one of the following does not appear to be a “legacy of childhood lead exposure?”

A

high class rank

484
Q

A treatment for lead exposure that involved administering a drug that binds to lead and facilitates its excretion from the body is called:

A

chelation

485
Q

One of the most important aspects involved in restoring a child who has been exposed to lead to good health is:

A

removal of the child from the source of exposure

486
Q

Which one of the following would probably be most cost effective in the prevention of lead poisoning of children?

A

covering bare soil or planting foundation shrubs

487
Q

Which one of the following, given present conditions, would probably produce the best results in terms of alleviating health damage as a result of childhood exposure to lead?

A

universal lead screening

488
Q

What was the first medical use for mercury?

A

treatment for syphilis

489
Q

The major source of mercury emissions into the atmosphere is from:

A

coal burning

490
Q

The major route of entry of inorganic mercury into humans is through:

A

inhalation of mercury vapors

491
Q

The cause of “Mad Hatters’ Disease” was traced to:

A

mercury

492
Q

A potential source of mercury exposure that could remain for years is from:

A

stored containers of paint produced prior to 1990

493
Q

The tissues most often damaged as result of inorganic mercury entering the body include all of the following except:

A

heart

494
Q

The most common occupational exposure to mercury is through:

A

inhalation

495
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to be occupationally exposed to mercury vapors:

A

farm workers

496
Q

Which one of the following poses virtually no health threat in terms of inorganic mercury?

A

ingestion

497
Q

The major damage that results from exposure to organic mercury is to the:

A

brain

498
Q

All of the following have been associated with methyl mercury poisoning except:

A

tuna

499
Q

Minamata Disease is associated with:

A

organic mercury

500
Q

A major problem associated with methyl mercury is its:

A

affinity for fetal tissue