1501-2000 Flashcards

1
Q

Question

A

Answer

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2
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to be a radon emitter?

A

Obsidian

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3
Q

Perhaps the most significant source of indoor air pollution in terms of particulate levels is:

A

Cigarette smokers

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4
Q

The main source of childhood exposure to particulate pollution is:

A

Tobacco smoke

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5
Q

In what type structures are indoor levels of formaldehyde likely to be rather high?

A

Mobile homes

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6
Q

Fungal spores, bacterial and animal dander are examples of

A

Biological pollutants

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7
Q

Dust mites seem to proliferate in the presence of

A

Use of humidifiers

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8
Q

Most cases of sick building syndrome can be traced to:

A

Inadequate ventilation

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9
Q

The major constituent of the atmosphere today is:

A

Nitrogen

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10
Q

The region of the atmosphere where virtually all life activities occur in the:

A

Troposphere

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11
Q

The region of the atmosphere where the temperature slowly rises with increases in altitude is the:

A

Stratosphere

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12
Q

Most ultraviolet radiation in sunlight is absorbed by the ozone layer as it passes through the:

A

Stratosphere

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13
Q

The reason that there are differences in the amount of infrared absorption in various climatic regions is because:

A

The amount of water vapor varies

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14
Q

Ground radiation refers to:

A

Outward radiation of energy from the

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15
Q

The Greenhouse Effect is the result of

A

re-radiation of infrared waves back to the earth’s surface

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16
Q

The reason that the ozone layer is so important is because it:

A

it protects life forms from solar ultraviolet radiation

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17
Q

The most serious threat to the ozone layer is:

A

chlorofluorocarbons

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18
Q

The “hole in the sky” was first found over:

A

The South Pole

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19
Q

The main component of the Montreal Protocol was the:

A

cutting back and eventually eliminating the use of chlorofluorocarbons

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20
Q

The historical significance of the Montreal Protocol is:

A

the agreement among nations of the world to work together to prevent a disaster of global proportions

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21
Q

Which one of the following is not one of the major atmospheric gases?

A

ozone

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22
Q

Perhaps one of the greatest environmental issues of the late 20th century will be:

A

the Greenhouse Effect

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23
Q

Nearly 1/4 of all global carbon dioxide emissions are the result of

A

deforestation

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24
Q

Concern over increased carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere revolve around issues of

A

global temperature

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25
Q

The Greenhouse Effect is being enhanced by the increase of all the following gases in the atmosphere except:

A

oxygen

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26
Q

Which one of the following is potentially the most important in terms of global warming?

A

methane

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27
Q

The major impact of global warning would most likely be in:

A

an alteration of world-wide rainfall

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28
Q

It is most likely that the greatest temperature increases as a result of global warming will occur in:

A

high latitude regions of northern hemisphere

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29
Q

Which one of the following is not a potential impact of global warming?

A

increased crop yield, particularly of citrus fruits

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30
Q

Which one of the following may be the most devastating to biodiversity?

A

global warming

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31
Q

Which one of the following will perhaps the most dramatic consequence of global warming?

A

rising sea level

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32
Q

A major part of the Earth Summit was to:

A

stabilize concentrations of greenhouse gases at 1990 levels

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33
Q

Which one of the following nations has the greatest annual rate of carbon dioxide production?

A

China

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34
Q

The only way the atmospheric carbon dioxide level would not continue to increase would be slash emissions to:

A

60% of their 1990 levels

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35
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to be a viable response to stop global warming:

A

rapidly expand nuclear power generation

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36
Q

Even if reduction of the emission of CFCs and other greenhouse gases were accomplished, the effect of what is already in the atmosphere will be exerted for approximately:

A

100 years

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37
Q

At present the largest source of methane is:

A

cultivation of rice

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38
Q

Which one of the following, when burned, emits the most carbon dioxide?

A

coal

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39
Q

To improve the accuracy of global warming predictions:

A

more understanding of ocean dynamics is needed

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40
Q

The relationship between the photosynthetic rate of green plants and the carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere may aptly be termed:

A

carbon dioxide fertilization

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41
Q

A basic concept embodied in the Green Lights program is:

A

energy conservation

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42
Q

If the Green Lights program is successful:

A

pollution from fossil fuel production will decrease

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43
Q

What “attracted” industry to the use of chlorofluorocarbons:

A

their chemical stability

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44
Q

Which one of the following gases was not scheduled for phaseout by 1996 as a result of the Montreal Protocol?

A

halon

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45
Q

Which one of the following gases seems to present the greatest challenge in terms of elimination of its use?

A

freon

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46
Q

The ban of chlorofluorocarbons was not targeted at those companies that:

A

use the gas

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47
Q

The term “frequency” cannot be described as

A

Particles

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48
Q

The shorter the wave length

A

The higher the frequency and energy

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49
Q

The roentgen is a measure of the ionization in air produced by exposure to

A

x-rays or gamma rays

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50
Q

The term “rem” is short for

A

Roentgen Equivalent Man

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51
Q

Which term is used to show the exposure of large populations to low level radiation?

A

Person-rem

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52
Q

The term “genetic radiation” refers to effects of radiation on

A

Generations yet unborn

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53
Q

MPD is the abbreviation for

A

Maximum permissible dose

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54
Q

Common deficiencies regarding fluoroscopy units may be

A

REF!

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55
Q

CAT scanners are used to locate

A

REF!

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56
Q

The term “half-value layer” (HVL) is used to designate the thickness of a particular material that will reduce, by one-half, the intensity of radiation passing through the material. Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by

A

Glass or plastic

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57
Q

The siting of nuclear facilities is subject to extensive regulation and licensing by the

A

Nuclear regulatory commission

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58
Q

The FDA requires that sunlamps that radiate UV rays be equipped with timers which automatically shut off after

A

None of the above

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59
Q

X-rays units are generally due for reinspection

A

Every 2 to 3 years

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60
Q

Lasers emit

A

Electromagnetic radiation

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61
Q

Microwave ovens use which of the following energy sources?

A

Electromagnetic

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62
Q

The longer the wave length, the lower the frequency and energy.

A

TRUE

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63
Q

The nature of all radiation is the same, and the difference lies only in the frequency and wave length.

A

FALSE

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64
Q

Survey meters are usually read in roentgens or milliroentgens per hour.

A

TRUE

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65
Q

A radioisotope is an artificially created radioactive isotope of a chemical element that is normally not radioactive.

A

TRUE

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66
Q

Beta particles can be health hazard either as internal or external radiation because of the ionization in tissues.

A

TRUE

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67
Q

Generic effects from radiation exposure are usually immediately evident.

A

FALSE

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68
Q

Most cells, tissue and organs of the body are independent and the destruction of one will not affect the other.

A

FALSE

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69
Q

Biological effects should govern the required standards of radiological protection.

A

FALSE

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70
Q

In assessing radiation hazard, the sum total of all exposures should be considered.

A

TRUE

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71
Q

Actual amounts of radiation exposure received in different parts of the world will vary with altitude, background and medical practices.

A

TRUE

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72
Q

With dental x-rays, it is necessary to establish the correct exposure time for kilovoltage, milliamperage and source-to-skin distance.

A

TRUE

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73
Q

It is believed by some researchers that the hazards of low level radiation may be worse than previously predicted, supporting the principle that “x-rays should be used only when there is good medical reason.”

A

TRUE

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74
Q

It is not necessary for a dental unit to have filters.

A

FALSE

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75
Q

The discoverer of X-rays was:

A

Roentgen

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76
Q

The term “radioactivity” was “coined” by

A

Marie and Pierre Curie

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77
Q

Which one of the following is not a part of particulate radiation?

A

x-ray

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78
Q

All of the following are considered ionizing radiation except:

A

Ultraviolet light

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79
Q

Resident of which of the following citied would probably receive the most cosmic radiation?

A

Lake Placid

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80
Q

Which one of the following is least penetrating?

A

Alpha rays

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81
Q

Which one of the following is most penetrating?

A

Gamma rays

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82
Q

Residents of which of the following cities would probably receive the most exposure from naturally occurring radioactive minerals?

A

Vale, California

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83
Q

From the standpoint of exposure to radioactive minerals, which one of the following building materials would probably be most “safe”?

A

Wood

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84
Q

Which one of the following is not natural source of radiation exposure?

A

Nuclear power plants

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85
Q

Perhaps our single most significant source of radiation exposure is:

A

Radon

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86
Q

The greatest exposure to human made ionizing radiation for most individuals is through:

A

Medical x-rays

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87
Q

The consumer product most significant in terms of radiation exposure is:

A

cigarettes

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88
Q

Perhaps the most “infamous” incidence of radiation-induces illness involved:

A

Women who painted watch dials

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89
Q

The best management for intensely radioactive isotopes that have very short half-lives is:

A

Isolate them from human contact during their acute phase

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90
Q

The amount of radiation damage in human exposure to ionizing radiation is measured in term of:

A

sieverts

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91
Q

Which one of the following is true?

A

Low levels of ionizing radiation have a potential to cause cell damage rather than cell deaths

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92
Q

Perhaps the greatest problem that resulted from the testing of nuclear weapons prior to the Nuclear Test Ban Treaty was:

A

Radioactive contamination of soil and water

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93
Q

Which one of the following is true?

A

There is a linear relationship between exposure to ionizing radiation and gene mutation

94
Q

Which one of the following is the greatest genetic concern in terms of exposure to ionizing radiation?

A

Mutations that accumulate in the gonads

95
Q

Sensitivity to radiation is probably highest:

A

During fetal development

96
Q

The majority of damage from X-rays during fetal development is to the:

A

Nervous system

97
Q

Perhaps the most often observed birth defect that is the result of fetal exposure to X-rays is:

A

microcephaly

98
Q

The most harmful effects of ionizing radiation on human fetal tissue is during:

A

The second through sixth week of gestation

99
Q

Perhaps the first indication of the health problems associated with exposure to ionizing radiation were the result of a high incidence of

A

Skin cancers

100
Q

Approximately what percentage of medical and dental X-rays do federal officials estimate to be unnecessary by federal officials?

A

33

101
Q

Which one of the following has not been suggested as a reason that Americans are receiving excess exposure to X-rays?

A

Medicaid/medicare requirements

102
Q

Which one of the following is false?

A

Children should have routine dental X-rays as part of screening programs

103
Q

Perhaps the classic example of X-ray induced malignancy is:

A

Leukemia

104
Q

In terms of health problems associated with ionizing radiation, perhaps the most prudent way to safeguard public health is to:

A

Subscribe to the linear dose-response curve

105
Q

Standards for ionizing radiation exposure:

A

Represent a balance between adverse effects and known benefits

106
Q

Prior to 2008, there have been no new nuclear reactors ordered by US utility companies in the US since:

A

1978

107
Q

The percentage of electrical energy generated for use in the US by nuclear power plants is approximately:

A

20

108
Q

The fissionable fuel in all US nuclear reactors is:

A

Uranium

109
Q

The major problem associated with uranium mining is the possible development of:

A

Lung cancer

110
Q

Which one of the following is not one way to protect the safety of uranium miners?

A

Provide special warning monitors for miners to wear

111
Q

A major problem associated with the milling of uranium ore is the:

A

Production of radioactive tailings

112
Q

Considered by many as the source of greatest public exposure related to nuclear power production is:

A

Uranium mill tailings

113
Q

Which one of the following creates perhaps the greatest risk of exposure to ionizing radiation?

A

Mining the uranium

114
Q

Under normal operating conditions, public exposure to ionizing radiation from nuclear power plants is primarily from:

A

Deliberate release of radioactive gas

115
Q

The reason fallout levels from Chernobyl were considerably less than might have been anticipated was:

A

Favorable weather conditions prevailed

116
Q

The defense in depth concept that is used in constructing nuclear plants is:

A

Characterized by repeated layers of thick shielding materials

117
Q

A major concern associated with Chernobyl style nuclear reactors is:

A

Accidental radioactive releases would be sent directly into the atmosphere

118
Q

A potential public health problem associated with reprocessing nuclear fission material is:

A

Volatile radioisotopes are released into the atmosphere

119
Q

Which one of the following is a characteristic of high level nuclear wastes?

A

They generally arise from spent reactor fuel

120
Q

The US site that appears to be the focus of consideration for the nation’s first permanent repository for nuclear waste is in:

A

Yucca Mountain, NV

121
Q

A problem that utility companies are intimating may force them to close operation of nuclear power plants is lack of

A

A waste disposal alternative

122
Q

The Monitored Retrievable Storage (MRS) concept deals with:

A

Storage of spent nuclear fuel in above-ground casks

123
Q

The major target for damage associated with ultraviolet radiation is:

A

Cellular DNA

124
Q

The major concern related to ultraviolet radiation within humans is with:

A

Skin cancer

125
Q

What percentage of the typical American’s lifetime exposure to ultraviolet radiation occurs before age 20?

A

80

126
Q

Which one of the following is not an anticipated benefit of regularly using a sunscreen of SPF 15 from infancy through age 18 is:

A

Lowered risk of oat cell carcinoma

127
Q

Perhaps the best sunscreens are those:

A

That are most water resistant

128
Q

Perhaps the major problem associated with selecting a sunscreen based on SPF alone is:

A

Lack of generally accepted standards for determining SPF

129
Q

Basal and squamous cell carcinomas are most commonly associated with exposure to:

A

UVB

130
Q

The most common form of cancer in women under age 30 is:

A

Malignant melanoma

131
Q

Malignant melanoma seems to be related to:

A

Occasional severe sunburn

132
Q

Owners of tanning salons claim they offer a safe tan because they:

A

Use only UVA light

133
Q

UVA has been associated with all of the following except:

A

Lessened sunburning

134
Q

Exposure to even moderate amounts of ultraviolet radiation can be dangerous for individuals suffering from:

A

Lupus erythematosus

135
Q

Which one of the following is false?

A

Microwaves are a form of ionizing radiation

136
Q

Absorption of microwave energy by bodily tissues is largely associated with the:

A

Amount of water content of the tissue

137
Q

Which one of the following is probably least susceptible to microwave induced injury?

A

liver

138
Q

Probably the best understood type of microwave induced injury involves:

A

Excessive heating of internal organs

139
Q

The major controversy associated with injury as the result of microwave exposure deals with:

A

Prolonged low levels of exposure

140
Q

Which one of the following does not seem to be associated with exposure to microwaves?

A

Men fathering only male offspring

141
Q

Which one of the following is true?

A

The risks associated with childhood exposure to EMF are inconclusive

142
Q

The weight and shape of temporary storage containers must be kept within the limits that can be easily and conveniently handled by the collection crew, with the weight preferably not exceeding

A

70 pounds

143
Q

Frequency of collection depends on

A

REF!

144
Q

In business districts, refuse, including garbage from hotels and restaurants, should be collected daily, except on

A

Sundays

145
Q

Open dumps should be considered

A

REF!

146
Q

The home grinding system shreds garbage into small particles while being mixed with water and is discharged to the

A

house sewer

147
Q

Garbage reduction melts out fats that are used in manufacturing of

A

soaps, glycerines and cosmetics

148
Q

Composting is the controlled decay of organic matter that may come from

A

REF!

149
Q

Which of the following composting method will require limited land space?

A

none of the above

150
Q

__ is the thermochemical process for the conversion of complete organic solids in the absence of added oxygen, to water, combustible gases, tarry liquids and stable residue.

A

pyrolysis

151
Q

Resource recovery can be expected to achiever no more than are __ duction in future landfill volume requirement.

A

60 percent

152
Q

The disposal of used tires presents a problem but shredded tires may be used as

A

fuel for industries

153
Q

hazardous wastes include which of the following types of substances?

A

REF!

154
Q

The most common problems associated with the disposal of hazardous waste are

A

REF!

155
Q

The amount of residue left after incineration is approximately

A

10 to 15 percent of the original volume

156
Q

To provide enough refuse for an incinerator to continuously operate, a refuse storage pit/bin must hold approximately

A

4 days of refuse

157
Q

When trying to establish economical hauling, what is most important?

A

hauling time

158
Q

Landfill sites should be at least __ from streams, lakes or other surface bodies of water

A

200 feet

159
Q

Leachate containing primarily low molecular weight organic compounds are best treated by

A

biological methods

160
Q

Which of the following is not considered an advantage to using shredded solid waste landfill?

A

it will readily absorb precipitation

161
Q

Large items that are not salvaged should be

A

a. set directly into the landfill, b. placed in an alternative location, c. compressed or shredded

162
Q

Which hazard is related to size reduction method for solid waste?

A

explosions

163
Q

According to EPA which is not a characteristic of hazardous waste.

A

friability

164
Q

After a landfill is closed, how much soil should be placed on top of the site?

A

two feet

165
Q

In valleys and ravines, what method of landfilling is considered the best?

A

area

166
Q

How often should refuse he compacted during the average work day?

A

continually

167
Q

How much earth should be placed on refuse at the end of the day?

A

6 inches

168
Q

Which would not be considered an appropriate use for a completed landfill?

A

housing development

169
Q

What type soil is most desirable as a landfill cover?

A

sandy loam

170
Q

What reference would you use to determine if an infectious waste that contains viable organisms is included?

A

RCRA Act

171
Q

Venturi scrubbers, spray towels and packed towers are examples of what type of waste treatment methods?

A

absorption

172
Q

Which product would probably have the lowest reclamation value?

A

glass

173
Q

Which statement is correct in regards to methane gas production?

A

anaerobic methane gas-producing bacteria produce methane

174
Q

What contaminant may accompany methane production if large amounts of sulfate are also present?

A

H2S

175
Q

The most common problem associated with the disposal of hazardous waste is:

A

groundwater contamination

176
Q

PCBs have been used in which systems/devices?

A

REF!

177
Q

Which is not an essential factor in the combustion phase of an incinerator?

A

moisture

178
Q

When selecting a location for a sanitary landfill, which is correct?

A

hauling time is more important than hauling distance

179
Q

The direction of operation in involving a sanitary landfill should be:

A

with the prevailing wind

180
Q

Homes containing garbage disposals should have a septic tank capacity increased by what % in order to accommodate the increased organic loading?

A

50%

181
Q

After collection, there are four main steps involved in resource recovery. Place in correct order:

A

size reduction, separation, recovery, utilization

182
Q

Refuse collection frequency depends largely on the length of time required for fly eggs to mature through the larval stages into adults. Under optimum summer temperatures, maturation time is:

A

7-10 days

183
Q

Which of the following is an unacceptable operating practice at a sanitary landfill?

A

a specific time and lace should be designated for the dumping of sewage sludge, agricultural wastes and toxic substances

184
Q

The most satisfactory basis for measuring quantities of solid waste is by:

A

weight

185
Q

The type of sanitary landfill that should be developed on essentially flat land sited in dry areas is:

A

area landfills

186
Q

Compactibility of soil in landfills depends primarily on:

A

the gradient of the particle size of the soil

187
Q

The depth of the earth required on the final surface of a sanitary landfill is:

A

2 feet

188
Q

On the basis of weight, which of the following materials constitutes the largest component of domestic solid waste?

A

paper

189
Q

Refuse in an established sanitary landfill decomposes by the bacterial process of:

A

anaerobic decomposition

190
Q

Under RCRA, the EPA has developed standards and procedures that must be followed be all persons that:

A

generate, transport, treat, store or dispose of hazardous waste

191
Q

The Federal Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976 (RCRA) is mainly concerned with:

A

solid wastes

192
Q

Which of the following conditions may minimize the problem of leachate?

A

low rainfall and high transpiration rate

193
Q

Which component of solid waste storage, collection and disposal must be subsidized from the other?

A

disposal from collection fees

194
Q

The two most common methods of sanitary landfill operation are

A

area method and trench method

195
Q

Hazardous wastes should not be placed in an ordinary sanitary landfill because:

A

the wastes could contaminate the surrounding air, land or soil

196
Q

When aerobic synthesis occurs in a landfill, it is expected that the refuse is:

A

in the early stages of decomposition

197
Q

Advantages of the land disposal of digested sewage (sludge) include all except:

A

build-up of heavy metals in the soil

198
Q

A solid waste manager is trying to reduce lead in the solid waste stream. What should be targeted in the municipal waste stream as a major contributor to the environment?

A

lead acid batteries

199
Q

All of the following are considered advantages of using the shredded solid waste landfill method except:

A

it will readily absorb precipitation

200
Q

Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?

A

pressurized

201
Q

Which federal law regulates underground storage tanks for hazardous substances?

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

202
Q

A measure of the probability and severity of adverse effects under specific conditions best describes

A

risk

203
Q

Which of the following sampling devices is best for collecting undisturbed soil samples

A

split spoon

204
Q

In the APHA method of measuring housing quality, which of the following would be considered a minor deficiency if found inadequate?

A

central heating

205
Q

A minimum of __ of sleeping area per person is required in the APHA appraisal method.

A

40 ft2

206
Q

The ASHRAE recommended minimal thermal standard for dwelling is __F at 40% humidity and an air circulation rate of 45 fpm.

A

76F

207
Q

In unsewered areas, the responsibility for water and sewer for new subdivisions is assigned to the

A

developer

208
Q

The end of a waste pipe should terminate at least __ above the rim of a sink or receptacle directly connected to the drainage system.

A

2 inches

209
Q

Salvato recommends at least one water closet for each __ beds in a hospital or nursing home.

A

eight

210
Q

The housing code, regardless of who promulgates it is

A

a complex environment health code requiring the involvement of environmental health scientists and sanitarians

211
Q

Lead levels exceeded 10ug/dL in US children aged 6 and under in 1990

A

3000000

212
Q

In children, blood lead levels (BLLs) more than __ are associated with decreased intellectual performance and other adverse health events.

A

10 ug/dL

213
Q

All of the following are characteristics of an ideal shielding material for lead paint surfaces except

A

high density and mass

214
Q

CDC advocates a multitier approach for environmental management of lead threats. This approach has which of the following steps

A

REF!

215
Q

Radon cannot be reduced with which of the following devices

A

none of the above

216
Q

The best control of formaldehyde air pollution in the home is

A

REF!

217
Q

Short term exposure to formaldehyde levels above __ can cause serious health or life threatening reactions

A

50 ppm

218
Q

If radon is a problem in your area the following locations would be rooms of higher risk;

A

basements

219
Q

Individuals assigned to regulatory programs should be

A

a. exceptionally qualified by both training and experience, c. have achieved appropriate certifications

220
Q

Most mobile homes are

A

REF!

221
Q

The control of bloodborne pathogens is regulated by

A

OSHA

222
Q

The incidence of tuberculosis in English laboratory workers working with M. tuberculosis was reported to be __ higher than for the general population

A

5 times

223
Q

The term containment is used in describing

A

safe methods for managing infectious agents in the laboratory

224
Q

The four biosafety containment levels consist of a combination of

A

laboratory practices, safety equipment and facilities

225
Q

Campylobacter (C. jejuni/C. coli, C. fetus subsp. fetus) may be safely used in the laboratory as a minimum at

A

biosafety level 2

226
Q

The release of genetically engineered materials to the environment is regulated by

A

USDA and EPA

227
Q

A national performance standard has been developed by the

A

National Sanitation Foundation (NSF)

228
Q

Perhaps the most important feature in implementing programs in biosafety is

A

working with the client in a consultative mode

229
Q

The implementation of a biosafety program begins with

A

an assessment of risk

230
Q

Which one of the following enter directly into biological processes?

A

Carbon dioxide

231
Q

The increase in the concentration of carbon dioxide in the earth’s atmosphere might be occurring because of:

A

the increased consumption of fossil fuels