1-500 Flashcards
Question
Answer
An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called
an embargo
Field observations are not always reported in total because
the significance of the data is not understood
In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to
keep very accurate records
Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating?
the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year
When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______.
civil action
Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected?
determining how the information will be used
Which of the following is the most effective technique for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment?
a. a mandatory injunction, b. revoking a license, c. an injunction
An administrative process of measuring and analyzing results in relation to specific goals, objectives, aims or targets is
evaluation
On-the-job education should start with planned, routine, intensive in-service training of
all field and office personnel
All of the following describe objectives used in environmental quality planning except
non-measurable
Self-imposed health risk factors include
a. exposure to sunlight, b. diet, c. smoking
Legal proceedings to enforce a law may include
a. issuance of an order to eliminate a violation, b. suspension of a permit, c. civil sanctions
In an environmental control statistical report for program, the “total man-days expended” will
show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities
Which type of inspection would be conducted prior to legal action?
reinspection
In order to perform an evaluation, the data collected must be reliable. Which of the following is not a definitive characteristic of reliability?
easy to obtain
The changing role of environmental health scientists, including their duties of administrating services to the public, has been brought about largely due to
public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life
Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable and
enforceable
The terms “goals” and “objectives” are sometimes used interchangeably; however, objectives should be considered as
the realistically attainable ends
Letter and report writing are effective means of acquainting ______ with the diversity and complexity of a facility’s problems.
establishment owners
The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for
an administrative warrant
Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and
on the basis of a general administrative plan
The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as
a. clean air, b. clean food service establishments, c. decent housing
A standard for dishwashing that states that the “total bacteria count should not exceed one hundred per utensil surface,” is an example of what type of objective?
performance
A well developed ______ activity report can serve practically all the reporting needs of an organization for statistical purposes.
daily
To have a successful environmental control service, the retention of competent personnel is a primary concern. Which of the following is (are) required to retain competent personnel?
a. adequate salaries, b. pleasant, stimulating working conditions, c. a dynamic and challenging program
The number of inspections divided by the number of workdays should equal which of the following?
average number of inspections per workday
Since competent direction is essential to a divisional program’s effectiveness, it is important to offer
none of the above
From a legal standpoint, which of the following is true regarding enforcement of standards?
a specification-type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard
The effectiveness of an inspection program depends on technical competence and the ______ of regulatory staff.
attitude
A program plan should be developed for each of the program activities. This plan should list which of the following criteria for each activity?
a. work load and methods to meet program objectives and financing, b. resource requirements, goals and objectives, c. need for the program, evaluation, and law
The precise levels at which specific air pollutants become a health hazard are relatively easy to establish by existing surveillance systems.
FALSE
Particulates larger than 10 microns can penetrate easily into the respiratory tract.
FALSE
It is possible to control noise
a. at the source, b. in its path of transmission, c. where it is received
Fluorocarbons in the atmosphere are of concern because they may
a. react with the ozone in the upper atmosphere, thus reducing the total amount of ozone available, b. cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth, c. cause an increase in skin cancers and changes in our climate, animal, and plant life
The terms “washout” and “rainout” both refer to a cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere.
TRUE
A ______ is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels.
decibel
The frequency of a sound determines its pitch.
TRUE
When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called
synergism
Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a
fog, mist, or dust
Precipitation accomplishes an effective cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere by
a. accumulation of small particles in the formation of raindrops or snowflakes in clouds, b. the washing out of scavenging of large particles by falling raindrops or snowflakes, c. removal of gaseous pollutants by dissolution and absorption
A deterioration in the ozone layer of the stratosphere can cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth.
TRUE
The unit of measurement most commonly used to measure loudness is called
phon
Sound absorbing materials absorb low frequency sounds much more effectively than high frequency sounds.
FALSE
Air pollution control should first be considered at the
source
If 10 decibels is 10 times more intense than one decibel, how many times more intense is 20 decibels than one decibel?
100
The Montreal Protocol categorizes ______ and ______ in two classes based on their ozone-depiction potential.
CO2 and PAN
Glazing, silvering, or bronzing on the underside of a leaf is evidence that injury has occurred by
peroxyacyl nitrates
The meteorological elements that have the most direct and significant effects on the distribution of air pollutants are
a. solar radiation, b. wind speed and direction, c. precipitation and stability
Turbulence is the wind characteristic that is
the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants
Some specific measures that can be used to reduce the effect of highway noise include
a. setting lower speed limits for certain sections of a highway, b. establishing alternate truck routes, c. enclosure of highways going through residential areas
For a pure tone (single frequency) to be produced, there must be a one-to-one correspondence between
loudness and intensity
______ have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation.
fluorides
Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day’s time an average of
35 pounds of air
Stability of the atmosphere
a. is the ability to enhance or suppress vertical air motions - b. is largely determined by the vertical temperature profile
In what part of the earth’s atmosphere are photochemical oxidants produced?
troposphere
Sources of pollutants can generally be classified as
a. line sources, b. area sources, c. point sources
Which of the following items are not natural topographic features?
canals
A particle count of above ______ is said to be representative of an urban area
50,000
Street dust would be considered what type of pollution?
fugitive pollutant
Ozone can be formed by the action of sunlight on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons.
TRUE
What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants?
sulfur dioxide
______ can be formed as a result of the sun’s action on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons
ozone
The ratio of the energy passing through a wall, floor, or ceiling to the energy striking it is called
sound transmission loss
Long-term wind data of a given location are presented graphically in the form of a
wind rose
Transportation is the largest source of air pollution.
TRUE
The amount of sound energy a material can absorb is a function of its absorption coefficient at a specified frequency.
TRUE
Which of the following types of materials are known to reflect sound?
rubber tiles
Continuous exposure to high-level noise is less harmful than intermittent or occasional exposure.
FALSE
Dry cotton ear plugs are just as effective against noise control as expensive fitted ear plugs and earmuffs.
FALSE
The accumulation or increased concentration of a continuously emitted pollutant is
inversely proportional to wind speed
A hammering type noise often heard in a plumbing system is usually due to
a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber
In the United States, the Ringlemann smoke chart consists of how many rectangular charts?
four
A primary pollutant is one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of chemical reactions.
FALSE
Individuals react differently to noise depending on age, sex, and socioeconomic background.
TRUE
Air pollution is the presence of ______ in the outside air in amounts that are injurious or detrimental to humans, animals, plants, or property.
a. solids, b. gases, c. liquids
Stack samples must be collected at the same speed of flow that gases normally pass through the stack.
TRUE
The ______ of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation.
intensity
The normal change in temperature with altitude is
noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air
The Safe Alternatives Policy program
specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances
Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except
nylon
Halon-1211 is used primarily in ______.
portable fire extinguishers
Air pollutants may be in the form of microorganisms.
TRUE
Areas on the windward side of mountain ranges can expect less precipitation due to the forced rising, expansion, and cooling of moving air masses.
FALSE
The most common type of noise measurement device used for initial surveys to provide rapid evaluation and identification of potential problem areas is the
sound level meter
The first Federal standards for occupational exposure to noise were issued by
the Department of Labor
The concentration resulting from a continuous emission of a pollutant is directly proportional to wind speed.
FALSE
A primary pollutant is
one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists
______ involves the chemistry, physics, and dynamics of the atmosphere and includes many direct effects of the atmosphere on the earth’s surface, ocean, and life.
meteorology
The effects of air pollution are influenced by
a. wind speed, and direction,b. sunlight, c. precipitation
Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide pollution?
electrical substations
In general terms, it is safe to assume that any two identical sound levels will have the effect of increasing the overall level by 10 dB.
FALSE
Halon-1301 is used primarily in ______.
fixed fire suppression systems
Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch.
TRUE
The major factors related to hearing loss are
a. time duration of exposure and repeated impact, b. intensity of sound waves, c. frequency content of sound
Which of the following is not a malodorous gas?
carbon monoxide
Impurities in combustible hydrocarbons (coal and oil) combine with oxygen to produce ______ when burned.
sulfur dioxide
The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on
the compressibility and density of the medium
______ is considered to be the least damaging to the stratospheric ozone layer.
HCFCs
Which of the following is not a primary pollutant?
sulfuric acid
Almost all sound contains multiple frequencies.
TRUE
In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with
skunks
The gains in life expectancy between 1900 (48 years) and 1974 (72 years) have occurred mostly in the early years and are due to
a. sanitation, b. nutrition, c. chemotherapy
It is believed that the ingestion of one virus particle can cause infection in humans.
TRUE
Onchocerciasis is a rare illness found in some third world countries.
FALSE
An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called
a communicable disease
The cancer rate is roughly 72% higher for inner-city people than the level for suburbanites.
FALSE
There is a scientific consensus that further increases in life expectancy are dependent on the extent to which
b and c above
A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is
psittacosis
Food poisoning from Staphylococcus aureus can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods that have been properly handled and then through appropriate time temperature control of the finished product.
TRUE
An analysis by Dever indicated that environmental factors were considered to be the cause of 49% of all deaths due to accidents, 20% of the influenza and pneumonia deaths, 41% of the homicides, and 15% of the deaths due to birth injuries and other diseases peculiar to early infancy.
TRUE
Between 26 B.C. and 395 A.D., the average life expectancy was
24 years
The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed
disinfection
House mice may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis.
TRUE
Tularemia is often transmitted to humans by handling rodents, rabbits, and muskrats.
TRUE
Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soil.
FALSE
Some of the prime sources of Giardia lamblia cysts are humans, beavers, muskrats, and domestic animals.
TRUE
Marsh miasma is another name for the disease known as Legionella.
FALSE
Schistosomiasis is
a water contact disease
Rats are one of the seven animals most likely to carry rabies.
FALSE
The most effective means of control of bats is to “build them out.”
TRUE
Toxins that attack nerves are referred to as enterotoxin.
FALSE
The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except
homicide
Coliform, on soil surfaces, may survive up to 38 days.
TRUE
The term “endemic” means
constant presence of an illness
The prevention of deaths from a particular disease increases the overall life expectancy in direct proportion to its decreased mortality.
FALSE
Urine is usually sterile, except for urinary schistosomiasis, typhoid, and leptospirosis carriers.
TRUE
The amelioration of a disease to reduce disability or dependence resulting from it is termed
tertiary prevention
Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by
fungi
The prevention of respiratory diseases in “vulnerable” individuals is to
a. protect people from the source, b. eliminate routes of transmission, c. reduce presence of susceptible individuals
Life expectancy is a measure of health progress, morbidity levels, and the quality of life.
FALSE
Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens.
FALSE
A water or foodborne disease outbreak with a short incubation period is likely because of
chemical poisoning
It is estimated that approximately 1/3 of water and foodborne diseases are reported.
TRUE
Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by
ticks
The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except
use of antibiotics
The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is
epidemiology
The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the
incubation period
The disease caused by Legionella pneumophila was found to originate in the toilet tanks in older hotels.
FALSE
A vaccinated dog or cat bitten by or exposed to a rabid animal should be confined for 4 months or destroyed.
FALSE
Observations and cost-effective analyses have shown that good housing and sanitation are far more effective measures for the control of cholera, typhoid, and similar diseases than is immunization.
TRUE
Public awareness demands a quality of environment that provides fundamental needs such as which of the following?
a. pure water, clean air, pure food, b. decent housing, c. safe recreational facilities
Which of the following factors is not considered in of need of control by the WHO health goal?
achievement of individual wealth
The Overseas Development Council has created a Physical Quality of Life Index by combining assessments of
literacy rates, life expectancy and infant mortality rates
Strategic planning is a tool that helps organizations
a. decide where they want to be in the future, b. locate where they are now, c. plan how to get to the desired state in the future
The most important factor leading to the abandonment of a site is related to
an adequate, safe water supply
A comprehensive solid waste study must include
preliminary analysis for solid waste treatment and disposal
What led to the formation of the NEPA?
a. public concern over environmental pollution, b. scientific support, c. professional prodding and support
Most of the funding for municipal capital improvement is provided by
revenue bonds and general obligation bonds
Which one of the following would be considered primary gain for moving from the city into a suburban area?
lower taxes
An “environmental assessment” developed under NEPA is
a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible
Adequate highways, land-use controls, park and recreation facilities, water, sewers, solid waste disposal, and other services necessary for proper community functions are usually designed within the context of a ______ plan.
regional
The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to
a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between human and the environment, b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment, c. encourage greater understanding of the environment
What is the smallest practical planning unit involved in regional planning?
the county
The process of comprehensive community planning includes all of the following except
surrounding area politics
Which of the following is not a recommendation for topography and site survey?
water supply source that is fast moving
For every 1,000 new people, a community will require all of the following except
an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year
______ assists in economic growth by increasing personal income, retail sales, and bank deposits.
industry
When developing a preliminary or feasibility report, which of the following steps would generally not be included?
construction plans
The ______ in many cities has been leveling off, but has been increasing in the suburbs.
rate of population growth
Revenue bonds are usually repaid by
specific sources of revenue (such as water charges)
The term “Federal agency” does not include which of the following
the executive office
A comprehensive water supply study must include
alternative sources of water
One method of financing for a municipal capital improvement is by revenue bonds which in turn are paid by
persons receiving the service
A GAP analysis is
an analysis of the distance between the current state and the future state
A SWOT analysis is
none of the above
When a suitable site is being selected for a particular purpose, which of the following must be known before any property is investigated?
REF!
Comprehensive community planning includes which of the following steps?
REF!
The agency that developed guidelines to assist urban areas and cities assess the environmental impact of housing and urban development was
the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development
An EIS is required by ______, when the EA indicates significant impact to the Environment.
NEPA
Communities that desire to maintain the character of the community without overtaxing its members should
a. develop zoning regulations, c. encourage the development of vacant land served by existing public services
Federal air quality standards for sulfur oxides in parts per million is
0.03
A planning board’s enforcement tools include
REF!
The EPA stream water quality rate for fecal coliform is
200 colonies per 100 ml
The generally accepted method(s) of preventing subdivision complications and obtaining orderly community growth is (are)
comprehensive land-use planning
In research and problem identification, the evaluation of the community contains all the following except
special planning studies
The purpose of public information and community action is which of the following?
REF!
Plan implementation involves capital improvement programs and financing plans.
TRUE
An environmental impact statement should contain all of the following except
probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided
A QOL index is useful in determining future demands made on water supplies in subdivisions.
FALSE
Actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment are categorically defined as
categorical exclusion
The Council on Environmental Quality was established by
Title II of NEPA
A “vision” is a term used in strategic planning to represent the
REF!
Every 1,000 new people in a community will require 1,000,000 extra gallons of water per year.
FALSE
Financing for municipal capital improvements is generally done by revenue bonds or general obligation bonds.
TRUE
A project study is another term for Acomprehensive regional planning.@
FALSE
In the quality of life index, the economic environment includes all of the following except
material quality
General overall policy planning includes all of the following except
detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans
Comprehensive community planning attempts to take an overall look at the total region.
TRUE
Subdivision plans involving individual wells and sewage disposal systems
must be adapted to the topography and geological formations existing
The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 made it the responsibility of the Federal Government to use all practical means to coordinate ______ to encourage harmony between man and his/her environment.
REF!
Due to political boundaries, the costs of implementing services for community functions are best handled by
metropolitan regions
The nitrogen dioxide below ______ ppm does not pose a health problem.
0.05
______ was responsible for preparing a circular to help determine “the probable impact of the proposed action on the environment.”
Leopold
The selection of a site for a public building often requires improvements. An undesirable feature that can often be remediated for public health reasons concerns is
a low swampy area
Comprehensive planning includes
REF!
The amount of debt a municipality may incur is usually determined by
the constitution or laws of a state
The EPA stream quality indicator for dissolved oxygen in stream water is
6 mg per liter
General obligation bonds used for financing municipal capital improvement are repaid by
real property tax
To determine the resources on a section of property, one should seek the assistance of a person who is experienced and familiar with
a. geology and wildlife - b. forestry and engineering
A certificate of compliance is issued by the ______ when a system is properly installed.
health department
Haphazard development can be controlled by comprehensive local and regional planning if
broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided
An outline of a regional or area-wide planning study and report includes which of the following elements?
REF!
A city, village, or town may adopt a local sewage and waste ordinance as part of its ______ depending on its availability and effectiveness.
REF!
Several proposals to establish a QOL index were investigated by
Hornback
A charging hopper, gas cooling, and particulate removal are essential in the disposal of what types of wastes?
solid wastes
Stakeholder Focused Interactive Strategic planning is designed to locate common ground held by all stakeholders in the planning process.
TRUE
The topography of a subdivision lot usually determines the location of the well with respect to the sewage disposal system.
TRUE
The environmental impact statement
is a written description of legislative proposals and actions affecting the quality of the human environment
Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies ensures that public health and welfare are protected?
regulatory responsibilities
General obligation bonds
REF!
The assessment of stakeholders values, interests, and expectations can be used to evaluate the probability of success of a strategic plan.
TRUE
The Council on Environmental Quality requires ______ to submit an Environmental Quality Report to Congress.
the President
Planning and zoning regulations are based on
the rights of the government to exercise its police power to control the private use of land for public benefit
______ developed a set of guidelines to aid urban areas and cities assess the impacts of development actions.
HUD
The preferred method for water and sewerage service for a subdivision is to
extend existing water lines and community sewer lines
If an adequate, satisfactory, and safe water supply is not obtainable at a reasonable cost, the site should be
abandoned
If the air in a community contains 0.10 to 0.17 parts per million of sulfur oxide, it is considered to be ______ quality air.
moderate
A special engineering study is required for slopes with an incline greater than
8 percent
The turbidity of water to be treated by slow sand filtration should not exceed
25 NTU
If a sample of water contains 5,000 fecal coliform colonies per 100 ml of water, it is placed in which environmental impact category?
2
Poor health in a food handler exposes food to unacceptable risks of contamination; therefore, a physical exam should be required
none of the above
For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be cooked to
155 degrees F for 15 seconds
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states?
Oregon and Michigan
A yellow to brownish black stain taken during the sediment test
is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk
A healthy milk herd is expected to be free of which disease(s)?
REF!
When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ with a chlorine solution of ______ concentration.
120 degrees F, 25 mg/l
An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is
quarry tile
What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine?
15 seconds
The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the United States is estimated to be
$10 billion to $80 billion per year
At what time and temperature specifications does a sweetened milk product have to be pasteurized?
155 degrees F for 30 minutes
The ______ test shows the amount of extraneous material in milk but will not show dissolved material.
sediment
People at increase risk for listeriosis are
a. pregnant women, b. newborns
The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensue a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as the
IMS
Inspection report forms are primarily tools used to
assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy
Celery, a major source of salad contamination, has proven to be acceptable when
immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water
In order to protect against salmonellae growth in time/temperature control for safety / potentially hazardous food, the recommended temperature for storage is
41 degrees F
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become
a particular problem for produces and users of ground beef
Strong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because
shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever
Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must meet the requirements set forth by
NSSP
The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk is
0.5 ppb
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the
intestines of man and animals
Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by
an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7
The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is to
prevent foodborne illnesses
Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food?
REF!
Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ______ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish.
230
The contamination of milk with sediment is typically the result of which of the following?
improper cleaning of the cow
Which of the following is not a common refrigerant?
nitrogen oxide
The correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes is
scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry
As milk leaves the cow, it is approximately 96 degrees F to 100 degrees F. Prechilling of the milk helps:
to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F
Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within ______ of exposure in purified seawater.
12 to 24 hours
Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is a bacteria that currently
is difficult to test for
Floors in food processing plants, dairy plants, kitchens, and similar places should be sloped ______ toward each drain.
1/8 to 1/4 inch per foot
Routine and frequent inspections of food-processing and food-service establishments alone does not ensure that adequate levels of sanitation will be met. Inspections must be supplemented with
REF!
Salty flavors in milk may be due to the use of milk from cows infected with
mastitis
The racks in refrigerators or walk-in coolers must be ______ to allow circulation of cold air.
slotted
If the fat content of milk increases by ten percent or more, the pasteurizer temperature must be increase by
5 degrees F
The appropriate procedure used for bottle washing in large plants is
wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry
A certified industry inspection is an inspection
conducted by a certified member of the industry
An interior food service facility wall surface should not be constructed of
wallboard
Of the shellfish listed below, the ones most likely to cause illness are
oysters
Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to the bacteria:
Escherichia coli
Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment?
none of the above
Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than ______ at the end of the system.
170 degrees F for 5 minutes
Temperatures of ______ have been found satisfactory for the storage of refrigerated foods.
38 degrees F to 41 degrees F
Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of ______ is recommended on food work surfaces.
50-foot candles
Which state has a quarantine on mussels from May 1 to October 31?
California
After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below ______ so that
40 degrees F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase
In order to avoid pathogen growth and/or survival, food that is greater than ______ thick frozen or partially thawed should not be cooked.
4 inches
Milk is considered Ultra-High Temperature pasteurized if it reaches
212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 seconds
The amount of heat required to lower one pound of a product one degree Fahrenheit is
the specific heat
A mold control program should include all of the following factors except
spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound
When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria exam inations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by
a. methylene blue reduction test, b. resazurin test
Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of
70 degrees F to 98 degrees F
Many states rules requre the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F.
45 degrees F
Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in
10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F
Sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at a depth not greater than ______ to accelerate the rapid cooling of the food.
3 inches
In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of ______ degrees.
30
Which of the following is not a sign of bad fish?
elastic flesh
The final rinse water temperature for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be
180 degrees F
All meat and poultry plants must develop and implement a system of preventative controls known as
HACCP
The primary responsibility of food service management is
education and supervision of employees
Oysters, soft-shell and hard-shell clams, mussels, lobsters, crabs, and shrimp fall under what group?
shellfish
Oysters grow best in water with a salinity of
0.24 to 0.27
Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature?
6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees F
In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of
10-foot candles
Pasteurized milk quality is indicated by
a. direct microscopic count, coliform test, standard plate count, c. phosphatase test, taste and odor tests
Which bacteria can survive cooking to appropriate levels?
Clostridium perfringens
Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing?
REF!
Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment.
typhoid fever
Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following?
a. toxins , b. anthrax spores , c. pesticides
Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on
hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations
Proper facility lighting is essential for
REF!
E. coli 0157:H7 is often spread by
. a and b
Mussels from ______ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking.
REF!
Quality control of milk includes which of the following?
REF!
Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by ______ in the geometric center.
discoloration
Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food preparation areas?
increase air temperature
Common refrigerants include which of the following?
REF!
When direct consumption of shellfish might be hazardous due to radionuclide or industrial wastes pollution; the median coliform MPN of the water does not exceed 700 per 100 ml; and not more than 10 percent of samples exceed MPN of 2300 per 100 ml, an area is designated
restricted
Equipment can be disinfected by being in contact with a chlorine solution for at least
10 seconds
Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste?
combustibility
Land disposal by hazardous waste regulation includes
waste pile
Sources of dioxin include ______.
REF!
Funding for the collection, storage, and disposal of household hazardous waste always comes directly from the individuals who generate the waste.
FALSE
Domestic wastewater which passes through a sewer system to a POTW is not considered to be a ______.
a. solid waste, b. hazardous waste
Heating of air, gas, or gas mixture up to 9032 degrees F for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called
plasma technology
The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ______ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill.
99.9999 percent
Hazardous wastes include
none of the above
By definition under RCRA hazardous wastes are ______ wastes.
solid
Household hazardous waste is regulated like any other hazardous waste.
FALSE
Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the ______.
chlorinated hydrocarbons
A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens.
TRUE
Household hazardous waste is not exempt from DOT regulations when shipped to a disposal facility.
TRUE
The state or federal regulatory agency with jurisdiction should never be consulted when conducting a suitability audit of a waste disposal company.
FALSE
Hazardous wastes include ______ substances.
REF!
A permanent facility for collecting and storing household waste should be located away from residential areas and places of public gathering.
TRUE
High temperature incineration systems are most suitable to destroy
organic compounds
Which of the following is the least approprate option for hazardous waste minimization?
concentration
Hazardous waste is governed by the
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
Which of the following waste material is not classified as a California list waste that is banned from land disposal?
any solid waste
Well-placed, existing solid waste collection areas are good choices for household hazardous waste collection sites.
TRUE
The EPA requires that toxic waste incinerators achieve a destruction and removal rate of ______ before the material is landfilled.
99.99 percent
Wastes generated by the construction industry include
REF!
Examples of thermal destruction processes in addition to incineration are
cement kiln
Support of household hazardous waste management is an avenue for industries to paint themselves as community leaders and defenders of the environment.
TRUE
The regulatory level for total cresol under the RCRA Toxicity Characteristic rule is
200 mg/l
Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?
fuel blending
Hazardous wastes generated by vehicle maintenance shops include
REF!
Hazardous wastes may be in a ______ form.
REF!
Which of the following is not included in hazardous waste regulations?
domestic sewage
In many cases, x-ray beams or fluoroscopes will extend past the fluoroscopic screen and protective lead, thereby exposing the operator to the direct beam.
TRUE
It takes ______ half-lives to reduce the radioactivity of a radionuclide to about 1% of what it was when first measured.
7
In practice, exposure to all ionizing radiation is controlled by the use of shields of lead.
FALSE
A filter of 2 mm of aluminum will absorb the soft, or less penetrating, radiation.
TRUE
Neutrons are charged, high-energy particles.
FALSE
An unacceptable use of radiation is
fluoroscopy for the purpose of fitting shoes
The median lethal dose of radiation (at which about 50% of the persons exposed will probably die in one month) is considered to be
550 to 750 roentgens
The genetic harm done by radiation is not cumulative.
FALSE
Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds?
alpha particles
Carbon 14, a radioactive isotope of carbon, has a half-life of almost 6000 years.
TRUE
The term “rem” is short for
none of the above
Radiation could scatter and bounce off the
REF!
______ routinely sample air, water, and food supplies for radionuclides.
REF!
The term “rad” means
radiation absorbed dose
A CT scanner is a combination computer and x-ray machine.
FALSE
A state radiation protection program may involve control of
REF!
Medical uses can present a hazard to technicians, patients, and others through the improper handling of radionuclides and contaminated wastes.
TRUE
Alpha particles have a negative electric charge.
FALSE
R is the symbol used for the term “roentgen”.
TRUE
Which of the following are sources of radiation?
REF!
The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in
REF!
Medical personnel involved in radium therapy can become unnecessarily exposed during handling of the source needle.
TRUE
The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in
curies
Large doses of radiation can be applied to local areas, as in therapy, with little danger.
TRUE
Fluoroscopy exams should be done before x-rays.
FALSE
Background radiation cannot be eliminated.
TRUE
The effective half-life of an injected radionuclide is determined by the length of time the nuclide remains in the body and its radioactive half-life.
TRUE
The common types of radiation are
REF!
Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by
both glass or plastic and aluminum
Radioactive substances used in medicine are always sealed.
FALSE
Sources of x-rays that operate at a voltage above 10 kilovolts are less hazardous than sources less than 10 kV.
FALSE
When the whole body is irradiated, the most radiosensitive area(s) is (are)
REF!
The only difference between gamma rays, x-rays, and visible light is
their frequency
More information is known about effects of trace amounts of chemical carcinogens than radiation effects.
FALSE
Radon is an alpha emitter; daughter decay products are alpha, beta, and gamma emitters.
TRUE
Only sperm and nerve cells can apparently replace themselves or recover, to some extent, from radiation exposure if the dose is not excessive.
FALSE
A concentration of x-ray machines in one building will not affect scatter radiation.
FALSE
Microwaves are reflected by
metals
Isotopes of the same element have
the same atomic number but different mass numbers
What material has a high melting point, a high atomic number and is used as a target material to produce x-rays?
tungsten
Lead shielding devices are not necessary for chest or upright x-rays.
FALSE
Beta particles can be stopped by a few millimeters of aluminum.
TRUE
Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.
TRUE
Common deficiencies regarding therapy units may include filtration, exposure control, and calibration.
TRUE
One of the common types of ionizing radiation is the x-ray.
TRUE
The absorption of how many ergs (energy-per-gram) of air represents one roentgen?
about 86
Regarding emergency radiation exposure, the state has a responsibility to:
REF!
Neutrons can have
a. biological effects, b. the ability to make other substances radioactive
The FDA requires that sunlamps that radiate UV rays be equipped with timers which automatically shut off after
based on the intensity of the UV lamp
Microwave ovens that have magnetron tubes use electrical energy to generate
high frequency, short wave energy
Which of the following is not commonly associated with the term frequency?
particles
The dose or energy absorbed by an irradiated object is a function of both the kilovolt and the milliampere settings of the machine.
TRUE
Which of the following exposures should be considered in assessing radiation hazard?
REF!
If the radioactivity of a material is not known, the half-life cannot be determined.
FALSE
Long term effects of radiation on an individual are predictable.
FALSE
A principle(s) for effecting external radiation protection is (are)
REF!
If 5000 persons were exposed to a background radiation of 0.1 rem per year, this would represent a person-rem exposure of 500.
TRUE
Which term is used to describe the exposure of large populations to ionizing radiation?
person-rem
______ has the responsibility for internal housekeeping and for monitoring all waste discharges in terms of types and quantities.
Industry
A thin sheet of paper will stop a beta particle.
FALSE
The term “rem” does not take into consideration the biological effect of different kinds of radiation from the same dose in rads.
FALSE
Many defects in x-ray units are easy to find and need no instruments.
TRUE
Everyone is subject to natural background radiation.
TRUE
An ordinary chest x-ray produces an exposure of about 0.1 rad; a very heavy diagnostic series, about 10 rads.
TRUE
Factors that could determine the effect of radiation on the body include
REF!
Gamma rays come from the nucleus of an atom; x-rays come from the electrons around the nucleus and are produced by electron bombardment.
TRUE
Biological effects of radiation on all living organisms, including human beings, are termed somatic or genetic.
TRUE
The Department of Energy regulations require solidification of high-level radioactive wastes within ______ of their production.
5 years
Filters will
reduce stray radiation
To produce thermal effects, microwave energy is converted to ______ in the body or organism.
heat
The best control of swimmer’s itch at a bathing beach is to
add copper sulfate
The addition of sodium bicarbonate is usually used to
raise the alkalinity
Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of
a. NTU, b. Secchi disk readings
An operating free chlorine residual of ______ is usually required in practice.
1.0 to 3.0 mg/l
The formula (Volume of Pool / Pump Flow Rate (GPM) x 60 min) = turnover rate, will tell us .
the number of hours it takes for the entire contents of the pool to pass through the filters
The minimum recommended depth of water under a 1 meter board (1 meter high) is
10 feet
Many of the problems associated with migrant labor camps are related to
REF!
The generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health perspective is a
fill and draw pool
A vehicle built on a chassis and having a body of not more than 8-feet wide and 32-feet long designed for travel, recreation, and vacation use is
travel trailer
One of the ways to recognize a well designed and properly operated pool is when you find the water at the time of inspection to be
crystal clear, with the proper level of approved disinfectant, and a PH level of 7.4
To raise the pH, add
sodium carbonate
In large pools with outlets more than 5 feet from the end wall, pool inlets should be located
every 20 feet
Improper use of chemicals or improperly balanced pool or beach water may cause the spread of infectious disease due to
REF!
The molecular state of hypochlorous acid is the desired product from chlorination of pool waters. This product
is 62 percent molecular at a pH of 7.2
The pool must be designed
to fit the expected numbers of swimmers
Gas chlorine is considered
100 percent available chlorine
Pool inlets should be located a minimum of 10 inches to 15 inches below the water line to
prevent loss of disinfectant
The acidity-alkalinity balance affects eye irritation, water coagulation and the
effectiveness of chlorine
To mix acid and water, always
add acid to water
It is essential that all public pools
run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day
Chemicals that have been used for pool disinfection include chlorine, chlorinated cyanurates, bromine and
iodine
The connection between the pool drain and the sanitary sewer must
have a properly located cleanout
Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than do non-swimmers
regardless of bathing water quality
The main drain should have a grate that is ______ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects.
four times
A pH between _____ and _____ is optimal PH control for eye irritation, but is not optimal for chlorine effectiveness.
7.5 - 7.6
A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water every ______.
6 to 8 hours
The assemblage of large numbers of people in a limited area requires that certain minimum facilities be provided. Some guidelines to assist in the preparation for mass gatherings include
REF!
When chlorine is added to water
HOCl is considered the primary product
Swimmers itch is also known as
schistosomiasis
One study of basic sanitation and migrant farm workers found that migrants who did not have access to water and sanitation facilities in the field had a clinic utilization rate for diarrhea
20 times that of urban poor
The rate of filtration should be ______ for a diatomite filter.
1 to 2 gpm/ft2
A chemical commonly used to improve water clarity is
alum
The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of
on-board holding tanks
The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools
pseudomonas aeruginosa
A pH ______ is probably optimal for minimal eye irritation along with maintenance of effective residual chlorine.
7.5 to 7.6
The backwash rate for both conventional, rapid and high rate sand filters is
15 gpm/ft2
The recommended and most effective method of maintaining pool water quality is
continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration
Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every
1 to 2 hours
The ideal pH range for swimming pools is
7.2 to 7.6
It has been found that pools less than 30 feet wide with a surface area less than 1600 ft2
may utilize skimmers instead of gutters
Dead animals are best disposed in
a. an incinerator or rendering plant, b. a separate area of sanitary landfill
Which of the following is (are) true about composting?
b. it may come from the organic fraction of municipal solid waste, c. it results in a poor fertilizer
After a landfill site is closed, it should be covered with at least ______ of compacted soil having a low permeability, graded to shed rainwater, melting snow, and surface water.
2 feet
Which of the following is not recommended for a refuse storage area?
uncovered base
In the rectangular furnace, the grates are arranged in
tiers
Additional fuel is needed to incinerate refuse
a. with 30 percent or less rubbish, b. with 50 percent or more moisture
The three essentials for combustion in an incinerator are
time, temperature, and turbulence
The direction of operation of a sanitary landfill should be
with the prevailing wind
______ reduces the final volume of wastes.
a. compaction, b. maceration
The valley or ravine landfill method utilizes “lifts” from the bottom up with depths usually of
8 to 10 feet
The wastewater generated from washing out refuse bins and containers
a. can be disposed of with the garbage, b. must pass through a grease trap before entering a sewerage system, c. should not be allowed to run onto the surface of the ground
Large items that are not recyclable should be
b and c
In order to determine the depth at which a sanitary landfill can be operated, which of the following must be determined?
REF!
Compression or shredding of bulky objects before landfilling them will
REF!
Which of the following is true about garbage stands?
garbage stands should be convenient to the kitchen, in an airy shaded location
Oil that has had a physical and chemical impurities removed and that by itself or when blended with new oil or additives, is substantially equivalent or superior to new oil intended for the same purposes, is called
re-refined oil
The dumping of garbage and other refuse at sea in the United States is
prohibited
The transfer station should be located ______ of the collection service area.
in the center
One piece of refuse-compaction and earth-moving equipment is needed at the landfill site for approximately each
80 loads per day
The temperature of the gases leaving the furnace is reduced by
REF!
Before trying to convert an “open dump” into a sanitary landfill, you must first
b. institute a rat-poisoning program 2 weeks before conversion, c. develop a plan of operation, supervision, maintenance, and a drawing showing your proposed plans
Methane in the presence of air is explosive at concentrations between
5 and 15 percent
The normal economical hauling distance to a refuse disposal site is usually between
10 to 15 miles
Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start
at the point of generation
Collection cost is about ______ of the total cost of solid waste management.
50%-70%
The spread of ______ is (are) encouraged when uncooked garbage is fed to hogs
REF!
Depending on the size of the community, there should be a minimum of one man at a landfill site and ______ men per 1000 yd3 of waste dumped per day that the site is open.
six
When considering a site for a sanitary landfill, both county and regional-wide planning and administration of the site should be considered because
REF!
The goal for management of hazardous waste should be
zero discharge
Which of the following allows for 95 percent or more volume reduction of municipal solid wastes?
b. pyrolysis, c. high-temperature incineration
What does RCRA stand for?
Resource Conservation and Recovery Act
The average amount of solid waste generated, collected, and disposed of from a particular area is dependent on many local factors such as
REF!
The furnace temperature and burning rates of an incinerator can be controlled by adjusting
REF!
Systems used for treatment and disposal of animal wastes include
REF!
Incinerators are rated in terms of
tons of burnable waste per day
The best sanitary landfill method for an area with rolling terrain is the
area or ramp method
Added moisture used in maceration ______ the handling and haul costs of solid waste
increases
The commonly acceptable refuse disposal and treatment methods are
composting, recylcing, incineration, and sanitary landfilling
The amount of residue left after incineration is approximately
10 to 15 percent of the original volume
______ can be recovered from refuse by burning it in a refractory lined incinerator or water-wall incinerator.
energy
The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of
garbage disposal
The most suitable soil for cover material at a landfill site is one that is
easily worked and minimizes infiltration
The National Safety council reported that solid waste collection workers have an injury frequency approximately ______ times the national average for all industry.
ten
Volume reduction can be achieved by
REF!
A county or regional landfill should provide enough area for a ______ period of operation.
20- to 40-year
Which of the following is not one of the four characteristics of hazardous wastes as defined by the Environmental Protection Agency?
radioactivity
A landfill site should not
be inaccessible during bad weather conditions
The best way to control deep fires in a sanitary landfill is to
separate the burning refuse and dig a fire brake around the burning refuse
The Consumer Product Safety Commission requires that refuse bins or containers must be able to withstand a hanging weight or force of ______ pounds and a horizontal force of ______ pounds without overturning, with the force applied where tipping of the bin is not likely.
191; 70
The EPA believes that only ______ of the waste stream can be recovered economically.
56 percent
Acidic conditions ______ the growth of methane-producing bacteria.
inhibit
High-density compaction of solid wastes is accomplished by compression to a density of more than ______.
66.5/lb ft3
The second step of the combustion process in an incinerator requires a high temperature of at least
1500 to 1800 degrees F
The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) of 1976
regulates the production and use of chemical substances that may present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or environment
A properly designed and controlled incinerator is satisfactory for burning combustible refuse as long as
air pollution standards can be met
A relatively porous landfill earth cover will permit
a. the escape of gases, b. greater infiltration and leachate production
According to the United States Environmental Protection Agency, solid waste does NOT include
REF!
Shredding reduces the volume of wastes to about ______ or less of the original bulk.
40 percent
A dragline may be used at a landfill site for
REF!
