1-500 Flashcards

1
Q

Question

A

Answer

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2
Q

An action authorized by law to restrict or prevent the movement of goods for the protection of public health, safety and welfare is called

A

an embargo

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3
Q

Field observations are not always reported in total because

A

the significance of the data is not understood

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4
Q

In preparing a legal action, one of the first steps a sanitarian should do is to

A

keep very accurate records

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5
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding an inspection efficiency rating?

A

the numerical rating obtained per year is less important as the relative change from year to year

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6
Q

When a health violation is classified as a misdemeanor, it can be more readily resolved by ______.

A

civil action

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7
Q

Which of the following is the most critical step needed before detailed information is collected?

A

determining how the information will be used

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8
Q

Which of the following is the most effective technique for ceasing operation of a noncomplying establishment?

A

a. a mandatory injunction, b. revoking a license, c. an injunction

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9
Q

An administrative process of measuring and analyzing results in relation to specific goals, objectives, aims or targets is

A

evaluation

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10
Q

On-the-job education should start with planned, routine, intensive in-service training of

A

all field and office personnel

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11
Q

All of the following describe objectives used in environmental quality planning except

A

non-measurable

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12
Q

Self-imposed health risk factors include

A

a. exposure to sunlight, b. diet, c. smoking

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13
Q

Legal proceedings to enforce a law may include

A

a. issuance of an order to eliminate a violation, b. suspension of a permit, c. civil sanctions

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14
Q

In an environmental control statistical report for program, the “total man-days expended” will

A

show the type and amount of manpower allocated to each of the program activities

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15
Q

Which type of inspection would be conducted prior to legal action?

A

reinspection

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16
Q

In order to perform an evaluation, the data collected must be reliable. Which of the following is not a definitive characteristic of reliability?

A

easy to obtain

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17
Q

The changing role of environmental health scientists, including their duties of administrating services to the public, has been brought about largely due to

A

public recognition of the problems and the desire for higher quality of life

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18
Q

Standards must be scientifically supported, understandable, measurable and

A

enforceable

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19
Q

The terms “goals” and “objectives” are sometimes used interchangeably; however, objectives should be considered as

A

the realistically attainable ends

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20
Q

Letter and report writing are effective means of acquainting ______ with the diversity and complexity of a facility’s problems.

A

establishment owners

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21
Q

The agencies general administrative plan provides the basis for

A

an administrative warrant

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22
Q

Inspections of nonpublic areas can be made by consent of the owner or occupant and

A

on the basis of a general administrative plan

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23
Q

The statement of goals and objectives should recognize environmental quality and community needs such as

A

a. clean air, b. clean food service establishments, c. decent housing

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24
Q

A standard for dishwashing that states that the “total bacteria count should not exceed one hundred per utensil surface,” is an example of what type of objective?

A

performance

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25
Q

A well developed ______ activity report can serve practically all the reporting needs of an organization for statistical purposes.

A

daily

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26
Q

To have a successful environmental control service, the retention of competent personnel is a primary concern. Which of the following is (are) required to retain competent personnel?

A

a. adequate salaries, b. pleasant, stimulating working conditions, c. a dynamic and challenging program

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27
Q

The number of inspections divided by the number of workdays should equal which of the following?

A

average number of inspections per workday

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28
Q

Since competent direction is essential to a divisional program’s effectiveness, it is important to offer

A

none of the above

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29
Q

From a legal standpoint, which of the following is true regarding enforcement of standards?

A

a specification-type standard is easier to enforce than a performance standard

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30
Q

The effectiveness of an inspection program depends on technical competence and the ______ of regulatory staff.

A

attitude

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31
Q

A program plan should be developed for each of the program activities. This plan should list which of the following criteria for each activity?

A

a. work load and methods to meet program objectives and financing, b. resource requirements, goals and objectives, c. need for the program, evaluation, and law

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32
Q

The precise levels at which specific air pollutants become a health hazard are relatively easy to establish by existing surveillance systems.

A

FALSE

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33
Q

Particulates larger than 10 microns can penetrate easily into the respiratory tract.

A

FALSE

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34
Q

It is possible to control noise

A

a. at the source, b. in its path of transmission, c. where it is received

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35
Q

Fluorocarbons in the atmosphere are of concern because they may

A

a. react with the ozone in the upper atmosphere, thus reducing the total amount of ozone available, b. cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth, c. cause an increase in skin cancers and changes in our climate, animal, and plant life

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36
Q

The terms “washout” and “rainout” both refer to a cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere.

A

TRUE

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37
Q

A ______ is a dimensionless unit to express physical intensity or sound pressure levels.

A

decibel

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38
Q

The frequency of a sound determines its pitch.

A

TRUE

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39
Q

When two pollutants are combined, the effects are greater than the sum of the individual effects. This is called

A

synergism

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40
Q

Scrubbers are wet collectors generally used to remove particles that form as a

A

fog, mist, or dust

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41
Q

Precipitation accomplishes an effective cleansing process of pollutants in the atmosphere by

A

a. accumulation of small particles in the formation of raindrops or snowflakes in clouds, b. the washing out of scavenging of large particles by falling raindrops or snowflakes, c. removal of gaseous pollutants by dissolution and absorption

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42
Q

A deterioration in the ozone layer of the stratosphere can cause an increase in ultraviolet radiation reaching the earth.

A

TRUE

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43
Q

The unit of measurement most commonly used to measure loudness is called

A

phon

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44
Q

Sound absorbing materials absorb low frequency sounds much more effectively than high frequency sounds.

A

FALSE

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45
Q

Air pollution control should first be considered at the

A

source

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46
Q

If 10 decibels is 10 times more intense than one decibel, how many times more intense is 20 decibels than one decibel?

A

100

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47
Q

The Montreal Protocol categorizes ______ and ______ in two classes based on their ozone-depiction potential.

A

CO2 and PAN

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48
Q

Glazing, silvering, or bronzing on the underside of a leaf is evidence that injury has occurred by

A

peroxyacyl nitrates

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49
Q

The meteorological elements that have the most direct and significant effects on the distribution of air pollutants are

A

a. solar radiation, b. wind speed and direction, c. precipitation and stability

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50
Q

Turbulence is the wind characteristic that is

A

the most effective mechanism for the dispersion or dilution of a cloud or plume of pollutants

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51
Q

Some specific measures that can be used to reduce the effect of highway noise include

A

a. setting lower speed limits for certain sections of a highway, b. establishing alternate truck routes, c. enclosure of highways going through residential areas

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52
Q

For a pure tone (single frequency) to be produced, there must be a one-to-one correspondence between

A

loudness and intensity

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53
Q

______ have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation.

A

fluorides

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54
Q

Air is vital to existence. In fact, humans breathe in a day’s time an average of

A

35 pounds of air

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55
Q

Stability of the atmosphere

A

a. is the ability to enhance or suppress vertical air motions - b. is largely determined by the vertical temperature profile

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56
Q

In what part of the earth’s atmosphere are photochemical oxidants produced?

A

troposphere

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57
Q

Sources of pollutants can generally be classified as

A

a. line sources, b. area sources, c. point sources

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58
Q

Which of the following items are not natural topographic features?

A

canals

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59
Q

A particle count of above ______ is said to be representative of an urban area

A

50,000

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60
Q

Street dust would be considered what type of pollution?

A

fugitive pollutant

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61
Q

Ozone can be formed by the action of sunlight on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons.

A

TRUE

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62
Q

What type of air pollution causes bleaching of leaves in plants?

A

sulfur dioxide

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63
Q

______ can be formed as a result of the sun’s action on nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons

A

ozone

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64
Q

The ratio of the energy passing through a wall, floor, or ceiling to the energy striking it is called

A

sound transmission loss

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65
Q

Long-term wind data of a given location are presented graphically in the form of a

A

wind rose

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66
Q

Transportation is the largest source of air pollution.

A

TRUE

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67
Q

The amount of sound energy a material can absorb is a function of its absorption coefficient at a specified frequency.

A

TRUE

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68
Q

Which of the following types of materials are known to reflect sound?

A

rubber tiles

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69
Q

Continuous exposure to high-level noise is less harmful than intermittent or occasional exposure.

A

FALSE

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70
Q

Dry cotton ear plugs are just as effective against noise control as expensive fitted ear plugs and earmuffs.

A

FALSE

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71
Q

The accumulation or increased concentration of a continuously emitted pollutant is

A

inversely proportional to wind speed

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72
Q

A hammering type noise often heard in a plumbing system is usually due to

A

a quick-closing valve requiring installation of an air chamber

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73
Q

In the United States, the Ringlemann smoke chart consists of how many rectangular charts?

A

four

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74
Q

A primary pollutant is one that is formed in the atmosphere as a result of chemical reactions.

A

FALSE

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75
Q

Individuals react differently to noise depending on age, sex, and socioeconomic background.

A

TRUE

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76
Q

Air pollution is the presence of ______ in the outside air in amounts that are injurious or detrimental to humans, animals, plants, or property.

A

a. solids, b. gases, c. liquids

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77
Q

Stack samples must be collected at the same speed of flow that gases normally pass through the stack.

A

TRUE

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78
Q

The ______ of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation.

A

intensity

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79
Q

The normal change in temperature with altitude is

A

noted as a decrease due to expansion and thus adiabatic cooling of air

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80
Q

The Safe Alternatives Policy program

A

specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances

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81
Q

Ozone reduces the useful life of all of the following except

A

nylon

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82
Q

Halon-1211 is used primarily in ______.

A

portable fire extinguishers

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83
Q

Air pollutants may be in the form of microorganisms.

A

TRUE

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84
Q

Areas on the windward side of mountain ranges can expect less precipitation due to the forced rising, expansion, and cooling of moving air masses.

A

FALSE

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85
Q

The most common type of noise measurement device used for initial surveys to provide rapid evaluation and identification of potential problem areas is the

A

sound level meter

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86
Q

The first Federal standards for occupational exposure to noise were issued by

A

the Department of Labor

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87
Q

The concentration resulting from a continuous emission of a pollutant is directly proportional to wind speed.

A

FALSE

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88
Q

A primary pollutant is

A

one that is found in the atmosphere in the same form as it exists

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89
Q

______ involves the chemistry, physics, and dynamics of the atmosphere and includes many direct effects of the atmosphere on the earth’s surface, ocean, and life.

A

meteorology

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90
Q

The effects of air pollution are influenced by

A

a. wind speed, and direction,b. sunlight, c. precipitation

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91
Q

Which of the following are not major sources of sulfur dioxide pollution?

A

electrical substations

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92
Q

In general terms, it is safe to assume that any two identical sound levels will have the effect of increasing the overall level by 10 dB.

A

FALSE

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93
Q

Halon-1301 is used primarily in ______.

A

fixed fire suppression systems

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94
Q

Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch.

A

TRUE

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95
Q

The major factors related to hearing loss are

A

a. time duration of exposure and repeated impact, b. intensity of sound waves, c. frequency content of sound

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96
Q

Which of the following is not a malodorous gas?

A

carbon monoxide

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97
Q

Impurities in combustible hydrocarbons (coal and oil) combine with oxygen to produce ______ when burned.

A

sulfur dioxide

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98
Q

The speed with which sound travels through a particular medium is dependent on

A

the compressibility and density of the medium

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99
Q

______ is considered to be the least damaging to the stratospheric ozone layer.

A

HCFCs

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100
Q

Which of the following is not a primary pollutant?

A

sulfuric acid

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101
Q

Almost all sound contains multiple frequencies.

A

TRUE

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102
Q

In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with

A

skunks

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103
Q

The gains in life expectancy between 1900 (48 years) and 1974 (72 years) have occurred mostly in the early years and are due to

A

a. sanitation, b. nutrition, c. chemotherapy

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104
Q

It is believed that the ingestion of one virus particle can cause infection in humans.

A

TRUE

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105
Q

Onchocerciasis is a rare illness found in some third world countries.

A

FALSE

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106
Q

An illness due to a specific infectious agent or its toxic product which is transmitted from a reservoir to a susceptible host either directly or indirectly is called

A

a communicable disease

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107
Q

The cancer rate is roughly 72% higher for inner-city people than the level for suburbanites.

A

FALSE

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108
Q

There is a scientific consensus that further increases in life expectancy are dependent on the extent to which

A

b and c above

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109
Q

A disease transmitted by birds and bird droppings is

A

psittacosis

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110
Q

Food poisoning from Staphylococcus aureus can be prevented by thoroughly cooking foods that have been properly handled and then through appropriate time temperature control of the finished product.

A

TRUE

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111
Q

An analysis by Dever indicated that environmental factors were considered to be the cause of 49% of all deaths due to accidents, 20% of the influenza and pneumonia deaths, 41% of the homicides, and 15% of the deaths due to birth injuries and other diseases peculiar to early infancy.

A

TRUE

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112
Q

Between 26 B.C. and 395 A.D., the average life expectancy was

A

24 years

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113
Q

The killing of an infectious agent outside the body by chemical or physical means is termed

A

disinfection

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114
Q

House mice may carry the disease lymphocytic choriomeningitis.

A

TRUE

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115
Q

Tularemia is often transmitted to humans by handling rodents, rabbits, and muskrats.

A

TRUE

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116
Q

Ascaris ova may survive up to 7 hours in moist, warm soil.

A

FALSE

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117
Q

Some of the prime sources of Giardia lamblia cysts are humans, beavers, muskrats, and domestic animals.

A

TRUE

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118
Q

Marsh miasma is another name for the disease known as Legionella.

A

FALSE

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119
Q

Schistosomiasis is

A

a water contact disease

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120
Q

Rats are one of the seven animals most likely to carry rabies.

A

FALSE

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121
Q

The most effective means of control of bats is to “build them out.”

A

TRUE

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122
Q

Toxins that attack nerves are referred to as enterotoxin.

A

FALSE

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123
Q

The four major causes of death among all age groups of Americans include all of the following except

A

homicide

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124
Q

Coliform, on soil surfaces, may survive up to 38 days.

A

TRUE

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125
Q

The term “endemic” means

A

constant presence of an illness

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126
Q

The prevention of deaths from a particular disease increases the overall life expectancy in direct proportion to its decreased mortality.

A

FALSE

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127
Q

Urine is usually sterile, except for urinary schistosomiasis, typhoid, and leptospirosis carriers.

A

TRUE

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128
Q

The amelioration of a disease to reduce disability or dependence resulting from it is termed

A

tertiary prevention

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129
Q

Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals produced by

A

fungi

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130
Q

The prevention of respiratory diseases in “vulnerable” individuals is to

A

a. protect people from the source, b. eliminate routes of transmission, c. reduce presence of susceptible individuals

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131
Q

Life expectancy is a measure of health progress, morbidity levels, and the quality of life.

A

FALSE

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132
Q

Soil moisture of about 30% to 45% of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens.

A

FALSE

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133
Q

A water or foodborne disease outbreak with a short incubation period is likely because of

A

chemical poisoning

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134
Q

It is estimated that approximately 1/3 of water and foodborne diseases are reported.

A

TRUE

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135
Q

Rocky Mountain spotted fever is spread by

A

ticks

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136
Q

The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except

A

use of antibiotics

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137
Q

The study of the occurrence, frequency, and distribution of disease is

A

epidemiology

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138
Q

The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called the

A

incubation period

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139
Q

The disease caused by Legionella pneumophila was found to originate in the toilet tanks in older hotels.

A

FALSE

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140
Q

A vaccinated dog or cat bitten by or exposed to a rabid animal should be confined for 4 months or destroyed.

A

FALSE

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141
Q

Observations and cost-effective analyses have shown that good housing and sanitation are far more effective measures for the control of cholera, typhoid, and similar diseases than is immunization.

A

TRUE

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142
Q

Public awareness demands a quality of environment that provides fundamental needs such as which of the following?

A

a. pure water, clean air, pure food, b. decent housing, c. safe recreational facilities

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143
Q

Which of the following factors is not considered in of need of control by the WHO health goal?

A

achievement of individual wealth

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144
Q

The Overseas Development Council has created a Physical Quality of Life Index by combining assessments of

A

literacy rates, life expectancy and infant mortality rates

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145
Q

Strategic planning is a tool that helps organizations

A

a. decide where they want to be in the future, b. locate where they are now, c. plan how to get to the desired state in the future

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146
Q

The most important factor leading to the abandonment of a site is related to

A

an adequate, safe water supply

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147
Q

A comprehensive solid waste study must include

A

preliminary analysis for solid waste treatment and disposal

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148
Q

What led to the formation of the NEPA?

A

a. public concern over environmental pollution, b. scientific support, c. professional prodding and support

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149
Q

Most of the funding for municipal capital improvement is provided by

A

revenue bonds and general obligation bonds

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150
Q

Which one of the following would be considered primary gain for moving from the city into a suburban area?

A

lower taxes

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151
Q

An “environmental assessment” developed under NEPA is

A

a concise public document for which a Federal agency is responsible

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152
Q

Adequate highways, land-use controls, park and recreation facilities, water, sewers, solid waste disposal, and other services necessary for proper community functions are usually designed within the context of a ______ plan.

A

regional

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153
Q

The purpose of the National Environmental Policy Act is to

A

a. encourage productive and enjoyable interaction between human and the environment, b. encourage measures that prevent or eliminate damage to the environment, c. encourage greater understanding of the environment

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154
Q

What is the smallest practical planning unit involved in regional planning?

A

the county

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155
Q

The process of comprehensive community planning includes all of the following except

A

surrounding area politics

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156
Q

Which of the following is not a recommendation for topography and site survey?

A

water supply source that is fast moving

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157
Q

For every 1,000 new people, a community will require all of the following except

A

an additional supply of 10 to 30 million gallons of water per year

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158
Q

______ assists in economic growth by increasing personal income, retail sales, and bank deposits.

A

industry

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159
Q

When developing a preliminary or feasibility report, which of the following steps would generally not be included?

A

construction plans

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160
Q

The ______ in many cities has been leveling off, but has been increasing in the suburbs.

A

rate of population growth

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161
Q

Revenue bonds are usually repaid by

A

specific sources of revenue (such as water charges)

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162
Q

The term “Federal agency” does not include which of the following

A

the executive office

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163
Q

A comprehensive water supply study must include

A

alternative sources of water

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164
Q

One method of financing for a municipal capital improvement is by revenue bonds which in turn are paid by

A

persons receiving the service

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165
Q

A GAP analysis is

A

an analysis of the distance between the current state and the future state

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166
Q

A SWOT analysis is

A

none of the above

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167
Q

When a suitable site is being selected for a particular purpose, which of the following must be known before any property is investigated?

A

REF!

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168
Q

Comprehensive community planning includes which of the following steps?

A

REF!

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169
Q

The agency that developed guidelines to assist urban areas and cities assess the environmental impact of housing and urban development was

A

the U.S. Department of Housing and Urban Development

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170
Q

An EIS is required by ______, when the EA indicates significant impact to the Environment.

A

NEPA

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171
Q

Communities that desire to maintain the character of the community without overtaxing its members should

A

a. develop zoning regulations, c. encourage the development of vacant land served by existing public services

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172
Q

Federal air quality standards for sulfur oxides in parts per million is

A

0.03

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173
Q

A planning board’s enforcement tools include

A

REF!

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174
Q

The EPA stream water quality rate for fecal coliform is

A

200 colonies per 100 ml

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175
Q

The generally accepted method(s) of preventing subdivision complications and obtaining orderly community growth is (are)

A

comprehensive land-use planning

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176
Q

In research and problem identification, the evaluation of the community contains all the following except

A

special planning studies

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177
Q

The purpose of public information and community action is which of the following?

A

REF!

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178
Q

Plan implementation involves capital improvement programs and financing plans.

A

TRUE

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179
Q

An environmental impact statement should contain all of the following except

A

probable adverse environmental effects which can be avoided

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180
Q

A QOL index is useful in determining future demands made on water supplies in subdivisions.

A

FALSE

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181
Q

Actions which do not individually or cumulatively have a significant effect on the human environment are categorically defined as

A

categorical exclusion

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182
Q

The Council on Environmental Quality was established by

A

Title II of NEPA

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183
Q

A “vision” is a term used in strategic planning to represent the

A

REF!

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184
Q

Every 1,000 new people in a community will require 1,000,000 extra gallons of water per year.

A

FALSE

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185
Q

Financing for municipal capital improvements is generally done by revenue bonds or general obligation bonds.

A

TRUE

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186
Q

A project study is another term for Acomprehensive regional planning.@

A

FALSE

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187
Q

In the quality of life index, the economic environment includes all of the following except

A

material quality

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188
Q

General overall policy planning includes all of the following except

A

detailed engineering and specific architectural project plans

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189
Q

Comprehensive community planning attempts to take an overall look at the total region.

A

TRUE

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190
Q

Subdivision plans involving individual wells and sewage disposal systems

A

must be adapted to the topography and geological formations existing

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191
Q

The National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA) of 1969 made it the responsibility of the Federal Government to use all practical means to coordinate ______ to encourage harmony between man and his/her environment.

A

REF!

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192
Q

Due to political boundaries, the costs of implementing services for community functions are best handled by

A

metropolitan regions

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193
Q

The nitrogen dioxide below ______ ppm does not pose a health problem.

A

0.05

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194
Q

______ was responsible for preparing a circular to help determine “the probable impact of the proposed action on the environment.”

A

Leopold

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195
Q

The selection of a site for a public building often requires improvements. An undesirable feature that can often be remediated for public health reasons concerns is

A

a low swampy area

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196
Q

Comprehensive planning includes

A

REF!

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197
Q

The amount of debt a municipality may incur is usually determined by

A

the constitution or laws of a state

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198
Q

The EPA stream quality indicator for dissolved oxygen in stream water is

A

6 mg per liter

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199
Q

General obligation bonds used for financing municipal capital improvement are repaid by

A

real property tax

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200
Q

To determine the resources on a section of property, one should seek the assistance of a person who is experienced and familiar with

A

a. geology and wildlife - b. forestry and engineering

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201
Q

A certificate of compliance is issued by the ______ when a system is properly installed.

A

health department

202
Q

Haphazard development can be controlled by comprehensive local and regional planning if

A

broad public powers and regulatory authority are provided

203
Q

An outline of a regional or area-wide planning study and report includes which of the following elements?

A

REF!

204
Q

A city, village, or town may adopt a local sewage and waste ordinance as part of its ______ depending on its availability and effectiveness.

A

REF!

205
Q

Several proposals to establish a QOL index were investigated by

A

Hornback

206
Q

A charging hopper, gas cooling, and particulate removal are essential in the disposal of what types of wastes?

A

solid wastes

207
Q

Stakeholder Focused Interactive Strategic planning is designed to locate common ground held by all stakeholders in the planning process.

A

TRUE

208
Q

The topography of a subdivision lot usually determines the location of the well with respect to the sewage disposal system.

A

TRUE

209
Q

The environmental impact statement

A

is a written description of legislative proposals and actions affecting the quality of the human environment

210
Q

Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies ensures that public health and welfare are protected?

A

regulatory responsibilities

211
Q

General obligation bonds

A

REF!

212
Q

The assessment of stakeholders values, interests, and expectations can be used to evaluate the probability of success of a strategic plan.

A

TRUE

213
Q

The Council on Environmental Quality requires ______ to submit an Environmental Quality Report to Congress.

A

the President

214
Q

Planning and zoning regulations are based on

A

the rights of the government to exercise its police power to control the private use of land for public benefit

215
Q

______ developed a set of guidelines to aid urban areas and cities assess the impacts of development actions.

A

HUD

216
Q

The preferred method for water and sewerage service for a subdivision is to

A

extend existing water lines and community sewer lines

217
Q

If an adequate, satisfactory, and safe water supply is not obtainable at a reasonable cost, the site should be

A

abandoned

218
Q

If the air in a community contains 0.10 to 0.17 parts per million of sulfur oxide, it is considered to be ______ quality air.

A

moderate

219
Q

A special engineering study is required for slopes with an incline greater than

A

8 percent

220
Q

The turbidity of water to be treated by slow sand filtration should not exceed

A

25 NTU

221
Q

If a sample of water contains 5,000 fecal coliform colonies per 100 ml of water, it is placed in which environmental impact category?

A

2

222
Q

Poor health in a food handler exposes food to unacceptable risks of contamination; therefore, a physical exam should be required

A

none of the above

223
Q

For custard-filled pies to be considered safe, they should be cooked to

A

155 degrees F for 15 seconds

224
Q

Escherichia coli 0157:H7 was first identified as a pathogen during the investigation of two outbreaks in what two states?

A

Oregon and Michigan

225
Q

A yellow to brownish black stain taken during the sediment test

A

is a simple visual indication of the amount of dirt and abnormal substances in the milk

226
Q

A healthy milk herd is expected to be free of which disease(s)?

A

REF!

227
Q

When disinfecting valves and other parts of equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ with a chlorine solution of ______ concentration.

A

120 degrees F, 25 mg/l

228
Q

An ideal floor covering for a kitchen is

A

quarry tile

229
Q

What is the minimum period of wash time for a single-tank conveyer dishwashing machine?

A

15 seconds

230
Q

The annual cost attributable to foodborne illnesses in the United States is estimated to be

A

$10 billion to $80 billion per year

231
Q

At what time and temperature specifications does a sweetened milk product have to be pasteurized?

A

155 degrees F for 30 minutes

232
Q

The ______ test shows the amount of extraneous material in milk but will not show dissolved material.

A

sediment

233
Q

People at increase risk for listeriosis are

A

a. pregnant women, b. newborns

234
Q

The voluntary federal-state program designed to ensue a safe and clean milk supply is commonly referred to as the

A

IMS

235
Q

Inspection report forms are primarily tools used to

A

assure complete investigations and compliance with uniform policy

236
Q

Celery, a major source of salad contamination, has proven to be acceptable when

A

immersed in boiling water for thirty seconds, then chilled under running tap water

237
Q

In order to protect against salmonellae growth in time/temperature control for safety / potentially hazardous food, the recommended temperature for storage is

A

41 degrees F

238
Q

Escherichia coli 0157:H7 has become

A

a particular problem for produces and users of ground beef

239
Q

Strong emphasis is placed on the control of shellfish because

A

shellfish can transmit a number of infectious diseases such as dysentery, infectious hepatitis, cholera, and typhoid fever

240
Q

Dealers involved in interstate shipment and control of shellfish must meet the requirements set forth by

A

NSSP

241
Q

The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk is

A

0.5 ppb

242
Q

Escherichia coli 0157:H7 can be found thriving in the

A

intestines of man and animals

243
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by

A

an infection with Escherichia coli 0157:H7

244
Q

The major reason for the regulation of food establishments is to

A

prevent foodborne illnesses

245
Q

Which of the following factors slow(s) down biological activity and preserve(s) food?

A

REF!

246
Q

Oyster-shell stock or shucked oysters sampled at the source should not have MPNB of ______ or more fecal coliform per 100 grams of shellfish.

A

230

247
Q

The contamination of milk with sediment is typically the result of which of the following?

A

improper cleaning of the cow

248
Q

Which of the following is not a common refrigerant?

A

nitrogen oxide

249
Q

The correct order of sequence for hand washing dishes is

A

scrape, wash, rinse, sanitize, air dry

250
Q

As milk leaves the cow, it is approximately 96 degrees F to 100 degrees F. Prechilling of the milk helps:

A

to ensure rapid bulk cooling within the refrigerated bulk tank to the desired temperature of less than 40 degrees F

251
Q

Oysters free themselves of contaminating viruses and bacteria within ______ of exposure in purified seawater.

A

12 to 24 hours

252
Q

Escherichia coli 0157:H7 is a bacteria that currently

A

is difficult to test for

253
Q

Floors in food processing plants, dairy plants, kitchens, and similar places should be sloped ______ toward each drain.

A

1/8 to 1/4 inch per foot

254
Q

Routine and frequent inspections of food-processing and food-service establishments alone does not ensure that adequate levels of sanitation will be met. Inspections must be supplemented with

A

REF!

255
Q

Salty flavors in milk may be due to the use of milk from cows infected with

A

mastitis

256
Q

The racks in refrigerators or walk-in coolers must be ______ to allow circulation of cold air.

A

slotted

257
Q

If the fat content of milk increases by ten percent or more, the pasteurizer temperature must be increase by

A

5 degrees F

258
Q

The appropriate procedure used for bottle washing in large plants is

A

wash, rinse, sanitizing rinse, air dry

259
Q

A certified industry inspection is an inspection

A

conducted by a certified member of the industry

260
Q

An interior food service facility wall surface should not be constructed of

A

wallboard

261
Q

Of the shellfish listed below, the ones most likely to cause illness are

A

oysters

262
Q

Deaths of newborns caused by milk-induced diarrhea has been mainly attributed to the bacteria:

A

Escherichia coli

263
Q

Which of the following is best to use when sanitizing food contact equipment?

A

none of the above

264
Q

Hot water for the sanitizing of assembled equipment is not to be cooler than ______ at the end of the system.

A

170 degrees F for 5 minutes

265
Q

Temperatures of ______ have been found satisfactory for the storage of refrigerated foods.

A

38 degrees F to 41 degrees F

266
Q

Adequate light is essential for proper operation, maintenance, and sanitation. A minimum of ______ is recommended on food work surfaces.

A

50-foot candles

267
Q

Which state has a quarantine on mussels from May 1 to October 31?

A

California

268
Q

After milk is pasteurized, it should be rapidly cooled to below ______ so that

A

40 degrees F; the remaining bacteria will not materially increase

269
Q

In order to avoid pathogen growth and/or survival, food that is greater than ______ thick frozen or partially thawed should not be cooked.

A

4 inches

270
Q

Milk is considered Ultra-High Temperature pasteurized if it reaches

A

212 degrees F (100 degrees C) for 1 seconds

271
Q

The amount of heat required to lower one pound of a product one degree Fahrenheit is

A

the specific heat

272
Q

A mold control program should include all of the following factors except

A

spraying with a 1000 mg/1 quaternary ammonium compound

273
Q

When it is not possible to collect and examine a large number of samples for bacteria exam inations, an indication of the sanitary condition of the milk can be obtained by

A

a. methylene blue reduction test, b. resazurin test

274
Q

Thermoduric bacteria grow best at a temperature range of

A

70 degrees F to 98 degrees F

275
Q

Many states rules requre the refrigeration of Shucked shellfish at or below ______ but above 32 degrees F.

A

45 degrees F

276
Q

Vegetative forms of Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in

A

10 to 15 minutes at 176 degrees F

277
Q

Sandwich and salad mixtures should be placed in shallow pans at a depth not greater than ______ to accelerate the rapid cooling of the food.

A

3 inches

278
Q

In order to simplify cleanliness, window sills should be sloped toward the room and down at an angle of ______ degrees.

A

30

279
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of bad fish?

A

elastic flesh

280
Q

The final rinse water temperature for a heat sanitizing machine dishwasher should be

A

180 degrees F

281
Q

All meat and poultry plants must develop and implement a system of preventative controls known as

A

HACCP

282
Q

The primary responsibility of food service management is

A

education and supervision of employees

283
Q

Oysters, soft-shell and hard-shell clams, mussels, lobsters, crabs, and shrimp fall under what group?

A

shellfish

284
Q

Oysters grow best in water with a salinity of

A

0.24 to 0.27

285
Q

Oysters grow best at what pH and temperature?

A

6.2 to 6.8 and 41 degrees F

286
Q

In a dry food storage room, the artificial lighting should provide a minimum of

A

10-foot candles

287
Q

Pasteurized milk quality is indicated by

A

a. direct microscopic count, coliform test, standard plate count, c. phosphatase test, taste and odor tests

288
Q

Which bacteria can survive cooking to appropriate levels?

A

Clostridium perfringens

289
Q

Which minerals and chemicals cause problems in ice manufacturing?

A

REF!

290
Q

Outbreaks of ______ traced to contaminated shellfish between 1900 and 1925 led to the PHS Certification of dealers involved in interstate shipment.

A

typhoid fever

291
Q

Pasteurization of milk product does not eliminate which of the following?

A

a. toxins , b. anthrax spores , c. pesticides

292
Q

Food inspection programs of the future will focus increasingly on

A

hazard analysis and critical control point evaluations

293
Q

Proper facility lighting is essential for

A

REF!

294
Q

E. coli 0157:H7 is often spread by

A

. a and b

295
Q

Mussels from ______ contain a chemical poison during certain times of the year which is not destroyed during cooking.

A

REF!

296
Q

Quality control of milk includes which of the following?

A

REF!

297
Q

Contamination in a block of ice can be identified by ______ in the geometric center.

A

discoloration

298
Q

Which would be the least effective method of controlling condensation of moisture in food preparation areas?

A

increase air temperature

299
Q

Common refrigerants include which of the following?

A

REF!

300
Q

When direct consumption of shellfish might be hazardous due to radionuclide or industrial wastes pollution; the median coliform MPN of the water does not exceed 700 per 100 ml; and not more than 10 percent of samples exceed MPN of 2300 per 100 ml, an area is designated

A

restricted

301
Q

Equipment can be disinfected by being in contact with a chlorine solution for at least

A

10 seconds

302
Q

Which of the following is not a characteristic of hazardous waste?

A

combustibility

303
Q

Land disposal by hazardous waste regulation includes

A

waste pile

304
Q

Sources of dioxin include ______.

A

REF!

305
Q

Funding for the collection, storage, and disposal of household hazardous waste always comes directly from the individuals who generate the waste.

A

FALSE

306
Q

Domestic wastewater which passes through a sewer system to a POTW is not considered to be a ______.

A

a. solid waste, b. hazardous waste

307
Q

Heating of air, gas, or gas mixture up to 9032 degrees F for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called

A

plasma technology

308
Q

The EPA requires that dioxin-bearing wastes be ______ destroyed or reduced before disposal in a secure hazardous waste landfill.

A

99.9999 percent

309
Q

Hazardous wastes include

A

none of the above

310
Q

By definition under RCRA hazardous wastes are ______ wastes.

A

solid

311
Q

Household hazardous waste is regulated like any other hazardous waste.

A

FALSE

312
Q

Neutralization and detoxification are feasible with most of the organophosphate and carbamate insecticides, but not with the ______.

A

chlorinated hydrocarbons

313
Q

A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens.

A

TRUE

314
Q

Household hazardous waste is not exempt from DOT regulations when shipped to a disposal facility.

A

TRUE

315
Q

The state or federal regulatory agency with jurisdiction should never be consulted when conducting a suitability audit of a waste disposal company.

A

FALSE

316
Q

Hazardous wastes include ______ substances.

A

REF!

317
Q

A permanent facility for collecting and storing household waste should be located away from residential areas and places of public gathering.

A

TRUE

318
Q

High temperature incineration systems are most suitable to destroy

A

organic compounds

319
Q

Which of the following is the least approprate option for hazardous waste minimization?

A

concentration

320
Q

Hazardous waste is governed by the

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

321
Q

Which of the following waste material is not classified as a California list waste that is banned from land disposal?

A

any solid waste

322
Q

Well-placed, existing solid waste collection areas are good choices for household hazardous waste collection sites.

A

TRUE

323
Q

The EPA requires that toxic waste incinerators achieve a destruction and removal rate of ______ before the material is landfilled.

A

99.99 percent

324
Q

Wastes generated by the construction industry include

A

REF!

325
Q

Examples of thermal destruction processes in addition to incineration are

A

cement kiln

326
Q

Support of household hazardous waste management is an avenue for industries to paint themselves as community leaders and defenders of the environment.

A

TRUE

327
Q

The regulatory level for total cresol under the RCRA Toxicity Characteristic rule is

A

200 mg/l

328
Q

Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?

A

fuel blending

329
Q

Hazardous wastes generated by vehicle maintenance shops include

A

REF!

330
Q

Hazardous wastes may be in a ______ form.

A

REF!

331
Q

Which of the following is not included in hazardous waste regulations?

A

domestic sewage

332
Q

In many cases, x-ray beams or fluoroscopes will extend past the fluoroscopic screen and protective lead, thereby exposing the operator to the direct beam.

A

TRUE

333
Q

It takes ______ half-lives to reduce the radioactivity of a radionuclide to about 1% of what it was when first measured.

A

7

334
Q

In practice, exposure to all ionizing radiation is controlled by the use of shields of lead.

A

FALSE

335
Q

A filter of 2 mm of aluminum will absorb the soft, or less penetrating, radiation.

A

TRUE

336
Q

Neutrons are charged, high-energy particles.

A

FALSE

337
Q

An unacceptable use of radiation is

A

fluoroscopy for the purpose of fitting shoes

338
Q

The median lethal dose of radiation (at which about 50% of the persons exposed will probably die in one month) is considered to be

A

550 to 750 roentgens

339
Q

The genetic harm done by radiation is not cumulative.

A

FALSE

340
Q

Which of the following have little penetrating power and are normally a hazard to health only in the form of internal radiation received through ingestion, inhalation, or open wounds?

A

alpha particles

341
Q

Carbon 14, a radioactive isotope of carbon, has a half-life of almost 6000 years.

A

TRUE

342
Q

The term “rem” is short for

A

none of the above

343
Q

Radiation could scatter and bounce off the

A

REF!

344
Q

______ routinely sample air, water, and food supplies for radionuclides.

A

REF!

345
Q

The term “rad” means

A

radiation absorbed dose

346
Q

A CT scanner is a combination computer and x-ray machine.

A

FALSE

347
Q

A state radiation protection program may involve control of

A

REF!

348
Q

Medical uses can present a hazard to technicians, patients, and others through the improper handling of radionuclides and contaminated wastes.

A

TRUE

349
Q

Alpha particles have a negative electric charge.

A

FALSE

350
Q

R is the symbol used for the term “roentgen”.

A

TRUE

351
Q

Which of the following are sources of radiation?

A

REF!

352
Q

The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in

A

REF!

353
Q

Medical personnel involved in radium therapy can become unnecessarily exposed during handling of the source needle.

A

TRUE

354
Q

The rate at which atoms of radioactive sources (radionuclides) disintegrate are measured in

A

curies

355
Q

Large doses of radiation can be applied to local areas, as in therapy, with little danger.

A

TRUE

356
Q

Fluoroscopy exams should be done before x-rays.

A

FALSE

357
Q

Background radiation cannot be eliminated.

A

TRUE

358
Q

The effective half-life of an injected radionuclide is determined by the length of time the nuclide remains in the body and its radioactive half-life.

A

TRUE

359
Q

The common types of radiation are

A

REF!

360
Q

Beta radiation is commonly eliminated by

A

both glass or plastic and aluminum

361
Q

Radioactive substances used in medicine are always sealed.

A

FALSE

362
Q

Sources of x-rays that operate at a voltage above 10 kilovolts are less hazardous than sources less than 10 kV.

A

FALSE

363
Q

When the whole body is irradiated, the most radiosensitive area(s) is (are)

A

REF!

364
Q

The only difference between gamma rays, x-rays, and visible light is

A

their frequency

365
Q

More information is known about effects of trace amounts of chemical carcinogens than radiation effects.

A

FALSE

366
Q

Radon is an alpha emitter; daughter decay products are alpha, beta, and gamma emitters.

A

TRUE

367
Q

Only sperm and nerve cells can apparently replace themselves or recover, to some extent, from radiation exposure if the dose is not excessive.

A

FALSE

368
Q

A concentration of x-ray machines in one building will not affect scatter radiation.

A

FALSE

369
Q

Microwaves are reflected by

A

metals

370
Q

Isotopes of the same element have

A

the same atomic number but different mass numbers

371
Q

What material has a high melting point, a high atomic number and is used as a target material to produce x-rays?

A

tungsten

372
Q

Lead shielding devices are not necessary for chest or upright x-rays.

A

FALSE

373
Q

Beta particles can be stopped by a few millimeters of aluminum.

A

TRUE

374
Q

Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.

A

TRUE

375
Q

Common deficiencies regarding therapy units may include filtration, exposure control, and calibration.

A

TRUE

376
Q

One of the common types of ionizing radiation is the x-ray.

A

TRUE

377
Q

The absorption of how many ergs (energy-per-gram) of air represents one roentgen?

A

about 86

378
Q

Regarding emergency radiation exposure, the state has a responsibility to:

A

REF!

379
Q

Neutrons can have

A

a. biological effects, b. the ability to make other substances radioactive

380
Q

The FDA requires that sunlamps that radiate UV rays be equipped with timers which automatically shut off after

A

based on the intensity of the UV lamp

381
Q

Microwave ovens that have magnetron tubes use electrical energy to generate

A

high frequency, short wave energy

382
Q

Which of the following is not commonly associated with the term frequency?

A

particles

383
Q

The dose or energy absorbed by an irradiated object is a function of both the kilovolt and the milliampere settings of the machine.

A

TRUE

384
Q

Which of the following exposures should be considered in assessing radiation hazard?

A

REF!

385
Q

If the radioactivity of a material is not known, the half-life cannot be determined.

A

FALSE

386
Q

Long term effects of radiation on an individual are predictable.

A

FALSE

387
Q

A principle(s) for effecting external radiation protection is (are)

A

REF!

388
Q

If 5000 persons were exposed to a background radiation of 0.1 rem per year, this would represent a person-rem exposure of 500.

A

TRUE

389
Q

Which term is used to describe the exposure of large populations to ionizing radiation?

A

person-rem

390
Q

______ has the responsibility for internal housekeeping and for monitoring all waste discharges in terms of types and quantities.

A

Industry

391
Q

A thin sheet of paper will stop a beta particle.

A

FALSE

392
Q

The term “rem” does not take into consideration the biological effect of different kinds of radiation from the same dose in rads.

A

FALSE

393
Q

Many defects in x-ray units are easy to find and need no instruments.

A

TRUE

394
Q

Everyone is subject to natural background radiation.

A

TRUE

395
Q

An ordinary chest x-ray produces an exposure of about 0.1 rad; a very heavy diagnostic series, about 10 rads.

A

TRUE

396
Q

Factors that could determine the effect of radiation on the body include

A

REF!

397
Q

Gamma rays come from the nucleus of an atom; x-rays come from the electrons around the nucleus and are produced by electron bombardment.

A

TRUE

398
Q

Biological effects of radiation on all living organisms, including human beings, are termed somatic or genetic.

A

TRUE

399
Q

The Department of Energy regulations require solidification of high-level radioactive wastes within ______ of their production.

A

5 years

400
Q

Filters will

A

reduce stray radiation

401
Q

To produce thermal effects, microwave energy is converted to ______ in the body or organism.

A

heat

402
Q

The best control of swimmer’s itch at a bathing beach is to

A

add copper sulfate

403
Q

The addition of sodium bicarbonate is usually used to

A

raise the alkalinity

404
Q

Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of

A

a. NTU, b. Secchi disk readings

405
Q

An operating free chlorine residual of ______ is usually required in practice.

A

1.0 to 3.0 mg/l

406
Q

The formula (Volume of Pool / Pump Flow Rate (GPM) x 60 min) = turnover rate, will tell us .

A

the number of hours it takes for the entire contents of the pool to pass through the filters

407
Q

The minimum recommended depth of water under a 1 meter board (1 meter high) is

A

10 feet

408
Q

Many of the problems associated with migrant labor camps are related to

A

REF!

409
Q

The generally prohibited swimming facility from a public health perspective is a

A

fill and draw pool

410
Q

A vehicle built on a chassis and having a body of not more than 8-feet wide and 32-feet long designed for travel, recreation, and vacation use is

A

travel trailer

411
Q

One of the ways to recognize a well designed and properly operated pool is when you find the water at the time of inspection to be

A

crystal clear, with the proper level of approved disinfectant, and a PH level of 7.4

412
Q

To raise the pH, add

A

sodium carbonate

413
Q

In large pools with outlets more than 5 feet from the end wall, pool inlets should be located

A

every 20 feet

414
Q

Improper use of chemicals or improperly balanced pool or beach water may cause the spread of infectious disease due to

A

REF!

415
Q

The molecular state of hypochlorous acid is the desired product from chlorination of pool waters. This product

A

is 62 percent molecular at a pH of 7.2

416
Q

The pool must be designed

A

to fit the expected numbers of swimmers

417
Q

Gas chlorine is considered

A

100 percent available chlorine

418
Q

Pool inlets should be located a minimum of 10 inches to 15 inches below the water line to

A

prevent loss of disinfectant

419
Q

The acidity-alkalinity balance affects eye irritation, water coagulation and the

A

effectiveness of chlorine

420
Q

To mix acid and water, always

A

add acid to water

421
Q

It is essential that all public pools

A

run the recirculation and disinfection equipment 24 hours per day

422
Q

Chemicals that have been used for pool disinfection include chlorine, chlorinated cyanurates, bromine and

A

iodine

423
Q

The connection between the pool drain and the sanitary sewer must

A

have a properly located cleanout

424
Q

Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than do non-swimmers

A

regardless of bathing water quality

425
Q

The main drain should have a grate that is ______ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects.

A

four times

426
Q

A pH between _____ and _____ is optimal PH control for eye irritation, but is not optimal for chlorine effectiveness.

A

7.5 - 7.6

427
Q

A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water every ______.

A

6 to 8 hours

428
Q

The assemblage of large numbers of people in a limited area requires that certain minimum facilities be provided. Some guidelines to assist in the preparation for mass gatherings include

A

REF!

429
Q

When chlorine is added to water

A

HOCl is considered the primary product

430
Q

Swimmers itch is also known as

A

schistosomiasis

431
Q

One study of basic sanitation and migrant farm workers found that migrants who did not have access to water and sanitation facilities in the field had a clinic utilization rate for diarrhea

A

20 times that of urban poor

432
Q

The rate of filtration should be ______ for a diatomite filter.

A

1 to 2 gpm/ft2

433
Q

A chemical commonly used to improve water clarity is

A

alum

434
Q

The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of

A

on-board holding tanks

435
Q

The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpools

A

pseudomonas aeruginosa

436
Q

A pH ______ is probably optimal for minimal eye irritation along with maintenance of effective residual chlorine.

A

7.5 to 7.6

437
Q

The backwash rate for both conventional, rapid and high rate sand filters is

A

15 gpm/ft2

438
Q

The recommended and most effective method of maintaining pool water quality is

A

continuous recirculation, chlorination, and filtration

439
Q

Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every

A

1 to 2 hours

440
Q

The ideal pH range for swimming pools is

A

7.2 to 7.6

441
Q

It has been found that pools less than 30 feet wide with a surface area less than 1600 ft2

A

may utilize skimmers instead of gutters

442
Q

Dead animals are best disposed in

A

a. an incinerator or rendering plant, b. a separate area of sanitary landfill

443
Q

Which of the following is (are) true about composting?

A

b. it may come from the organic fraction of municipal solid waste, c. it results in a poor fertilizer

444
Q

After a landfill site is closed, it should be covered with at least ______ of compacted soil having a low permeability, graded to shed rainwater, melting snow, and surface water.

A

2 feet

445
Q

Which of the following is not recommended for a refuse storage area?

A

uncovered base

446
Q

In the rectangular furnace, the grates are arranged in

A

tiers

447
Q

Additional fuel is needed to incinerate refuse

A

a. with 30 percent or less rubbish, b. with 50 percent or more moisture

448
Q

The three essentials for combustion in an incinerator are

A

time, temperature, and turbulence

449
Q

The direction of operation of a sanitary landfill should be

A

with the prevailing wind

450
Q

______ reduces the final volume of wastes.

A

a. compaction, b. maceration

451
Q

The valley or ravine landfill method utilizes “lifts” from the bottom up with depths usually of

A

8 to 10 feet

452
Q

The wastewater generated from washing out refuse bins and containers

A

a. can be disposed of with the garbage, b. must pass through a grease trap before entering a sewerage system, c. should not be allowed to run onto the surface of the ground

453
Q

Large items that are not recyclable should be

A

b and c

454
Q

In order to determine the depth at which a sanitary landfill can be operated, which of the following must be determined?

A

REF!

455
Q

Compression or shredding of bulky objects before landfilling them will

A

REF!

456
Q

Which of the following is true about garbage stands?

A

garbage stands should be convenient to the kitchen, in an airy shaded location

457
Q

Oil that has had a physical and chemical impurities removed and that by itself or when blended with new oil or additives, is substantially equivalent or superior to new oil intended for the same purposes, is called

A

re-refined oil

458
Q

The dumping of garbage and other refuse at sea in the United States is

A

prohibited

459
Q

The transfer station should be located ______ of the collection service area.

A

in the center

460
Q

One piece of refuse-compaction and earth-moving equipment is needed at the landfill site for approximately each

A

80 loads per day

461
Q

The temperature of the gases leaving the furnace is reduced by

A

REF!

462
Q

Before trying to convert an “open dump” into a sanitary landfill, you must first

A

b. institute a rat-poisoning program 2 weeks before conversion, c. develop a plan of operation, supervision, maintenance, and a drawing showing your proposed plans

463
Q

Methane in the presence of air is explosive at concentrations between

A

5 and 15 percent

464
Q

The normal economical hauling distance to a refuse disposal site is usually between

A

10 to 15 miles

465
Q

Resource recovery and reduction of solid wastes should start

A

at the point of generation

466
Q

Collection cost is about ______ of the total cost of solid waste management.

A

50%-70%

467
Q

The spread of ______ is (are) encouraged when uncooked garbage is fed to hogs

A

REF!

468
Q

Depending on the size of the community, there should be a minimum of one man at a landfill site and ______ men per 1000 yd3 of waste dumped per day that the site is open.

A

six

469
Q

When considering a site for a sanitary landfill, both county and regional-wide planning and administration of the site should be considered because

A

REF!

470
Q

The goal for management of hazardous waste should be

A

zero discharge

471
Q

Which of the following allows for 95 percent or more volume reduction of municipal solid wastes?

A

b. pyrolysis, c. high-temperature incineration

472
Q

What does RCRA stand for?

A

Resource Conservation and Recovery Act

473
Q

The average amount of solid waste generated, collected, and disposed of from a particular area is dependent on many local factors such as

A

REF!

474
Q

The furnace temperature and burning rates of an incinerator can be controlled by adjusting

A

REF!

475
Q

Systems used for treatment and disposal of animal wastes include

A

REF!

476
Q

Incinerators are rated in terms of

A

tons of burnable waste per day

477
Q

The best sanitary landfill method for an area with rolling terrain is the

A

area or ramp method

478
Q

Added moisture used in maceration ______ the handling and haul costs of solid waste

A

increases

479
Q

The commonly acceptable refuse disposal and treatment methods are

A

composting, recylcing, incineration, and sanitary landfilling

480
Q

The amount of residue left after incineration is approximately

A

10 to 15 percent of the original volume

481
Q

______ can be recovered from refuse by burning it in a refractory lined incinerator or water-wall incinerator.

A

energy

482
Q

The grinding of garbage is an acceptable method of

A

garbage disposal

483
Q

The most suitable soil for cover material at a landfill site is one that is

A

easily worked and minimizes infiltration

484
Q

The National Safety council reported that solid waste collection workers have an injury frequency approximately ______ times the national average for all industry.

A

ten

485
Q

Volume reduction can be achieved by

A

REF!

486
Q

A county or regional landfill should provide enough area for a ______ period of operation.

A

20- to 40-year

487
Q

Which of the following is not one of the four characteristics of hazardous wastes as defined by the Environmental Protection Agency?

A

radioactivity

488
Q

A landfill site should not

A

be inaccessible during bad weather conditions

489
Q

The best way to control deep fires in a sanitary landfill is to

A

separate the burning refuse and dig a fire brake around the burning refuse

490
Q

The Consumer Product Safety Commission requires that refuse bins or containers must be able to withstand a hanging weight or force of ______ pounds and a horizontal force of ______ pounds without overturning, with the force applied where tipping of the bin is not likely.

A

191; 70

491
Q

The EPA believes that only ______ of the waste stream can be recovered economically.

A

56 percent

492
Q

Acidic conditions ______ the growth of methane-producing bacteria.

A

inhibit

493
Q

High-density compaction of solid wastes is accomplished by compression to a density of more than ______.

A

66.5/lb ft3

494
Q

The second step of the combustion process in an incinerator requires a high temperature of at least

A

1500 to 1800 degrees F

495
Q

The Toxic Substances Control Act (TSCA) of 1976

A

regulates the production and use of chemical substances that may present an unreasonable risk of injury to health or environment

496
Q

A properly designed and controlled incinerator is satisfactory for burning combustible refuse as long as

A

air pollution standards can be met

497
Q

A relatively porous landfill earth cover will permit

A

a. the escape of gases, b. greater infiltration and leachate production

498
Q

According to the United States Environmental Protection Agency, solid waste does NOT include

A

REF!

499
Q

Shredding reduces the volume of wastes to about ______ or less of the original bulk.

A

40 percent

500
Q

A dragline may be used at a landfill site for

A

REF!