1001-1500 Flashcards

1
Q

Question

A

Answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Individuals particularly susceptible to the toxic effects of cadmium are those who are deficient in:

A

iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which one of the following statements about cadmium is false?

A

it helps the body metabolize calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

The largest outbreak of cadmium poisoning thus far documented occurred in:

A

Japan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A major problem associated with cadmium poisoning is:

A

kidney failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Of the following, the most likely to succumb to cadmium poisoning are:

A

malnourished women

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which one of the following is least likely to occur in the US?

A

cadmium poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the MOST common cause of bacterial meningitis in children under five years of age?

A

Haemophilus influenzae type B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

How is giardiasis USUALLY transmitted to others?

A

person-to-person transfer of cysts from the feces of the infected individual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following duties of state and local health agencies is intended to ensure that the public’s health and welfare are protected?

A

regulatory responsibilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is epidemic?

A

the occurrence in a community or region of cases of an illness clearly in excess of expectancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What portal of entry should a field sanitarian protect to avoid contracting Lyme disease?

A

skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which of the following factors would LEAST contribute to the emergence of a new infectious disease?

A

heat disinfection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Listeriosis is COMMONLY associated with:

A

contaminated food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome is caused by infection with

A

Escherichia coli 0157:H7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The basic principles of disease control include all of the following except

A

lag phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which one of the following phrases MOST accurately describes the term endemic?

A

constant presence of an illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An establishment known to have imminent health hazards is not closed by the inspecting regulatory authority. This example best fits the definition of a:

A

nonfeasance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vehicleborne, vectorborne or airborne are all examples of:

A

indirect mode of transmission

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An employer is held liable for the torts of its employee committed within the scope of their employment. This is referred to as:

A

respondeat superior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Performance of an authorized act in a unauthorized manner is called:

A

misfeasance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the federal agency that regulates food additives?

A

food and drug administration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How is the term contamination defined when used in connection with a communicable disease?

A

presence of pathogenic agents on a surface, article or substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the most common contributing factor to foodborne illness?

A

improper holding temperatures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why are some foods classified as time/temperature control for safety?

A

they support rapid growth of pathogenic microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Which food does not require refrigeration at 41F (5C)?

A

UHT creamers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the best means of inhibiting the growth of microorganisms in fresh meat?

A

adequate refrigeration and cleanliness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the maximum accumulated time that time/temperature control for safety food can safely be exposed to the temperature danger zone?

A

6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If time only is used as a public health control, the maximum period of time recommended by the FDA for time/temperature control for safety food to be held is:

A

6 hours if the warmest part of the food item does not exceed 70F

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the minimum period of time that the FDA recommends employees wash their hands and arms up to the elbow?

A

20 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Unpasteurized eggs NOT intended for immediate service should be cooked to:

A

155F for 15 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the usual mode of infection from Salmonella?

A

Ingestion of contaminated food

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the source of scombroid poisoning?

A

Histamines in the muscle of fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of well is considered least likely to become contaminated?

A

Drilled

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Diatomaceous earth filters:

A

Should be supplemented by a chlorination system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Microbial pollution travels only a short distance through:

A

Smooth clay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What type of filter is recommended for use in small communities and rural places?

A

Slow sand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except

A

Hydrostatic loops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Which of the following is the least effective method for cadmium removal from drinking water?

A

Activated carbon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Before a drinking water sample is taken, the sampling tap should be clean, free of leaks and flushed for how long?

A

2 to 3 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What contaminant has been associated with learning and cognitive disorders in children who drink contaminated water?

A

Lead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Nutrients associated with eutrophication include all of the following except:

A

Potassium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Which of the following is least important when reducing sewage to gases?

A

Earthworms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A septic tank maintenance worker has checked an empty tank for the presence of hydrogen sulfide (H2S). The test was negative, and there are no odors indicating the presence of other hazardous gases. Is the tank safe to enter without a respirator and supplied air?

A

No, because oxygen content and methane were not tested

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

All of the following are true about ozone as a disinfectant except which one?

A

Long-lasting residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Aerobic bacteria require all of the following nutrients except:

A

Magnesium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What does mottled brown and red soil indicate?

A

Inadequate aeration methods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Alternative small wastewater treatment systems are considered unless:

A

Impervious formations are found at a depth of 10 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Lime coagulation, mixed media filtration, and activated carbon filtration will greatly reduce

A

EPA priority pollutants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

After the servicing (pumping) of a septic tank, it is essential that the tank and lid be

A

Replaced and secured for safety purposes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The laboratory reports a positive coliform test that exceeds permissible limits on a bottle of pasteurized milk. What does this indicate?

A

Improper bactericidal treatment of the equipment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the most effective practice for preventing trichinosis in people?

A

Be sure that pork is thoroughly cooked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

An HACCP plan is not required when:

A

Cooling and reheating TCS foods in bulk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What should not be done with food samples collected during a foodborne illness investigation?

A

Freeze

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the primary requirement in designing a food service facility?

A

Cleanability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is the most important rule of food storage?

A

Follow the first in, first out rule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Insecticides/pesticides may be stored in all ways except:

A

Above the dishwashing sinks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

According to the Resource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA) how must hazardous household waste be disposed?

A

Household hazardous waste is exempt from RCRA requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Why is it important for a business that generates hazardous waste to deal only with licensed disposal companies that have a good compliance history?

A

The business is held accountable for where and how the hazardous waste generated is disposed of

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Which of the following is not a type of hazardous waste incinerator?

A

Pressurized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the term for a statistical estimate of an oral dose of a chemical that produces a lethal effect on half of an animal population?

A

. LD50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The dose-response relationship of a toxic substance depends on all of the following except the:

A

pH of the substance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Which respiratory device provides the best protection?

A

Positive pressure respirator with a full face piece

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The Emergency Planning and Community Right -to-Know-Act (SARA Title III) requires the disclosure of all the following except type and quantities of:

A

All chemicals routinely discharged into the atmosphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

For first responders at an incident, which one of the following is listed correctly according to order of importance?

A

Responder safety, public safety, environmental safety, property protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which one of the following pesticides can be legally used in the United States by the public?

A

Diazinon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Many diseases and infestation have common names that can confuse the professional when referred to by lay individuals and often children. The term cooties refers to a/an:

A

Lice infestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The energy of ionizing radiation is measured in:

A

Electron volts (eV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

The term rem is short for:

A

None of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the danger and/or hazard posed by an etiological agent?

A

Human disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

No person should be permitted to work in a trench or pit in sandy clay soil that has unsupported sides or banks higher than:

A

5 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

An employer moves employers who have reached the upper permissible level of exposure to a hazardous environment, to prevent further exposure. What type of hazard control is this?

A

Administrative control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A negative pressure fit test for a protective mask:

A

Is done by placing both palms against the intake filters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Quantitative risk assessments usually measure human exposure through all of the following except:

A

Computer models

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The most likely cause of photochemical smog is due to:

A

Heavy motor vehicle traffic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

The industries least likely to be a source of sulfur dioxide pollution are:

A

Hazardous waste incinerators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What is the primary cause of death resulting from automobiles exhaust accumulation in garages?

A

Carbon monoxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The most common type of injury in a home is

A

A fall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

A S trap is not considered legal in most state plumbing codes due to which of the following factors?

A

They are not vented

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which of the following products is not a traditional formaldehyde air pollution source?

A

Burning vegetation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Long term effects of lead poisoning include:

A

Learning disabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A stud is a unit of building construction that is intended as a:

A

Vertical support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

A joist is used:

A

As a horizontal support

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

A footing drain is required to:

A

Keep a foundation from slipping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The chimney of the house should be a minimum of __ above the highest structure of the home.

A

Three feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the horizontal part of the stairs you step on called?

A

Riser

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When footers fail this often results in:

A

Cracked and/or displaced foundations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

A plastic ground cover sealed to the foundation should be placed on the found in the crawl space of the home to:

A

Control moisture in the crawl space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

The footing drain is intended to drain water away from the base of the home to

A

Prevent damage to the footer and foundation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

The termite shield is placed between the

A

Foundation and the sill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The maximum size of a stair riser should be

A

8’ ¼

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

The distance between the end of the water supply pipe and the sink should be how many times the diameter of the supply pipe?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Biological safety equipment includes

A

Technical manuals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The addition of sodium bicarbonate will

A

Raise the pH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

The government organization that usually deals with major disasters is the

A

Federal Emergency Management Agency (FEMA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

One of the first actions an individual should take upon hearing an order for the evacuation of homes and businesses is turn off the

A

Public utility services to the building

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

When temporary shelter is necessary in an emergency, the first consideration in shelter selection should be

A

Protection of the survivors from health and safety risks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

After flooding and other natural disasters, vaccination is needed for

A

Vaccinations not required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Key components of the HAZWOPER program exclude

A

Sanitary requirements

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

The difference between a disaster and terrorism is best described as

A

Intent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of the following would not be as likely to be contracted bathing at a beach?

A

spinal meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What public health factor is of primary importance in determining the sanitary quality of recreational waters?

A

coliforms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The causative agent Naegleria fowleri has been linked to which of the following diseases?

A

primary amoebic meningoencephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Which organism would probably survive in a hot tub?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A secchi disk is used to determine:

A

clarity in recreational waters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

A chemical used to adjust pool alkalinity is:

A

sodium bicarbonate (soda ash)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Which pH could cause the least eye irritation?

A

7.6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What is the primary reason the pH of a pool should stay less than 8?

A

decreases the amount of active chlorine available

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

The factor used to determine the bromine residual with the chlorine test kit (DPD):

A

multiply chlorine residual by 2.25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

The chemical quality of a pool is generally measured by which 2 tests?

A

pH and chlorine residual

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Which raises the pH of pool water?

A

sodium carbonate (soda ash)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What compound is the principal scale former?

A

calcium carbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

The preferred treatment for algae control is:

A

superchlorination (heavy chlorination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The best method to eliminate swimmers itch is:

A

break the life chain of the schistosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Which of the following is a method by which recreational waters may be contaminated?

A

a. infected people, b. surface runoff, c. normal water flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Swimming pool water that is brownish black in color may be due to:

A

Mn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

The best method to reduce diving accidents is to:

A

develop diving training and education programs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Muriatic acid is a weak solution of:

A

hydrochloric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

In which situation would you most likely find PAM?

A

geothermal pool

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Some studies indicate that swimmers have a higher over-all illness rate than non-swimmers

A

regardless of bathing water quality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The treatment system of a pool is typically recommended to be installed in which of the following flow arrangements?

A

Skimmer or gutter line, main drain line, adjustment valves, hair strainer, disinfectant feeder, filter aid pump, filters, disinfectant feeder, ph feeders, adjustment inlets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Swimming pool water clarity is measured in terms of NTU or Nephelotnetric Turbidity Units. It is recommended that a level of 0.5 NTU

A

shall not be exceeded

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

A pool filtration system should filter the entire volume of water a minimum of every

A

6 or 8 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

The gutters or skimmers should receive a minimum if what percent of the total pool water due to the large quantity of organisms and materials which typically float.

A

60%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The acidity alkalinity balance affects eye irritation water coagulation and the

A

effectiveness of chlorine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

To mix acid and water, always

A

add acid to water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

When the chlorine is added to water

A

one acid is formed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every

A

60 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of

A

on-board holding tanks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

The molecular state of hypochlorous acid is the desired product from chlorination of pool waters. The product

A

is 62 percent molecular at pH of 7.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

The main drain should have a grate that is ___ the area of the discharge pipe to prevent dangerous suction effects.

A

four times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

It is known that some pathogenic organisms will survive from less than __ day(s) in heat to more than __ in freezing moist soil.

A

1 and 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Primary sedimentation can remove found in soil, water and wastewater.

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Wastewater is the used water from a home or community and the strength is expressed in terms of

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

Nutrients associated with eutrophication include

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

The favored method disposal of domestic wastewater is

A

connection to public sewer system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

The wastewater from a water closet and latrine or aqua privy flushing is referred to as

A

black water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The most accurate estimates of sewage flow are based on

A

annual water-meter readings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Septic tanks serving commercial operations should be inspected for the need for cleaning

A

twice per year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

If a septic tank is pumped in a wet period

A

the tank may float out of the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

How often should a septic tank for a private home be serviced?

A

every 3 to 5 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Final disposal of sludge may include all of the following except

A

vegetable dumping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Chemical coagulation, flocculation, sedimentation, and filtration will remove nearly all bacteria, viruses, protozoa and helminths if supplemented by

A

chlorination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Why should sewage sludge not be used as a soil builder or fertilizer supplement for crops for forage if it has not been properly tested?

A

it may result in higher levels of toxic metals in the vegetation and in the animals eating the vegetation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the best assurance of satisfactory operation of a properly designed and constructed septic tank system?

A

proper maintenance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

One of the most important factors contributing to disease transmission of microbiological agents is

A

concentration or dose of microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

A watertight tank designed to slow down the movement of raw sewage and wastes passing through to the soils is known as a

A

septic tank

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Plants absorb certain constituents of wastewater; using wastewater for irrigation of consumable plant products may present a health hazard to humans if the water contains

A

cadmium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

A measure of the relativity constant rate at which clear water, maintained at a relatively constant depth, will seep out of a standard size test hole that has been previously saturated is the

A

soil percolation test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

The ability of a soil to absorb and allow water and air to pass through is related to all of the following except

A

cation exchange capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The most effective method discovered for running a percolation test is

A

to make tests in holes that have been filled with water overnight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Deep sludge depth, thick fog layer and the appearance of particles of solids in the effluent from a septic tank is an indication of what?

A

a septic tank in need of cleaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Sand filters, elevated systems in suitable fill, evapotranspiration absorption systems, evapotranspiration beds, aeration systems, stabilization ponds or lagoons, recirculating toilets and the like, are

A

sometimes used where soil is unsuitable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

By USEPA Standards, the pH of secondary treatment effluent shall be in the range of

A

6 to 9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Which of the following would be a cause of septic-tank failure?

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Man-made organic compounds that degrade very slowly are referred to as

A

refractory organics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Sewer gas may contain

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Which of the following is true regarding the use of septic-tank cleaners?

A

their use is not advised

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

The NODAK system is designed to

A

protect ground water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The distance between the field or tiles must be a minimum of __ in a treatment absorption field arrangement.

A

6 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

The depth of septic tanks and ratio of width to length recommended by most health departments are very similar.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

What two factors determine the groundwater contamination potential from a septic tanks?

A

permeability of septic tank materials and soil characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

What two factors determine the groundwater contamination potential from a septic tanks?

A

permeability of septic tank materials and soil characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

What are two factors commonly used to determine soil permeability or ability of the soil to absorb wastewater?

A

soil perc test and soil characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Which would not be considered suitable for disposal of sewage by subsurface means?

A

clay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

What step listed below must be done in order to obtain reproducible results in the soil perc test?

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which is correct regarding septic tanks?

A

they will slow down the flow rate so that solids can be settled out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Detention time for septic tanks should be not less than

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

How often should residential septic tanks be inspected?

A

annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which should not be added to septic tanks?

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which statement is true in regards to outlets and inlets on distributions boxes in sewage disposal systems?

A

inlet must be 6 inches higher than outlet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Which of the following is not a factor in the satisfactory operation of a septic tank/sand filter system?

A

ratio of septic tank size to sand filter size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

Which method is most common method of applying wastewater to land?

A

spray irrigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Which gas is found in sewers but is not considered explosive?

A

CO2 (carbon dioxide)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

What is considered to be the best single strength measure of wastewater polluted water containing degradable waste?

A

5-day BOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

Another name for a mature or balanced lake is __

A

mesotrophic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

Name the three zones of stream pollution, in order of normal chain of events.

A

degradation, decomposition, recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

decomposition

A

degradation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What is permissible 8 hour threshold limit value for H2S?

A

20 ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

What is the most important step in wastewater operations?

A

good housekeeping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

Which would not be considered domestic sewage?

A

dairy cattle waste

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Of the following, the one classified as a compound is:

A

ammonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

The scientific name of a certain microorganism is Clostridium perfringens. The second word of this name indicates the:

A

species

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

Imhoff tanks used for sewage disposal are primarily dependent upon the action of:

A

bacterial decomposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

In the environmental planning of a rural subdivision, what basic information would you utilize in determining if both individual water and sewage systems could be placed on each home site?

A

the size of the lot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Untreated surface disposal of residential sewage is most likely to be a cause of:

A

hepatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

The 5-day BOD test should be performed when:

A

conducting a series of tests to determine the degree of water pollution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

The soil profile of a site refers to the:

A

side view of the face of the soil horizon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

BOD is a measure of the biodegradeable organic content of a water sample. It is necessary to dill the bottle completely full and not have any air bubbles in the sample in order to:

A

prevent additional oxygen from diffusing into the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Samples for BOD analysis should be:

A

refrigerated and analyzed within hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

To prove in court that a septic tank is polluting a stream, the best evidence is to show that:

A

dye placed in the septic tank appears in the stream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

When sewage treatment lagoons are excavated from fractured rock such as slate or shale, there is a danger that if sewage is stored in these lagoons, the sewage may:

A

flow untreated through the rock fractures and contaminate aquifers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

The best single measure of polluted water is:

A

5 day BOD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

A septic tank is used to:

A

slow down the movement of raw sewage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

The principal purpose of a trap used in connection with a plumbing fixture is to:

A

prevent the entrance of sewer air & foul gases into the house through the fixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

Hydrogen sulfide is fatal at what concentration?

A

300 ppm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

The objective(s) in pest control should be

A

integrated pest management involving the use of a combination of educational, cultural, biological, physical, chemical and legal measures, as appropriate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

Bacteria may be carried in the digestive system of the housefly for as long as

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

Pediculosis is an infestation of

A

lice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

Wasps are usually attracted to

A

REF!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

The smallest diameter hole through which an average house mouse can pass is

A

1/2 inch

202
Q

An example of a single dose rodenticide is

A

red squill

203
Q

The key to an effective, long-term, rodent control program is

A

community sanitation

204
Q

A female rat becomes sexually mature in

A

2 to 3 months

205
Q

A single pair of rats are capable of producing __ litters of young per year

A

4 to 7

206
Q

A pigeon control program to eliminate nesting places should be preceded by

A

ectoparasite control

207
Q

Bat-proofing should be done in the __ , when bats are hibernating in caves

A

late fall through winter

208
Q

The best preventive measure for poison ivy, poison oak, and poison sumac is

A

recognition of the plant and its avoidance

209
Q

The symptoms from contact with poison ivy, oak and sumac normally appear after

A

a few hours to 7 days

210
Q

Hay fever is correctly referred to as

A

pollenosis

211
Q

Concentrations of less than __ pollen grains/m3 of air in a 24-hour period usually do not produce allergic reactions

A

33

212
Q

Most ragweed pollen grains settle to the ground within about

A

200 feet of their source

213
Q

Which of the following has been proven to be most effective for controlling ragweed?

A

2, 4-D

214
Q

The World Health Organization considers DDT irreplaceable in public health at the present time for control of the some of the most important vector-borne diseases of humans.

A

TRUE

215
Q

In accordance with Food Additive Regulations, a pesticide added intentionally or incidentally to a processed food is considered an additive.

A

TRUE

216
Q

Blackflies are disease vectors for onchocerciasis.

A

TRUE

217
Q

Rats have an extremely keen sense of sight but very poor taste and smelling ability.

A

FALSE

218
Q

The rabies virus may be contracted from the aerosol of an infected animal’s urine, entering through the nose or mouth.

A

TRUE

219
Q

The best time to apply a herbicide is in the late spring or early summer when plant growth and development is taking place.

A

TRUE

220
Q

The most widespread cockroach pest in restaurants is

A

German

221
Q

Roaches are capable of spreading:

A

salmonellosis

222
Q

What is the most important aspect in controlling roaches

A

maintaining food general sanitation

223
Q

Pesticides used in cockroach control:

A

cannot overcome good sanitation

224
Q

Flies generally spread disease by

A

mechanical transmission

225
Q

Mosquitoes have been known to spread:

A

encephalitis

226
Q

The mosquito genus responsible for the transmission of malaria is:

A

anopheles

227
Q

Two insect parasites of rodents which transmit disease to man are

A

flea and louse

228
Q

A rodent sign which would best indicate a current infestation with a number of rats would be:

A

soft, dark rat dropping ranging in size from 3/8 inch to 3/4 inch

229
Q

Pyrethrum is an important insecticide because:

A

it is not toxic to humans

230
Q

Why is it a good practice to paint 6 inch wide white lines along walls inside a warehouse?

A

a. aids in detection of insects, b. aids in detection of rodents, c. serves as a reminder not to stock material next to the wall

231
Q

Of the following, which is not ordinarily used as a rodenticide?

A

methoxychlor

232
Q

The one of the following that is not ordinarily considered to be transmitted by an insect?

A

tetanus

233
Q

The insect infestation on humans known as pediculosis is caused by

A

lice

234
Q

The most prevalent arthropod-borne disease transmitted to humans in the US today is:

A

encephalitis

235
Q

Scabies is an infectious disease of the skin caused by:

A

mites

236
Q

Which is not considered a single dose rodenticide?

A

warfarin

237
Q

Who establishes tolerance levels of pesticides?

A

EPA

238
Q

Under FIFRA, all pesticides must be classified by what manner?

A

restricted use or general use

239
Q

Mosquitoes are responsible for all except

A

Q fever

240
Q

The primary method of eliminating house flies is

A

application of sanitary practices

241
Q

What is the best method for eliminating rats?

A

starve the rats by removing food and water sources

242
Q

Why are anit-coagulant type rodenticides coated with paraffin?

A

prevent decomposition of poison by rain moisture

243
Q

Which method of mosquito control is not very effective for nuisance prevention?

A

residual spray

244
Q

The one of the following diseases which is caused by a virus

A

encephalitis

245
Q

The one of the following diseases in which rats don’t act as the intermediate hosts is

A

amoebic dysentery

246
Q

In rodent control, the primary method of producing permanent results is:

A

proofing

247
Q

The one of the following which is ordinarily not used as a fumigant:

A

phosphorus pentoxide

248
Q

The most effective measures for mosquito control are dependent upon the:

A

elimination of breeding places

249
Q

The one of the following that is not ordinarily transmitted by an insect:

A

tetanus

250
Q

The variety of rat most common in the US in urban environments is:

A

brown rat

251
Q

Eradication of mosquitoes and ticks would have no effect on epidemic of:

A

infectious hepatitis

252
Q

The disease most likely to be transmitted to restaurant customers as a result of the presence of rats in the food prep area is:

A

salmonellosis

253
Q

A rodenticide which is also an emetic is:

A

red squill

254
Q

Which of the following blood-feeding insects afflicts people engaged in outdoor activities and has larvae which develop while attached to rocks or other surfaces in fast moving streams?

A

mosquito

255
Q

Which is not another name for the Norway Rat (rattus norvegicus)?

A

black

256
Q

What method is most effective to eliminate pigeons?

A

remove sources of food, water and harborage

257
Q

Which would be a plant-derived organic pesticide?

A

rotenone

258
Q

What is the inherent capacity of a pesticide to produce injury or death?

A

toxicity

259
Q

Lasso is the trademarks for

A

alachlor

260
Q

Under which conditions would a pesticide operator wear a respirator?

A

REF!

261
Q

The establishment number can be found on a pesticide container and it indicates:

A

the factory that produced the pesticide

262
Q

Which disease is the result of a tick bite?

A

Q fever

263
Q

Chaga’s disease is also known as

A

trypanosomiasis

264
Q

Weil’s disease is also known as:

A

leptospirosis

265
Q

Which disease can be transmitted by birds?

A

b and c above

266
Q

What is the most common form of malaria?

A

plasmodium vivax

267
Q

Most pesticide deaths in children and adults in the US are due to

A

inhalation

268
Q

The most common route of pesticide entry into the body is:

A

ingestion

269
Q

Which is not an organophosphate pesticide?

A

lindane

270
Q

In the event of a toxic spill, what is the first thing to be done?

A

evacuate all unnecessary personnel

271
Q

What is the most important step in the use of pesticides?

A

read the label

272
Q

All are anti-coagulant type rodenticides except”

A

surflan

273
Q

What etiologic agent for malaria is most fatal to man?

A

plasmodium falciparum

274
Q

Toxicity is determined by a laboratory procedure called the

A

toxicity characteristic leaching procedure

275
Q

The regulatory level for benzene under the RCRA Toxicity Characteristic rule is

A

0.50 mg/l

276
Q

Information and advice on what to do with hazardous waste when spilled in a transportation accident is available 24 hours a day from the

A

Chemical Emergency Center (CHEMTREC)

277
Q

In 1984, RCRA was amended to require __ or the equivalent, at hazardous waste landfills.

A

double liners

278
Q

Toxicity priority pollutants include

A

REF!

279
Q

The goal for hazardous waste management should be

A

zero discharge

280
Q

Which of the following is not an option for hazardous waste minimization?

A

increase production

281
Q

Heating of air, gas or gas mixture up to 9032F (5000C) for the thermal destruction of hazardous wastes describes a process called

A

Plasma pyrolysis technology

282
Q

The disposal of equipment and other materials containing PCBs

A

will remain for a long time

283
Q

Sources of dioxin include

A

REF!

284
Q

It can be assumed that all hazardous waste landfill liners

A

will eventually leak

285
Q

PCB waste collected from households is exempt from disposal regulations.

A

FALSE

286
Q

Funding for the collection, storage and disposal of household hazardous waste always come directly from the individuals who generate the waste.

A

FALSE

287
Q

Household hazardous waste disposal bids should be evaluated solely on the basis of price.

A

FALSE

288
Q

A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens.

A

TRUE

289
Q

Sylvatic plaque:

A

is the name given to an infection in wild rodents of Pasturella pestis

290
Q

Which of the following disease is not insect-borne:

A

diphtheria

291
Q

Endemic typhus is spread by the:

A

flea

292
Q

Which of the following is unlike the rest, regarding epidemiology?

A

rabies

293
Q

An arthropod-borne disease is spread by:

A

insects

294
Q

Eastern equine encephalitis is

A

a viral disease

295
Q

Which of the following statements is not true about poliomyelitis

A

paralytic type of polio is often due to the bite of the wood tick

296
Q

The disease that is common to stone age spearhead markers, hard rock miners and sand blast operators is:

A

silicosis

297
Q

Which of the following diseases is not related to rodents in its transmission to man:

A

yellow fever

298
Q

Which of the following is not related to enchinococcosis:

A

cats

299
Q

The infection reservoir for arthropod-borne viral encephalitis is general accepted to be:

A

birds

300
Q

The amelioration of a disease to reduce disability or dependence resulting from it is called:

A

tertiary prevention

301
Q

In recent years, the largest number of rabies cases were associated with

A

skunks

302
Q

An infected organism which does not experience symptoms during the spread of an illness is called a

A

carrier

303
Q

Soil moisture of about __ % of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens

A

20-Oct

304
Q

Which is not a primary source for Giardia lamblia cysts?

A

roaches

305
Q

Which animal is the primary reservoir for the newly discovered Hantavirus

A

deer mice

306
Q

A factor or agent which increases the risk of cancer is known as a

A

carcinogen

307
Q

As of 1975, the diseases which caused 2/3’s of the deaths in the US included all but which of the following?

A

influenza

308
Q

The goal of environmental health programs should be

A

REF!

309
Q

A major process for the prevention of respiratory disease of susceptible persons is

A

education

310
Q

Asbestosis is caused by fine silicate fibers retained in the

A

lungs

311
Q

The primary health problems of developing countries are

A

communicable disease and malnutrition

312
Q

Disease is considered the antithesis of health, defined as “a state of physical, mental and social well-being and ability to function, and not merely the absence of illness or infirmity.”

A

TRUE

313
Q

It is believed that the ingestion of one virus CFU can cause infection in humans.

A

TRUE

314
Q

It is estimated that less than 62% of water and foodborne diseases are not reported.

A

TRUE

315
Q

Any person bitten by a bat should receive antirabies therapy unless the bat is caught and found to be negative for the rabies virus.

A

TRUE

316
Q

Which amendment of the US Constitution protects a nonpublic area from unreasonable searches and seizures?

A

IV

317
Q

___ is the failure to perform an official duty without sufficient excuse.

A

nonfeasance

318
Q

An example of __ is closing down an establishment without first giving a required statutory notice.

A

misfeasance

319
Q

__ is the doing of an authorized act in an unauthorized manner.

A

misfeasance

320
Q

If permitted under existing laws, which of the following would be an effective technique for ceasing operation of an establishment?

A

revoking a license

321
Q

The random inspection approach

A

fails to focus on recurring problem establishments

322
Q

Environmental health regulatory staff must be __ first and foremost.

A

educators

323
Q

When an order has been ignored, the next step is to

A

hold an administrative hearing

324
Q

The legal authority to conduct a routine environmental health inspection:

A

delegated by the legislature

325
Q

When a business authority refuses consent to an inspection, the most appropriate action is to:

A

return later with an inspection warrant obtained through an appropriate court

326
Q

An individual’s right to be treated with a least a minimum of decency and fairness by governmental officials is guaranteed by the provision of:

A

due process

327
Q

In planning and implementing an environmental health investigation it is necessary to follow explicit procedure in an ordinance because:

A

such action is required by due process

328
Q

At a trial, the technical person called as a witness should:

A

answer all questions truthfully and directly

329
Q

Which of the following is generally most useful as legal evidence:

A

original field notes

330
Q

A correct statement about police power is that it:

A

is a plenary and inherent attribute of sovereign governments

331
Q

According to the Freedom of Information Act, all of the following information must be available to the public except:

A

medical records of personnel

332
Q

A warrant to conduct routine inspection of a private dwelling should be obtained only:

A

After consent has been refused

333
Q

An inspector’s choice of embargo, seizure or condemnation should be based on:

A

Statutory authority and immediacy of risk

334
Q

Following an inspection and the written report and prior to leaving the site, it is desirable to:

A

Meet with management and discuss the significance of the items

335
Q

If a health official failed to close a restaurant known to have imminent health dangers this is:

A

Nonfeasance

336
Q

The term applied to certain incorporated towns or cities in which the state constitution or legislature gives them the right to formulate and adopt city charters and regulate their own affairs is:

A

Home rule

337
Q

What is the term given to organization wherein lines of authority and responsibility run upward and downward through several levels with a broad functional base at the bottom and a single executive head at the top?

A

Scalar process

338
Q

A license can be revoked for all reasons except:

A

Conviction of a crime not related to intended purpose of license

339
Q

What is the most important means of enforcement of the Federal Food Drug & Cosmetic Act?

A

Embargo

340
Q

If a health official finds a nuisance while doing an inspection what is the most simple and practical method to correct the situation?

A

Have the owner correct the situation

341
Q

In order to achieve a conviction for failure to obey a violation order, which conditions must be satisfied?

A

REF!

342
Q

An inspection of a premise can lawfully be made in all of the following situations except:

A

When refused admission

343
Q

A householder says to an inspector, “Go ahead and do your dumb inspection. You’ll get in here somehow anyway.” May the inspector perform the inspection?

A

Yes, because consent, however reluctant, has been given

344
Q

Police power

A

Is almost exclusively left to individual States to establish and enforce laws for the citizen welfare

345
Q

Which of the following is not characteristic of a license or permit:

A

Is a semi-voluntary device to carry on his or her occupation with government approval

346
Q

In legal terminology the power of condemnation is also known as:

A

Eminent domain

347
Q

When is the sanitarian required to obtain a search warrant before entering and searching the kitchen of a restaurant?

A

When the owner has refused entry on this occasion

348
Q

Environmental Impact Statements are required by which federal act?

A

National Environmental Policy Act (NEPA)

349
Q

Under negligence law, the sanitarian owes the public a duty:

A

To act as reasonable person

350
Q

A comprehensive inspection of an establishment when it is first brought under departmental control is a(n) __ or __ inspection.

A

Initial, complete

351
Q

Environmental health technicians=assignments differ from environmental health scientists’ or sanitarians’ assignments in that __.

A

Technicians are not required to resolve problems that require the application of new methods and techniques or those that require action beyond the specific work assignment

352
Q

Sanitarians, environmental health scientists and other environmental specialists must obtain which of the following minimum educational requirements?

A

A baccalaureate degree

353
Q

The __ inspections are annual or scheduled inspections to determine compliancewith laws, codes, rules and regulations.

A

Routine

354
Q

Administrative hearings can be useful because

A

REF!

355
Q

What should be done after the project is an ongoing program?

A

Reevaluate goals and objectives; refine program

356
Q

If properly installed, one of the best floorings for kitchens, dairies, bakeries and similar places is

A

ceramic tile

357
Q

Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in

A

10 to 15 minutes at 230F

358
Q

Thawing a 16-pound turkey at 40F will take a period of __ days?

A

about 3 days

359
Q

The FDA action level for aflatoxins in milk shipped in interstate commerce is

A

0.5 ppb

360
Q

Beef usually spoils first

A

on the surface

361
Q

Which bacteria in large numbers can survive extended storage in Cheddar cheese?

A

Salmonella ssp

362
Q

Which food has the highest acceptable plate count of E coli?

A

cheese

363
Q

Dry stored goods should be stored off the floor at least __ to prevent their contamination.

A

6 inches

364
Q

Practically all foods, whether canned, pickled, cured or dried

A

deteriorate upon storage

365
Q

The quality of milk reaching the ultimate consumer is largely determined

A

at the farm, where the milk is processed

366
Q

Dairy equipment can be disinfected with a chlorine solution of

A

200 mg/l

367
Q

When disinfecting rubber valves and other parts of milking equipment with hot water, the water temperature should be ______ or a strong chlorine solution of ______ strength can be used instead.

A

180 to 190F, 200 mg/l

368
Q

In case of emergency, raw milk may be rendered safe for drinking if __ and then immediately cooled.

A

heated in a water bath to a temperature of 165F

369
Q

The pipeline milker

A

requires special attention to ensure its sanitary condition

370
Q

Milk is considered pasteurized by the Federal Drug Administration if it reaches

A

REF!

371
Q

Listeriosis is a

A

serious infection caused by food contaminated with Listeria monocytogenes

372
Q

Which of the following foods are not at high risk for transmitting listeriosis?

A

potato chips

373
Q

Which group of the following bacteria typically contains most of the pathogenic bacteria?

A

mesophilic

374
Q

Which of the following agencies is responsible for protecting our waterways from contamination?

A

EPA

375
Q

Shucked shellfish must be stored at __ or less.

A

40F

376
Q

When the internal temperatures of perishable foods is 40F, growth of which of the following is inhibited?

A

a. Salmonellae, b. Staphylococci

377
Q

A freezer unit for frozen food should maintain temperatures of __ or below.

A

0F

378
Q

To prepare a solution of 100 mg per liter available chlorine, __ of 5.25 percent bleach with one gallon of water should be used.

A

0.25 oz

379
Q

The final rinse water temperature of a heat sanitizing warewashing machine should cause the surface of the dishes and utensils to reach which temp?

A

160F

380
Q

Which of the following is not a step in proper machine dishwashing?

A

cloth dry

381
Q

The estimated number of Americans who have suffered full or partial hearing loss as a result of excessive exposure to noise is:

A

10 million

382
Q

Most concerns about noise as pollutant have focused on the:

A

worksite

383
Q

The noise most frequently considered as annoying by community residents is from:

A

vehicles

384
Q

In general, noise levels are directly related to the:

A

population density

385
Q

The major source of excessive community noise is:

A

airports

386
Q

Which one of the following sources of noise has been declining slightly in recent years?

A

automobile

387
Q

A given individual will most easily tolerate noise when:

A

the source of the noise is from construction

388
Q

Which one of the following is considered by many to be the most insidious type of pollution?

A

noise

389
Q

The louder the sound, the greater the:

A

amplitude

390
Q

The measure that is used to determine the loudness of a sound is:

A

decibel

391
Q

Maximum sensitivity to sound for humans is in the range of

A

1000-5000 cps

392
Q

It is estimated that the number of Americans who are exposed daily to noise that has the potential to damage their hearing is:

A

20 million

393
Q

Hearing loss that lasts a few hours following exposure to excessive noise is referred to as:

A

temporary threshold shift

394
Q

Slight, irreversible hearing loss may result for many people, from daily exposure over an 8 hour period of time to sound averaging:

A

85 dB

395
Q

The amount of time required to produce permanent damage to hearing is cut in half with an increase in sound of

A

5 dB

396
Q

The first type of hearing sensitivity to become damaged as a result of excessive noise exposure is sensitivity to:

A

high frequencies

397
Q

Loss of hearing to the extent that low frequency sounds are distorted or can’t be heard is considered:

A

sensorineural loss

398
Q

Hearing loss that results from infectious or trauma is called:

A

conductive loss

399
Q

By age 65 the number of Americans who experience hearing loss sufficient to affect communication is:

A

1 in 4

400
Q

Age-related hearing loss is referred to as:

A

presbycusis

401
Q

A constant buzzing or ringing in the ears is called:

A

tinnitus

402
Q

The hearing ability of a fetus is well-developed by the:

A

28th week of gestation

403
Q

Which one of the following seems to have the most impact on a child’s reading skills?

A

noisy home environment

404
Q

Which one of the following statements is false?

A

noise affects the quantity of work done

405
Q

Which one of the following statements is true?

A

adults are wakened by noise more easily than children

406
Q

The first national law in the United States Designed to deal with noise was the:

A

Noise Control Act

407
Q

The Act that authorized the Environmental Protection Agency to work in partnership with state and local governments in the area of anti-noise programs was the:

A

Quiet Communities Act

408
Q

Which component of clean, dry air has the smallest volume?

A

Sulfur dioxide

409
Q

Major effects on humans are caused by Los Angeles and London type smog, along with what two pollutants?

A

Sulfur dioxide and hydrogen fluoride

410
Q

Photochemical smog has been reported in congested areas with

A

High motor vehicle traffic

411
Q

What type of air pollution causes loss of chlorophyll in plants?

A

PAN

412
Q

Injury to plants due to __ shows up as flecks, stipple and bleaching, tip burns on conifers and growth suppression.

A

Ozone

413
Q

Have been known to cause crippling skeletal damage to cattle through ingested contaminated vegetation.

A

Fluorides

414
Q

Animals are primarily affected by the pollutants in the air

A

Through ingesting vegetation

415
Q

What size particles can reach the lowest parts of the lung?

A

3 microns

416
Q

Emissions which find their way into the ambient air without being vented through a stack are known as

A

Fugitive emissions

417
Q

How are total suspended particles measured?

A

Collection and weighing

418
Q

Particle size selective inlets are used to separate particulates above and below 2 to 3 microns in size on

A

High volume samplers

419
Q

The Ringlemann chart method of evaluating particle pollution in the atmosphere is being replaced by a determination of the

A

Percent opacity

420
Q

Which of the following are examples of short-range primary pollutants?

A

Total suspended solids and sulfur dioxide

421
Q

Which of the following inversions develops at night under conditions of relatively clear skies and very light winds?

A

Radiational inversion

422
Q

The information needed to use an air quality model includes

A

Meteorological data, pollutant concentration data and source emission data

423
Q

The pitch of a sound is determined primarily by

A

Frequency

424
Q

The distance that a sound wave travels in one cycle or period is the

A

Wavelengths of the sound

425
Q

For workers, a sound level above __ dBA should be considered unsafe for daily exposure over a period of months.

A

90

426
Q

Chlorofluorocarbons increase the amount of ozone in atmosphere.

A

TRUE

427
Q

Bacteria and spores are considered natural sources of air pollution.

A

TRUE

428
Q

A sampling train is a device used to measured emissions from locomotives.

A

FALSE

429
Q

The United States Environmental Protection Agency has the sole responsibility for implementing “The Noise Control Act of 1971”.

A

FALSE

430
Q

FCs are widely used because of their

A

Chemical stability

431
Q

The Montreal Protocol agrees to control the

A

Use of all ozone depleting chemicals or substances

432
Q

Methyl bromide is used primarily as a

A

Pesticide

433
Q

The “Ozone Hole” was first noticed in

A

Antarctica

434
Q

The Safe New Alternatives Policy program (SNAP)

A

Specifies alternatives for all ozone-depleting substances

435
Q

A major effect of stratospheric ozone layer depletion is

A

Increase in incidence of non-melanoma skin cancer

436
Q

When absorbed daytime heat is radiated quickly into space and the temperature of surface air drops below that of the air above it, the condition is referred to as:

A

Radiation inversion

437
Q

Which one of the following is the major source of air pollution in the United States?

A

Automotive vehicles

438
Q

All of the following are criteria pollutants except:

A

Carbon dioxide

439
Q

Acid condensates, dust, soot and smoke are considered:

A

Particulate matter

440
Q

The most dangerous of the particulate air pollutants in terms of human health are:

A

Aerosols

441
Q

National Ambient Air Quality Standards have been set for all of the following except:

A

Carbon dioxides

442
Q

The major source of sulfur dioxides is:

A

Fuel combustion

443
Q

One of the main precursors of acid rain is:

A

Sulfur dioxide

444
Q

Which one of the following is generally found at the highest concentrations in urban atmospheres?

A

Carbon monoxide

445
Q

Which one of the following is most dangerous to humans who have heart problems?

A

Carbon monoxide

446
Q

Which one of the following has been implicated in many rush-hour traffic accidents?

A

Carbon monoxide poisoning

447
Q

The only criteria gas that is colored is:

A

Nitrogen dioxide

448
Q

The major constituent of the photochemical oxidants is:

A

Ozone

449
Q

The chemical used as a measure of the oxidant level of the atmosphere at any given time is:

A

Ozone

450
Q

Which one of the following crops would probably be least affected by air pollution?

A

Potatoes

451
Q

The pollutant that would most likely cause the most damage to the nervous system would be:

A

Lead

452
Q

Which one of the following is most hazardous to human health?

A

Asbestos

453
Q

The Emergency Planning and Community-Right-to-Know Act was prompted by the accident at:

A

Chernobyl

454
Q

The greatest number of casualties as the result of air pollution occurred in:

A

Meuse River Valley, Belgium

455
Q

The first major recorded episode of air pollution that produced human casualties occurred in:

A

Donora, PA

456
Q

Perhaps the major weakness of using animal studies to determine “safe” level of air pollutants is:

A

Difficulty in extrapolating the results to humans

457
Q

The major effects of air pollution on human health deal with:

A

Respiratory problems

458
Q

Pollutants in the ambient air most associated with heightened risk of death and disease are:

A

Particulate

459
Q

High level of particulate air pollution have been associated with all of the following except:

A

Skin cancer

460
Q

Which one of the following has not been associated with slowing or halting respiratory tract cilia movement?

A

Carbon dioxide

461
Q

Inhalation of which one of the following may result in chronic airway resistance?

A

Sulfur dioxide

462
Q

In the United States the first federal attempt to regulate pollutant emissions was enacted in:

A

1955

463
Q

Which one of the following gave the federal government a modest degree of authority to attack interstate air pollution problems?

A

Clean Air Act

464
Q

The first emission standards for automobiles dealt with emission of?

A

hydrocarbons

465
Q

Regulations regarding automobile emission standards began with automobiles manufactured in:

A

1968

466
Q

A problem associated with passage of federal air control standards was:

A

They relied on voluntary compliance by states

467
Q

Earth Day began in:

A

1970

468
Q

The legal precedents that form the basis of US air quality control regulations currently in effect began with the:

A

Clean Air Act Amendments of 1970

469
Q

The Clean Air Act Amendments of 1990 did all of the following except:

A

Reauthorize funding for the EPA

470
Q

Setting levels of pollutants that are intended to safeguard human health yet allow a margin of safety to protect more vulnerable segments of the population are called:

A

Primary standards

471
Q

Parts of the country that fail to bring their pollution levels into compliance with National Ambient Air Quality Standards are called:

A

Non-attainment areas

472
Q

Perhaps the most difficult of the pollutants to control is:

A

ozone

473
Q

Standards designed to promote human welfare by protecting agriculture crops, livestock, property and the environment in general are called:

A

Secondary standards

474
Q

Catalytic converters work to reduce all of the following except:

A

Carbon dioxide

475
Q

The first state to implement a motor vehicle inspection and maintenance program was:

A

New Jersey

476
Q

In order to implement and enforce federal Clean Air Act requirements, states must:

A

Develop state implementation plans

477
Q

A major problem that is thwarting efforts to clean up the air is:

A

Lack of routine air quality monitoring in developing nations

478
Q

According to the World Health Organization, approximately what percentage of the world’s population breathes air that contains health-threatening levels of particulate?

A

70

479
Q

The only country in the world to compensate victims of air pollution is:

A

Japan

480
Q

Which area of the United States is projected to be most heavily affected by stricter air quality regulations:

A

Los Angeles

481
Q

By nature, unpolluted rainfall:

A

Has a pH of between 5.0 and 5.6

482
Q

Acid Rain was first identified in:

A

England

483
Q

In terms of avoiding acid rainfall, in which of the areas would it be best to live?

A

Southern tip of Florida

484
Q

The majority of sulfur dioxide originated from:

A

Coal and oil burning power plants

485
Q

The majority of nitrogen oxide originates from:

A

Motor vehicles

486
Q

The reason acid rainfall is a politically-charged issue is:

A

Pollutant emissions involved may be produced many miles from regions suffering the effects

487
Q

The strategy most often used to solve sulfur dioxide emissions in close proximity to the plant that produces the emission is:

A

Building tall stacks to direct the emission upward

488
Q

The sensitivity of an ecosystem to acid precipitation is largely determined by the areas’s:

A

Buffering capacity

489
Q

Which one of the following areas of the United States would be most sensitive to acid precipaitation?

A

New England

490
Q

When a body of water becomes acidified, the first aquatic species to disappear are generally:

A

Freshwater shrimp

491
Q

The primary reason for fish disappearing from bodies of water becoming acidified is:

A

Their reproductive cycle is disrupted

492
Q

Shock loading refers to:

A

Several months’ accumulation of acid quickly melting into a spawning area

493
Q

Which one of the following metals is most fatal to fish when it becomes dissolved in acid waters?

A

Aluminum

494
Q

Mobilization of metals in acid water becomes a direct threat to human health when:

A

The acidified water is a source of drinking water

495
Q

Which one of the following is most affected by acid rain?

A

Conifer forests at high elevations

496
Q

Which one of the following is the most common “technological fix” for reduction of sulfur dioxide emissions?

A

Stack gas scrubbers

497
Q

The concept of utility companies brokering government-assigned allowances for sulfur dioxide emission is called:

A

Cap & trade

498
Q

At the top of the US Environmental Protection Agencies list of the 18 top cancer risks is:

A

Indoor air pollution

499
Q

The indoor air pollution problem may have worsened as the result of all of the following except:

A

Increased outside air-exchange

500
Q

The highest home radon concentration levels are most likely to be found in:

A

Basements