5. OPNAVINST 1700.10; OPNAVINST 1720.4A; OPNAVINST 5370.2D; OPNAVINST 3500.39C; OPNAVINST 5354.1F; OPNAVINST 1420.1B Flashcards
Who established the SOY Program to recognize the one Sailor representing the best of the Navy by demonstrating both professional and personal dedication?
CNO
Which date of each year must all command selecting a SOY have their selection boards completed and packages ready for submission to their respective force commander to allow adequate time for subsequent levels of competition?
December 1st
What year was the SOY Program expanded to recognize one outstanding Sailor to represent the many superior pretty officers serving in shore establishments Navy-wide?
1973
Which award will be given by the respective echelons for all selected SOYs below the force level of competition?
NAM
What year was the SOY Program expanded to include the Navy Enlisted Reservist of the Year (inactive)?
1982
What dates will the SOY Program competitive cycle run through?
October 1st - September 30th
How many-years of sustained superior performance will each SOY selection board review in order to remain consistent with a chief petty officer selection board process as the final candidates will be advanced to chief petty officer?
5
Each SOY category coordinator will forward competition dates to the Office of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON) no later than what date of each year?
December 15th
Which SOY competition levels and above will award the Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal to all participants?
Force
Which SOY Grading Sheet form will be used at all competition levels?
OPNAV 1940/3
Where will SOYs selected for advancement to Chief Petty Officer be assigned as students at the earliest opportunity following their advancement?
CPO Indoctrination
Who is typified by a history of sustained superior performance, command impact, mission contribution, proven leadership, dedication to self-improvement, outstanding professionalism, and superior personal appearance?
SOY Candidate
Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies?
Commander, Navy Installations Command
At least how often will suicide prevention training to be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military installations?
Annually
What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence (either implicit or explicit) of intent to die?
Suicide attempt
What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit or explicit) of the intent to die?
Suicide
Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy?
Deputy Chief of naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, training and Education) (N1)
Who develops the written procedures to ensure that chaplains/religious program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities throughout the Navy?
OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (N097)
How often should COs ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel?
Annually
Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibits suicide-related ideations, communications or behaviors?
Chief, BUMED
Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four elements of the Navy’s suicide prevention program?
Reporting
MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors?
OPNAVIST 3100.6
What should the minimum rank of the Suicide Prevention Coordinator (SPC) be whenever it is possible?
E-7
How many weeks after a member’s suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) and responds to unforeseen questions?
8-Jun
Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully implemented?
Suicide Prevention Coordinator (SPC)
Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which has not been excluded by the medical examiner?
60
The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include rate specific suicide intervention training at “A” schools and “C” schools for Hospital Corpsman, Religious Program Specialists and which other rate?
Master at Arms (MA)
Within how many days of medical evaluation must a Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service member, as determined by competent medical authority?
30
What is proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
What are any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors defined as?
Suicide-Related Ideations
What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)?
Self-harm
Personal relationship between _________ which are unduly familiar and do not respect differences in rank and grade are prohibited and violate long-standing custom and tradition of the naval service.
Officer and Enlisted members
Similar relationships which are unduly familiar ______ may also be prejudicial to good order and discipline or of a nature to bring discredit on the naval service and are prohibited.
Between officers or between enlisted members of different rank or grade
Officer and enlisted members are prohibited from engaging in ______ regardless of the service affiliation or service rules of the other person
unduly familiar personal relationships
Commands are expected to take what action as necessary to correct inappropriate behavior?
Administrative and Disciplinary
This instruction and prohibition of fraternization found in Article 1165 of the US Navy Regulations are ______ effective without further implementation.
Lawful General Orders
Violation of this instruction or Article 1165 subjects the involved members to disciplinary action under the?
Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members?
Custom and Tradition
Proper social interaction among officer and enlisted members has always been encouraged as it enhances?
Morale and esprit de corps
Why have unduly familiar personal relationships between officers and enlisted members traditionally been contrary to naval custom?
they undermine the respect for authority
Over how many years of seagoing experience demonstrates that seniors must maintain thoroughly professional relationships with juniors at all times?
220
Fraternization affects what?
good order, discipline, authority, and high unit morale
Custom requires that junior personnel recognize and respect the authority inherent in a senior’s?
Grade, Rank, or Position
What has traditionally defined proper senior-subordinate relationships?
Military customs and courtesies
What is the term traditionally used to identify personal relationships which contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate relationships?
Fraternization
Historically, and as used in this instruction, fraternization is a?
gender-neutral concept
Personal relationships between________ and_______ who are assigned to the same command, which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade, or rank, are prohibited.
Chief Petty Officers (E-7 to E-9) and junior personnel (E-1 to E-6)
Relationships which are unduly familiar between Staff/ Instructor and student personnel are prohibited. True or False?
TRUE
Relationships which are unduly familiar between Recruiting personnel and prospects are prohibited. True or False
TRUE
When does a prospect become an applicant for enlistment or appointment in any of the Armed Forces?
by beginning to complete a DD Form 1966. NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form
When prejudicial to good order or of a nature to bring discredit on the naval service, personal relationships between ______or _______ which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank are prohibited.
Officer members or Enlisted members
Prejudice to good order and discipline or discredit to the naval service may result from which circumstances?
Call into question a senior’s objectivity, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command
Give three examples of unduly familiar relations
Dating, borrowing money between enlisted and officer members, private business relationships.
Prejudice to good order and discipline and discredit to the naval service may occur when what happens?
the senior’s objectivity is called into question
By long-standing custom and tradition, ______ are separate and distinct leaders within their assigned command.
Chief Petty Officers
Conduct, which constitutes fraternization, is not excused or mitigated by a subsequent __________ between the offending parties.
Marriage
Service members who are married or otherwise related (i.e., father, son, etc.) to other service members, must maintain?
the requisite respect
Compatible with sea/shore rotation policy and the needs of the service, service members married to each other will not be assigned?
In the same chain of command
The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships must rest primarily on the?
Senior Member
Who will ensure General Military training throughout the Navy on Fraternization?
Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division (N13)
Who will provide indoctrination and annual training to all hands on the subject of fraternization?
Commanders
How often will fraternization training be provided by Commanders?
Annually
Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance?
OPNAV (N09F)
What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure?
Human Error
Who is the ORM model manager?
Commander, Navy Safety Center (NAVSAFECEN)
How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination?
Annually
How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness?
Biennially
What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits?
ORM
Who serves as the Navy’s ORM program subject matter expert?
Commander, Navy Safety Center (NAVSAFECEN)
Which activity shall integrate specific applications of the ORM process into Navy occupational standards for the Navy’s individual training standards?
Naval Manpower Analysis Center
Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training of all military and civilian command personnel?
Command ORM manager
Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task?
In-depth
Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation?
Identify and Assess hazards
In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on?
Time critical
What is the foundation of the entire risk management process?
Hazard Identification
Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness?
Category 4
What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an intuitive fashion with help screens and process information?
Total Risk Assessment and Control System (TRACS)
What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called?
Probability
What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation?
Root cause
What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death , or property damage?
Hazard
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time?
A
Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission?
Category 1
Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category 2
How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process?
4
What decision making tool is used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks?
ORM
What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or task?
Severity
Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category 3
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time?
B
Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task?
Deliberate
Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level?
ABCD
The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step?
Supervise
What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level?
Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM)
Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the “Do and Debrief the events (D)” in the mnemonic of the ABCD model correlated to?
Implement controls and Supervise
Which ORM steps does the “Assess the Situation (A)” in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model combine?
Identify Hazards and Assess Hazards
Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM process?
Communicate to others (C)
Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions?
Balance Resources
Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn ne or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding?
ABCD
Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command ORM manager?
XO
Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one-time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training?
Accession point
How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course?
Triennially
Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command?
ORM manager
How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?
Annually
What is used to measure ORM implementation?
ORM evaluation
How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by an activity or command for self-assessment?
2
Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel, or the mission?
Consequential
What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as?
Controls
What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard?
Exposure
Which condition refers to all the items that complete for an individual’s or crew’s attention during the execution of a mission or task?
Additive Condition
What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity?
Risk
What is the portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called?
Acceptable
What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people, or equipment?
Resource
What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one’s perception of the current environment mirrors reality?
Situational Awareness (SA)
How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process?
6
What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an operation, task, or mission?
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas, deferring judgment until the end of the session?
Brainstorming
What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards?
Operational Analysis
What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have ben identified and selected?
Residual risk
What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help determine hazard abatement priorities?
Risk Assessment Code (RAC)
Who issues policies and procedures as a separate instruction on Department of the Navy Civilian Discrimination Complaints Program?
Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (DASN CHR)
Whose objective is it to promote positive command morale and Quality of Life by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
What are the possible disciplinary actions for persons who discriminate ? (1) Informal counseling(2) Comments in fitness reports and evaluations and punitive measures under the Uniform code of Military Justice(3) Administrative Separation(4) All of the above
(4) All of the above
What shall service members be evaluated on?
Individual merit, fitness and capability
What are the Navy’s focus when our Navy’s core values are not adhered to?
Good order, discipline and military readines.
Which article states that Navy personnel are prohibited from participating in organization that supports supremacist causes?
Article 1167
What are prohibited under this instruction regardless of who originates the action?
Reprisals
True or False: A service members may be punished for knowingly making a false accusation of unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment?
TRUE
True or False: While in a supervisory or command position, it is lawful to condone or ignore unlawful discrimination or Sexual harassment of which individuals have knowledge or have reason to have knowledge as long as you are not the perpetrator?
FALSE
Who shall advocate the Equal Opportunity (EO) program for Navy military and civilian personnel, and report Navy-wide climate assessment survey results to the fleet?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
Who shall ensure leadership opportunities and an equitable assignment process exist for all personnel?
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)
Who shall maintain overall control of the military Equal Opportunity Assessment (MEOA), and provide information, assessment, and status reports on minority affairs matters as required by higher authority?
Diversity and Women’s Policy Branch
How often shall the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an Equal Opportunity (EO) Climate Assessment describing the “health” and organizational effectiveness of the Navy (using the data collected from Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN), Office of the Judge Advocate General (OJAG), Fleet commanders, and Echelon 2 commands), by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication?
Annually
Who shall provide overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates?
Navy Equal Opportunity office (NEO)
What NEC is awarded to Equal Opportunity Advisors (EOA’s)?
9515
Office of the Judge Advocate (OJAG) shall provide summary of fiscal year UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150, actions relating to unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment annually to the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Office by what date?
November 15th
Who shall provide a summary of hotline allegations involving unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment by November 15th annually to the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Office?
Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN) and Echelon 2 Inspector Generals (IGs)
Who shall ensure an annual General Military Training (GMT) includes annual Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harrassment (SH) training and grievance procedure instructions as required?
Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
Who shall monitor Equal Opportunity status within subordinate commands?
Echelon 2 commanders
Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) shall ensure subordinate commanders assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command, and annually follow-up with assessments during their command tenure?
90 days
Who shall ensure that unlawful discrimination is absent in administrative and disciplinary proceedings?
commanders, Commanding Officers (CO’s), and (OIC’s)
What is the course number for Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD’s) Command Training Team Indoctrination training course?
CIN A -050-0001
What is the course number for Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD’s) Command Assessment Team Course?
NAVEDTRA 7523F
Commanding Officers should assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command?
90 days
It is recommended that the Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager be what rank?
E7 to E9 or an officer with four or more years of service
You must ensure completed copies of all NAVPERS 5354/2, Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint Forms are maintained in the Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager file for how long?
3 years
Who should you refer all unlawful discrimination or SH complaints against flag officers or Senior Executive Service (SES) officials?
Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN)
Who shall function as the single point of contact when practicable for Equal Opportunity (EO) issues, to include sexual harassment and discrimination, at the command?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager
Who is responsible for coordinating and monitoring all command Equal Opportunity (EO) training?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager
Who is responsible and accountable for reporting acts of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment in accordance with article 1137?
Individual Servicemembers
When can commanders issue an order that only English be spoken in a work place?
When they have a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for the rule
True or False: A rule requiring employees to speak only English at all times in the workplace is a burdensome term and condition of employment: therefore, personnel engaged in personal conversation off-duty should be allowed to communicate in the language of their choice?
TRUE
Which form is the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Formal Complaint Form?
NAVPERS 5354/2 (Rev 03/06)
Which form is the Report of Disposition of Offenses?
NAVPERS 1626/7 (Rev. 12/88)
Anyone who is alleged to have committed a violation of the Equal Opportunity (EO) policy is known as what?
Accused
A representative assigned by the commander to ensure that complainant, accused, and witness in an Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) case are informed of the Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) complaint process and advised of available support and counseling services is known as what?
Advocate
Anyone who is alleged to have committed a violation of the Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) policy, and is the subject of a informal complaint is known as what?
Alleged Offender
Which method is used to determine the “health” and functional effectiveness of an organization by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication?
Triangulation Method
What is required by parent commands upon receipt of a formal complaint?
Naval Message
Who is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military Equal Opportunity (EO), Equal Environment Opportunity (EEO), human relations, and diversity?
Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
Touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) is in what color zone?
Green zone
Behaviors that many people would find unacceptable and could be considered sexual harassment such as repeated requests for dates, leering, staring, or whistling, would fall under what color zone?
Yellow zone
Behaviors that are always considered sexual harassment which include sexual favors in return for employment rewards, threats if sexual favors are not provided, sexually explicit pictures (including calendars or posters) or remarks, using status to request dates, and obscene letters or comments falls into which color zone?
Red zone
A complaint should be made within how many days of the offending incident?
60 days
You should file complaints in good faith. Knowingly making a false official statement is a violation of which UCMJ article?
107
Personal receiving a formal complaint shall submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority within how many calendar days of receipt?
One
Within how many hours of receipt of a formal complaint should advocates be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender and any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing?
24 hours
The investigating officer should be senior to the complainant and the alleged offender and the investigation must commence within how many hours of the complaint submission?
72 hours
A close out message must be sent describing action taken, within how many days of investigation commencement. If the investigation is not completed by that point, an updated message must be sent every 14 days thereafter until the close-out message describing the case disposition is released?
20 days
Commands follow up will include a determination of complainant satisfaction with the effectiveness of corrective action, timeliness, present command climate, and a review to ensure reprisal did not occur. Commands must conduct the follow up debrief within how many days after final action?
30-45
If the complaint results in a hostile work environment what will commanders do, when possible, during the course of the investigation in regards to the complainant?
Temporarily relocate
Final resolution of an appeal on a formal complaint will rest with whom?
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
In processing this final appeal, the procedures applicable to the SECNAV review of UCMJ Article 138 complaints, as detailed in which chapter of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN), shall be used?
Chapter III
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers should serve in their position for a minimum of how long?
One year
How many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO’s/OIC’s ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIS?
60
Who monitors the Navy’s progress toward accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates?
CNO
Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel?
SECNAVINST 5300.26D
Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?
EOA
Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment?
Reasonable Person Standard
Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication?
Reprisal
What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified?
Equal Opportunity (EO)
Which system resolve Equal Opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level?
IRS
Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive?
Unwelcome
Where must unwelcome behavior occur in or impact to be considered Sexual Harassment?
Work environment
Which type of Sexual Harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
Quid Pro Quo
What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?
Chain of Command
How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity complaints and investigations for?
36
How often must EOA’s conduct a review of subordinate commands’ executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander?
Annually
How many-years of military service obligation are incurred by Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP) graduates?
8
How old must Officer Candidate School (OCS) applicants be?
19
How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day?
17
How many consecutive “good-low” final PRT scores prior to entry into the Officer Candidate School (OCS) program must applicant have?
2
Which commissioning program provide commissioning opportunities to qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree?
Limited Duty Officer (LDO) and Chief Warrant Officer (CWO) Programs
What are Naval Academy students designated as?
Midshipmen
How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate?
5
Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action?
3
What will Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program (MSC IPP) Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as after they complete their degree?
LT
What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy?
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS) Programs
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)applicants must be able to complete the nursing degree requirements and be commissioned prior to what age?
35
What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?
Officer Candidate School (OCS)
How many consecutive calendar months do Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP) selectees have to complete degree requirements?
36
What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the USMC Reserve?
2nd LTs
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Officer Candidate School (OCS) graduates?
4 years
Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps?
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)
How many weeks long is Officer Candidate School (OCS)?
13
What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program (MSC IPP) programs?
E-5
Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located which offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young men and women to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps?
Annapolis, Maryland
What is the minimum amount of months that Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program (MSC IPP) program selectees have to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)?
48
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES personnel who are selected for LDO?
3 years
What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must meet at the time of application and appointment?
Satisfactory medium
Which 9-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university assignment?
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active Duty and TAR personnel who are selected for CWO?
4 years
Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy’s Tuition Assistance Montgomery GI Bill (MGID) educational benefits?
BUPERSINST 1780.1
All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what course?
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active Duty and TAR personnel who are selected for LDO?
4 years
Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills?
LDO’s
Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field?
CWO’s
Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Naval Reserve to earn a degree and receive a commission?
STA-21
Which program was designated to improve STA-21 applicants academic skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)?
BOOST
Active Duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?
16 years
Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?
24 years
Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for LDO applicants?
3
How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a baccalaureate degree in?
36
Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance?
OPNAVINST 1160.6A
Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to supplement tuition cost, books, and fees?
$10,000
What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active Duty CWOs selected for LDO be appointed as?
O-2E
How many components make up STA-21?
3
What shall E-9 Active Duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO be appointment as that have completed 2 years Time In Rate (TIR) as of 1 October of the year in which the CWO board convenes?
CWO3
What form can officer applicants use to satisfy proof of U.S. Citizenship requirements if they reside in a state where it is illegal to copy the birth certificate?
DD Form 372
What is the minimum Service School duration that were attended but not listed on the Sailor/Marine American Council on Education Registry Transcript (SMART) that must be entered in block 25 of officer applications?
2 Weeks
What must the security manager obtain verification from that the appropriate entrance agency check is possessed by officer applicants?
Department of Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DONCAF)
Which completed form must OCS, MECP, or MSC IPP program applicants who do not have either a valid entry Level National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or National Agency Check (NAC) include with the Officer Programs Application?
SF 86
How many prior consecutive official PRT scores must be entered into block 19 of officer applications?
3
What must all commissioned officers possess?
U.S. Citizenship
What is the minimum active duty service obligation upon initial appointment for graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy?
5
What are Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are not selected for direct entry automatically considered for entrance into?
NAPS
What is the minimum American College Test (ACT)English score necessary to be considered for a Secretary of the Navy nomination to the naval Academy?
22
Applicants should not have passed which birthday on July 1st of the year that they will be considered for NAPS?
22nd
How many years may Midshipmen who complete the course of instruction in the Naval Academy and decline to accept an appointment as a commissioned officer be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty?
4
What is a four-year military college that offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young person to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps after obtaining a Bachelor of Science degree?
U.S. Naval Academy
Approximately how much money must be remitted by each Naval Academy candidate upon admission to the Naval Academy as an entry deposit which is applied to the initial uniform issue?
$2,500
What administers medical examinations for Naval Academy applicants?
DODMERB
A minimum of how many remaining months of active obligated service, as of July 1st of the entering year must service members offered an appointment to the Naval Academy have?
24
What will remain the final authority on whether a member meets Naval Academy academic requirements based on a whole person assessment?
Naval Academy’s Admissions Board
What is the maximum acceptable age of Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) or American College Test (ACT)scores when applying for the Naval Academy?
2 years
What is the maximum number of years that Midshipmen who are separated or whose resignations are accepted after the start of the junior year in the Naval Academy, but before completing the course of instruction, may be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty?
4
Which school provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training at the Naval Academy?
NAPS
How many enlisted members of the Regular and Reserve Navy and Marine Corps may be appointed to the Naval Academy each year by the Secretary of the Navy?
170
Applicants to the Naval Academy in addition to other requirements must be scholastically qualified with an acceptable secondary school transcript with college preparatory subjects and grades indicating college capability and a class standing normally in the top what percent in high school?
40%
What is the minimum age that people can be to apply to the Naval Academy?
17
What is usually the minimum score on the Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination required to be competitive?
35
Which initial commissioning program is for individuals possessing a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?
ODS
What age must Surface Warfare Officers (1160) be commissioned by?
29
What age must Pilots (1390) be commissioned by?
27
What minimum paygrade should the officer(s) conducting officer application interviews be?
O-3
How many weeks is Officer Candidate School (OCS)which is an intensive officer training and indoctrination program?
13
What is the minimum Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination score required for the Intel community?
45
What age must information Warfare Officers (1640) e commissioned by?
35
How many years of service obligation is incurred upon Pilot (131X) (Maritime and Rotary Wing Communities) community designation?
8
What age must Naval Flight Officers (1370) be commissioned by?
27
What age must Surface Warfare Officer (SWO)Information Professional (IP Option) be commissioned by?
35
There is no specific deadline for officer applications as selections are made on a continuous basis throughout the year except for which officers that have annual selections?
Public Affairs Officer (PAO)
What is the minimum active duty obligation incurred by Officer Candidate School (OCS) graduates?
4 years
What age must Public Affairs Officers (1650) be commissioned by?
35
E-4 and below enlisted applicants are designated as officer candidates and will be advanced to what paygrade upon reporting to Officer Candidate School (OCS)?
E-5
Enlisted Officer Candidate School (OCS) applicants in what paygrades or above are designated as officer candidates in their present paygrades?
E-5
Which officer program disqualifies personnel who have defective color vision?
Unrestricted Line (URL)
How many officer interviews are required for an officer application?
3
How many years of active duty service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates?
4
MECP applicants are required to submit a pre-commissioning SF 88 or DD Form 2808 and SF 93 or DD Form 2807-1 within the last 12 months (or how many months for those applicants deployed)?
18
MECP selectees are authorized to reenlist more than 1 year early if they are unable to satisfy the 6 year obligated service requirement with an extension of how many months or less?
48
How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP appointees upon commissioning?
8
How many consecutive months do MECP selectees have to complete the requirements for a baccalaureate degree?
36
How many years of active service obligation by extending or reenlisting will be incurred by the MECP student prior to detaching their current command?
6
What convenes an annual selection board to consider eligible MECP applicants?
CHNAVPERS
Within how many days of notification of selection must any MECP selectee who does not desire to participate in the program notify Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM (Code OG3)?
15
Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM will report to the Chief of Naval Operations (N131M5) and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, BUMED (M131), a minimum of how many times per year, the names, last four digits of their social security numbers, administrative commands to which assigned, and expected graduation dates of all MECP candidates?
2
What is the minimum amount of transferable college credits needed to apply for MECP?
30
How many of the last consecutive years of EVAL’s shall all MECP packages contain?
5
Which commissioning program was specifically intended to provide an advancement pathway to a commissioned status in the Nurse Corps?
MECP
How many miles from a naval activity should colleges or universities be, when possible, to which the MECP participant will be ordered, for administrative purposes, on a Permanent Change of Station (PCS) basis?
50
How many years within the application due date are SAT or ACT test scores considered acceptable for MECP packages?
3
What is the minimum recommended SAT score for MECP applicants?
1000
What is the last birthday that MECP applicants can have reached by the time of initial appointment and commissioning to be eligible?
35th
MECP students are not required to have an annual physical, but must pass the Physical Readiness Test as required by what reference?
OPNAVINST 6110.1G
Within how many months after NAVMEDEDTRACOM receives a program letter of acceptance from the MECP selectee will PCS orders be issued?
5
What school must be completed by MECP appointees?
ODS
How many times can Nurse Corps Officers take and fail the licensure examination before they may be re-appointed through the training attrition process to a different officer community/designator to complete any incurred active duty obligation?
2
MSC IPP applicants must not have reached what birthday by time of initial appointment and commissioning?
35th
For Physician Assistant (PA) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants, minimum educational requirement is a high school diploma, GED, ASVAB or equivalent with how many semester hours of transferable college credit?
60
What form is required for all MSC IPP applicants who do not possess a current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check (NAC)?
SF 86
What is the minimum active duty military service obligation incurred by MSC IPP selectees upon commissioning?
3
What is the minimum GPA that Radiation Health Officer (RHO) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants must have?
3
Environmental Health Officer (EHO) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants, upon completion of baccalaureate degree in environmental health, will be commissioned and will be enrolled in a Master of Public Health degree program that lasts how long?
1 year
MSC IPP is available to communities for members of the Regular Navy and Regular Marine Corps, and Naval Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve on active duty, including Full Time Support (FTS), and Active Reserve (AR) serving in any rating or Military Occupational Specialty (MOS), in paygrades E-5 through what paygrade at the time of application (paygrade is not able to be waived)?
E-9
What is the minimum GPA that Health Care Administrator (HCA) IPP applicants must have?
2.5
What form is used by personnel who reside in States where it is illegal to copy, photocopy, or photograph birth certificates or naturalization certificates?
DD Form 372
Up to how many months do personnel selected for any MSC IPP program who require training to complete their degree (dependent upon the program) with benefits that include tuition, mandatory fees, book allowance, full pay and allowances for their enlisted paygrades, and eligibility for advancement while in college?
48
What is the recommended ACT score for MSC IPP candidates?
42
All applicants who have completed a bachelor’s degree, including applicants who have completed a master’s, must submit official GRE, GMAT, or the appropriate test scores defined within the specialty requirements completed within how many years of application due date for MSC IPP?
5
How many months must Industrial Health Officer (IHO) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants be able to complete a degree in?
24
Which chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department defines the physical qualifications required for appointment to LDO and CWO?
15
What are the minimum PRT scores that must be met by LDO and CWO applicants at the time of application and appointment?
Satisfactory medium
LDO and CWO applicants must be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action under Article 15, UCMJ, no courts martial conviction or civilian felony conviction, or conviction by a civil court or misdemeanors (except minor traffic violations ($300 or less) in the past how years as of 1 October of the year application is made?
3
How many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse result in disqualification for LDO and CWO applicants?
3
