5. OPNAVINST 1700.10; OPNAVINST 1720.4A; OPNAVINST 5370.2D; OPNAVINST 3500.39C; OPNAVINST 5354.1F; OPNAVINST 1420.1B Flashcards
1
Q
Who established the SOY Program to recognize the one Sailor representing the best of the Navy by demonstrating both professional and personal dedication?
A
CNO
2
Q
Which date of each year must all command selecting a SOY have their selection boards completed and packages ready for submission to their respective force commander to allow adequate time for subsequent levels of competition?
A
December 1st
3
Q
What year was the SOY Program expanded to recognize one outstanding Sailor to represent the many superior pretty officers serving in shore establishments Navy-wide?
A
1973
4
Q
Which award will be given by the respective echelons for all selected SOYs below the force level of competition?
A
NAM
5
Q
What year was the SOY Program expanded to include the Navy Enlisted Reservist of the Year (inactive)?
A
1982
6
Q
What dates will the SOY Program competitive cycle run through?
A
October 1st - September 30th
7
Q
How many-years of sustained superior performance will each SOY selection board review in order to remain consistent with a chief petty officer selection board process as the final candidates will be advanced to chief petty officer?
A
5
8
Q
Each SOY category coordinator will forward competition dates to the Office of the Master Chief Petty Officer of the Navy (MCPON) no later than what date of each year?
A
December 15th
9
Q
Which SOY competition levels and above will award the Navy and Marine Corps Commendation Medal to all participants?
A
Force
10
Q
Which SOY Grading Sheet form will be used at all competition levels?
A
OPNAV 1940/3
11
Q
Where will SOYs selected for advancement to Chief Petty Officer be assigned as students at the earliest opportunity following their advancement?
A
CPO Indoctrination
12
Q
Who is typified by a history of sustained superior performance, command impact, mission contribution, proven leadership, dedication to self-improvement, outstanding professionalism, and superior personal appearance?
A
SOY Candidate
13
Q
Who ensures that installation emergency response personnel receive annual training, which reviews safety precautions and procedures and de-escalation techniques, when responding to situations of potential suicide-related behaviors and psychiatric emergencies?
A
Commander, Navy Installations Command
14
Q
At least how often will suicide prevention training to be conducted for all Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) Service members and for all Navy civilian employees and full-time contractors who work on military installations?
A
Annually
15
Q
What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior with a non-fatal outcome that may or may not result in injury and for which there is evidence (either implicit or explicit) of intent to die?
A
Suicide attempt
16
Q
What is a self-inflicted death that has evidence (either implicit or explicit) of the intent to die?
A
Suicide
17
Q
Who is responsible for establishing a suicide prevention program policy?
A
Deputy Chief of naval Operations (Manpower, Personnel, training and Education) (N1)
18
Q
Who develops the written procedures to ensure that chaplains/religious program specialists execute their suicide prevention program responsibilities throughout the Navy?
A
OPNAV, Chief of Chaplains (N097)
19
Q
How often should COs ensure that suicide prevention training is conducted for all command personnel?
A
Annually
20
Q
Who develops the procedures and policy that ensure service members are properly evaluated and treated that exhibits suicide-related ideations, communications or behaviors?
A
Chief, BUMED
21
Q
Training, Intervention, Response, along with what else make up the four elements of the Navy’s suicide prevention program?
A
Reporting
22
Q
MILPERSMAN 1770 along with which series contains guidance for reporting suicides and suicide-related behaviors?
A
OPNAVIST 3100.6
23
Q
What should the minimum rank of the Suicide Prevention Coordinator (SPC) be whenever it is possible?
A
E-7
24
Q
How many weeks after a member’s suicide are commands advised to maintain copies of medical, dental and service records in order to complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) and responds to unforeseen questions?
A
8-Jun
25
Who aids the CO in ensuring that the suicide prevention program is fully implemented?
Suicide Prevention Coordinator (SPC)
26
Within how many days of notification of death shall commands complete the Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) to report suicide instances and undetermined deaths for which has not been excluded by the medical examiner?
60
27
The Commander, Naval Education and Training Command shall include rate specific suicide intervention training at "A" schools and "C" schools for Hospital Corpsman, Religious Program Specialists and which other rate?
Master at Arms (MA)
28
Within how many days of medical evaluation must a Department of Defense Suicide Event Report (DoDSER) be completed for all suicide attempts by AC and RC Service member, as determined by competent medical authority?
30
29
What is proposed method of carrying out a design that can potentially result in suicide-related behaviors?
Suicide Plan
30
What are any self-reported thoughts of engaging in suicide-related behaviors defined as?
Suicide-Related Ideations
31
What is any interpersonal action, verbal or nonverbal, without a direct self-injurious component, passive or active, for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person is communicating that a suicide-related behavior might occur in the near future?
Suicide Threat
32
What is a self-inflicted potentially injurious behavior called for which there is evidence (either explicit or implicit) that the person did not intend to kill themselves (i.e., had no intent to die)?
Self-harm
33
Personal relationship between _________ which are unduly familiar and do not respect differences in rank and grade are prohibited and violate long-standing custom and tradition of the naval service.
Officer and Enlisted members
34
Similar relationships which are unduly familiar ______ may also be prejudicial to good order and discipline or of a nature to bring discredit on the naval service and are prohibited.
Between officers or between enlisted members of different rank or grade
35
Officer and enlisted members are prohibited from engaging in ______ regardless of the service affiliation or service rules of the other person
unduly familiar personal relationships
36
Commands are expected to take what action as necessary to correct inappropriate behavior?
Administrative and Disciplinary
37
This instruction and prohibition of fraternization found in Article 1165 of the US Navy Regulations are ______ effective without further implementation.
Lawful General Orders
38
Violation of this instruction or Article 1165 subjects the involved members to disciplinary action under the?
Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ)
39
What has the Navy historically relied upon to define the bounds of acceptable personal relationships among its members?
Custom and Tradition
40
Proper social interaction among officer and enlisted members has always been encouraged as it enhances?
Morale and esprit de corps
41
Why have unduly familiar personal relationships between officers and enlisted members traditionally been contrary to naval custom?
they undermine the respect for authority
42
Over how many years of seagoing experience demonstrates that seniors must maintain thoroughly professional relationships with juniors at all times?
220
43
Fraternization affects what?
good order, discipline, authority, and high unit morale
44
Custom requires that junior personnel recognize and respect the authority inherent in a senior's?
Grade, Rank, or Position
45
What has traditionally defined proper senior-subordinate relationships?
Military customs and courtesies
46
What is the term traditionally used to identify personal relationships which contravene the customary bounds of acceptable senior-subordinate relationships?
Fraternization
47
Historically, and as used in this instruction, fraternization is a?
gender-neutral concept
48
Personal relationships between________ and_______ who are assigned to the same command, which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade, or rank, are prohibited.
Chief Petty Officers (E-7 to E-9) and junior personnel (E-1 to E-6)
49
Relationships which are unduly familiar between Staff/ Instructor and student personnel are prohibited. True or False?
TRUE
50
Relationships which are unduly familiar between Recruiting personnel and prospects are prohibited. True or False
TRUE
51
When does a prospect become an applicant for enlistment or appointment in any of the Armed Forces?
by beginning to complete a DD Form 1966. NAVCRUIT 1100/11, or comparable form
52
When prejudicial to good order or of a nature to bring discredit on the naval service, personal relationships between ______or _______ which are unduly familiar and that do not respect differences in grade or rank are prohibited.
Officer members or Enlisted members
53
Prejudice to good order and discipline or discredit to the naval service may result from which circumstances?
Call into question a senior's objectivity, preferential treatment, undermining authority, compromising chain of command
54
Give three examples of unduly familiar relations
Dating, borrowing money between enlisted and officer members, private business relationships.
55
Prejudice to good order and discipline and discredit to the naval service may occur when what happens?
the senior's objectivity is called into question
56
By long-standing custom and tradition, ______ are separate and distinct leaders within their assigned command.
Chief Petty Officers
57
Conduct, which constitutes fraternization, is not excused or mitigated by a subsequent __________ between the offending parties.
Marriage
58
Service members who are married or otherwise related (i.e., father, son, etc.) to other service members, must maintain?
the requisite respect
59
Compatible with sea/shore rotation policy and the needs of the service, service members married to each other will not be assigned?
In the same chain of command
60
The responsibility for preventing inappropriate relationships must rest primarily on the?
Senior Member
61
Who will ensure General Military training throughout the Navy on Fraternization?
Director, Military Personnel Plans and Policy Division (N13)
62
Who will provide indoctrination and annual training to all hands on the subject of fraternization?
Commanders
63
How often will fraternization training be provided by Commanders?
Annually
64
Who is responsible for issuing Navy ORM program policy guidance?
OPNAV (N09F)
65
What is the most common cause of task degradation or mission failure?
Human Error
66
Who is the ORM model manager?
Commander, Navy Safety Center (NAVSAFECEN)
67
How often must the command ORM manager submit ORM lessons learned and best practices to the ORM model manager for dissemination?
Annually
68
How often must NETC and all other commands involved in the formal training of personnel in ORM report training effectiveness?
Biennially
69
What is used to reduce or offset risks by systematically identifying hazards and assessing and controlling the associated risks allowing decisions to be made that weigh risks against mission or task benefits?
ORM
70
Who serves as the Navy's ORM program subject matter expert?
Commander, Navy Safety Center (NAVSAFECEN)
71
Which activity shall integrate specific applications of the ORM process into Navy occupational standards for the Navy's individual training standards?
Naval Manpower Analysis Center
72
Who ensures that ORM is included in the orientation and training of all military and civilian command personnel?
Command ORM manager
73
Which risk management level refers to situations when time is not a limiting factor and the right answer is required for a successful mission or task?
In-depth
74
Which steps comprise the risk assessment portion of ORM and provide enhanced awareness and understanding of a given situation?
Identify and Assess hazards
75
In depth, deliberate, along with what else are the three levels that the risk management process is applied on?
Time critical
76
What is the foundation of the entire risk management process?
Hazard Identification
77
Which hazard severity category is indicated by little or no adverse impact on mission capability or unit readiness?
Category 4
78
What software guides users through each of the five ORM steps in an intuitive fashion with help screens and process information?
Total Risk Assessment and Control System (TRACS)
79
What is an assessment of the likelihood that a potential consequence may occur as a result of a hazard called?
Probability
80
What is the first link in the chain of events referred to as that leads to mission or task degradation?
Root cause
81
What is any condition referred to as that has the potential to negatively impact mission accomplishment or cause injury, death , or property damage?
Hazard
82
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that are likely to occur, immediately or within a short period of time?
A
83
Which hazard severity category is defined as a loss of the ability to accomplish the mission?
Category 1
84
Which hazard severity category is defined as having significantly degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category 2
85
How many basic principles are there that provide the foundation for RM and the framework for implementing the ORM process?
4
86
What decision making tool is used by personnel at all levels to increase effectiveness by identifying, assessing, and managing risks?
ORM
87
What is an assessment of the potential consequences that can occur as a result of a hazard and is defined by the degree of injury, illness, property damage, loss of assets (time, money, personnel), or effect on the mission or task?
Severity
88
Which hazard severity category is identified by degraded mission capability or unit readiness?
Category 3
89
Which hazard probability category identifies hazards that will probably occur in time?
B
90
Which risk management level refers to situations when there is ample time to apply the RM process to the detailed planning of a mission or task?
Deliberate
91
Which model has the Navy adopted to facilitate the use of risk management at the time critical level?
ABCD
92
The ORM process is a systematic, continuous and repeatable process that consists of the following basic five steps: Identify the hazards, Assess the hazards, Make risk decisions, Implement controls; and what final step?
Supervise
93
What refers to applying ORM at the point of commencing or during execution of a mission or task, at the time critical level?
Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM)
94
Which steps of the 5-step ORM process is the "Do and Debrief the events (D)" in the mnemonic of the ABCD model correlated to?
Implement controls and Supervise
95
Which ORM steps does the "Assess the Situation (A)" in the mnemonic of the ABCD RM model combine?
Identify Hazards and Assess Hazards
96
Which part of the ABCD model is tied to all the steps of the 5-step ORM process?
Communicate to others (C)
97
Which part of the ABCD risk management model is specifically tied to making risk decisions?
Balance Resources
98
Which risk management model establishes a structure for individuals, teams, or crews to learn ne or complex behaviors, skills, or values or gain understanding?
ABCD
99
Which officer or the civilian equivalent will be designated as the command ORM manager?
XO
100
Which point of military service is the first structured encounter with formal military education and training for the individual and offers a one-time opportunity to introduce and integrate RM concepts with initial military skills training?
Accession point
101
How often must individuals take the ORM Fundamentals course?
Triennially
102
Who is responsible for making the decisions whether to accept risk or elevate it up the chain of command?
ORM manager
103
How often must all Navy commands conduct an ORM program evaluation?
Annually
104
What is used to measure ORM implementation?
ORM evaluation
105
How many different types of ORM evaluations can be used by an activity or command for self-assessment?
2
106
Which type of error leads to undesired consequences to property, personnel, or the mission?
Consequential
107
What are the actions taken or measures that are put in place to eliminate a hazard or reduce the associated identified risk defined as?
Controls
108
What is an expression that considers the frequency, length of time, and percentage of people or assets subjected to a hazard?
Exposure
109
Which condition refers to all the items that complete for an individual's or crew's attention during the execution of a mission or task?
Additive Condition
110
What is an expression of possible loss, adverse outcome, or negative consequence such as injury, illness in terms of probability, and severity?
Risk
111
What is the portion of identified risk that is allowed to persist during the mission or task called?
Acceptable
112
What can be used to develop controls that may include time, money, people, or equipment?
Resource
113
What refers to the degree of accuracy by which one's perception of the current environment mirrors reality?
Situational Awareness (SA)
114
How many steps are involved in the Navy Planning process?
6
115
What is used to create an initial list of the hazards that may exist in an operation, task, or mission?
Preliminary Hazard Analysis (PHA)
116
Which technique guides a group in an interactive exchange of ideas, deferring judgment until the end of the session?
Brainstorming
117
What is defined as the complete picture of what is expected to happen that assures all elements of a mission or task are evaluated for all potential hazards?
Operational Analysis
118
What is defined as the remaining risk after the controls have ben identified and selected?
Residual risk
119
What is an expression of the risk associated with a hazard that combines its severity and probability into a single Arabic numeral which can be used to help determine hazard abatement priorities?
Risk Assessment Code (RAC)
120
Who issues policies and procedures as a separate instruction on Department of the Navy Civilian Discrimination Complaints Program?
Deputy Assistant Secretary of the Navy Civilian Human Resources (DASN CHR)
121
Whose objective is it to promote positive command morale and Quality of Life by providing an environment in which all personnel can perform to their maximum ability, unimpeded by institutional or individual biases based on race, color, ethnicity, national origin, sex or religious stereotypes?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO)
122
What are the possible disciplinary actions for persons who discriminate ? (1) Informal counseling(2) Comments in fitness reports and evaluations and punitive measures under the Uniform code of Military Justice(3) Administrative Separation(4) All of the above
(4) All of the above
123
What shall service members be evaluated on?
Individual merit, fitness and capability
124
What are the Navy's focus when our Navy's core values are not adhered to?
Good order, discipline and military readines.
125
Which article states that Navy personnel are prohibited from participating in organization that supports supremacist causes?
Article 1167
126
What are prohibited under this instruction regardless of who originates the action?
Reprisals
127
True or False: A service members may be punished for knowingly making a false accusation of unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment?
TRUE
128
True or False: While in a supervisory or command position, it is lawful to condone or ignore unlawful discrimination or Sexual harassment of which individuals have knowledge or have reason to have knowledge as long as you are not the perpetrator?
FALSE
129
Who shall advocate the Equal Opportunity (EO) program for Navy military and civilian personnel, and report Navy-wide climate assessment survey results to the fleet?
Chief of Naval Operations (CNO)
130
Who shall ensure leadership opportunities and an equitable assignment process exist for all personnel?
Deputy Chief of Naval Operations (DCNO)
131
Who shall maintain overall control of the military Equal Opportunity Assessment (MEOA), and provide information, assessment, and status reports on minority affairs matters as required by higher authority?
Diversity and Women's Policy Branch
132
How often shall the Navy Equal Opportunity Office (NEO) provide an Equal Opportunity (EO) Climate Assessment describing the "health" and organizational effectiveness of the Navy (using the data collected from Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN), Office of the Judge Advocate General (OJAG), Fleet commanders, and Echelon 2 commands), by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication?
Annually
133
Who shall provide overall direction, guidance, support and leadership for the management of fleet and force command climates?
Navy Equal Opportunity office (NEO)
134
What NEC is awarded to Equal Opportunity Advisors (EOA's)?
9515
135
Office of the Judge Advocate (OJAG) shall provide summary of fiscal year UCMJ article 138, and U.S. Navy Regulations, article 1150, actions relating to unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment annually to the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Office by what date?
November 15th
136
Who shall provide a summary of hotline allegations involving unlawful discrimination and Sexual Harassment by November 15th annually to the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Office?
Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN) and Echelon 2 Inspector Generals (IGs)
137
Who shall ensure an annual General Military Training (GMT) includes annual Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harrassment (SH) training and grievance procedure instructions as required?
Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD)
138
Who shall monitor Equal Opportunity status within subordinate commands?
Echelon 2 commanders
139
Immediate Superiors In Command (ISIC) shall ensure subordinate commanders assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command, and annually follow-up with assessments during their command tenure?
90 days
140
Who shall ensure that unlawful discrimination is absent in administrative and disciplinary proceedings?
commanders, Commanding Officers (CO's), and (OIC's)
141
What is the course number for Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD's) Command Training Team Indoctrination training course?
CIN A -050-0001
142
What is the course number for Center for Personal and Professional Development (CPPD's) Command Assessment Team Course?
NAVEDTRA 7523F
143
Commanding Officers should assess their command climate within how many days of assuming command?
90 days
144
It is recommended that the Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager be what rank?
E7 to E9 or an officer with four or more years of service
145
You must ensure completed copies of all NAVPERS 5354/2, Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Sexual Harassment (SH) Formal Complaint Forms are maintained in the Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager file for how long?
3 years
146
Who should you refer all unlawful discrimination or SH complaints against flag officers or Senior Executive Service (SES) officials?
Naval Inspector General (NAVINSGEN)
147
Who shall function as the single point of contact when practicable for Equal Opportunity (EO) issues, to include sexual harassment and discrimination, at the command?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager
148
Who is responsible for coordinating and monitoring all command Equal Opportunity (EO) training?
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Manager
149
Who is responsible and accountable for reporting acts of unlawful discrimination and sexual harassment in accordance with article 1137?
Individual Servicemembers
150
When can commanders issue an order that only English be spoken in a work place?
When they have a legitimate, nondiscriminatory reason for the rule
151
True or False: A rule requiring employees to speak only English at all times in the workplace is a burdensome term and condition of employment: therefore, personnel engaged in personal conversation off-duty should be allowed to communicate in the language of their choice?
TRUE
152
Which form is the Navy Equal Opportunity (EO) Formal Complaint Form?
NAVPERS 5354/2 (Rev 03/06)
153
Which form is the Report of Disposition of Offenses?
NAVPERS 1626/7 (Rev. 12/88)
154
Anyone who is alleged to have committed a violation of the Equal Opportunity (EO) policy is known as what?
Accused
155
A representative assigned by the commander to ensure that complainant, accused, and witness in an Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) case are informed of the Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) complaint process and advised of available support and counseling services is known as what?
Advocate
156
Anyone who is alleged to have committed a violation of the Equal Opportunity (EO)/Sexual Harassment (SH) policy, and is the subject of a informal complaint is known as what?
Alleged Offender
157
Which method is used to determine the "health" and functional effectiveness of an organization by examining such factors as morale, teamwork, and communication?
Triangulation Method
158
What is required by parent commands upon receipt of a formal complaint?
Naval Message
159
Who is responsible for developing and conducting education and training in the administration of military Equal Opportunity (EO), Equal Environment Opportunity (EEO), human relations, and diversity?
Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI)
160
Touching which could not reasonably be perceived in a sexual way (such as shaking hands or a friendly pat on the shoulder) is in what color zone?
Green zone
161
Behaviors that many people would find unacceptable and could be considered sexual harassment such as repeated requests for dates, leering, staring, or whistling, would fall under what color zone?
Yellow zone
162
Behaviors that are always considered sexual harassment which include sexual favors in return for employment rewards, threats if sexual favors are not provided, sexually explicit pictures (including calendars or posters) or remarks, using status to request dates, and obscene letters or comments falls into which color zone?
Red zone
163
A complaint should be made within how many days of the offending incident?
60 days
164
You should file complaints in good faith. Knowingly making a false official statement is a violation of which UCMJ article?
107
165
Personal receiving a formal complaint shall submit the complaint to the commander or other designated authority within how many calendar days of receipt?
One
166
Within how many hours of receipt of a formal complaint should advocates be assigned to each complainant, alleged offender and any witness to ensure they are informed about complaint processing?
24 hours
167
The investigating officer should be senior to the complainant and the alleged offender and the investigation must commence within how many hours of the complaint submission?
72 hours
168
A close out message must be sent describing action taken, within how many days of investigation commencement. If the investigation is not completed by that point, an updated message must be sent every 14 days thereafter until the close-out message describing the case disposition is released?
20 days
169
Commands follow up will include a determination of complainant satisfaction with the effectiveness of corrective action, timeliness, present command climate, and a review to ensure reprisal did not occur. Commands must conduct the follow up debrief within how many days after final action?
30-45
170
If the complaint results in a hostile work environment what will commanders do, when possible, during the course of the investigation in regards to the complainant?
Temporarily relocate
171
Final resolution of an appeal on a formal complaint will rest with whom?
Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV)
172
In processing this final appeal, the procedures applicable to the SECNAV review of UCMJ Article 138 complaints, as detailed in which chapter of the Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN), shall be used?
Chapter III
173
Command Managed Equal Opportunity (CMEO) Managers should serve in their position for a minimum of how long?
One year
174
How many days of completing the command climate assessment must CO's/OIC's ensure that a Climate Assessment Executive Summary is submitted to the Echelon 3 EOA (as applicable) via the ISIS?
60
175
Who monitors the Navy's progress toward accomplishing EO goals and positive command climates?
CNO
176
Which instruction outlines sexual harassment policy for civilian personnel?
SECNAVINST 5300.26D
177
Who serves as the primary advisor and subject matter expert to commanders and CMEO Managers as well as provides assistance to other members in the chain of command on EO issues?
EOA
178
Which objective test is used to determine if behavior meets the legal test for unlawful discrimination or Sexual Harassment?
Reasonable Person Standard
179
Which term is defined as taking or threatening to take an unfavorable personnel action or withholding or threatening to withhold a favorable personnel action, or any other act of retaliation, against a military member for making or preparing a protected communication?
Reprisal
180
What is defined as the right of all persons to participate and benefit from the programs and activities for which they are qualified?
Equal Opportunity (EO)
181
Which system resolve Equal Opportunity complaints at the lowest appropriate chain of command level?
IRS
182
Which type of behavior is not asked for and is considered as undesirable or offensive?
Unwelcome
183
Where must unwelcome behavior occur in or impact to be considered Sexual Harassment?
Work environment
184
Which type of Sexual Harassment have personnel been subjected to when they are offered or denied something that is work-connected in return for submitting to or rejecting unwelcome sexual behavior?
Quid Pro Quo
185
What is the primary and preferred channel for identifying and correcting discriminatory practices?
Chain of Command
186
How many months must commands maintain completed Equal Opportunity complaints and investigations for?
36
187
How often must EOA's conduct a review of subordinate commands' executive summaries and provide a summary of the areas of concern to the commander?
Annually
188
How many-years of military service obligation are incurred by Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP) graduates?
8
189
How old must Officer Candidate School (OCS) applicants be?
19
190
How old must Naval Academy applicants be on Induction Day?
17
191
How many consecutive "good-low" final PRT scores prior to entry into the Officer Candidate School (OCS) program must applicant have?
2
192
Which commissioning program provide commissioning opportunities to qualified senior enlisted personnel without requiring a college degree?
Limited Duty Officer (LDO) and Chief Warrant Officer (CWO) Programs
193
What are Naval Academy students designated as?
Midshipmen
194
How many years of active duty service is the minimum service obligation upon initial appointment as an officer as a U.S. Naval Academy graduate?
5
195
Within how many years prior to application for the Naval Academy must applicants be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action?
3
196
What will Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program (MSC IPP) Pharmacy Program candidates be commissioned as after they complete their degree?
LT
197
What program provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training curricula at the U.S. Naval Academy?
Naval Academy Preparatory School (NAPS) Programs
198
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)applicants must be able to complete the nursing degree requirements and be commissioned prior to what age?
35
199
What is the initial commissioning program for individuals who possess at least a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?
Officer Candidate School (OCS)
200
How many consecutive calendar months do Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP) selectees have to complete degree requirements?
36
201
What are U.S. Naval Academy Graduates commissioned as in the USMC Reserve?
2nd LTs
202
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Officer Candidate School (OCS) graduates?
4 years
203
Which program offers a commissioning opportunity for Nurse Corps?
Medical Enlisted Commissioning Program (MECP)
204
How many weeks long is Officer Candidate School (OCS)?
13
205
What is the minimum paygrade required to apply for Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program (MSC IPP) programs?
E-5
206
Where is the U.S. Naval Academy (USNA) located which offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young men and women to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps?
Annapolis, Maryland
207
What is the minimum amount of months that Medical Service Corps In-service Procurement Program (MSC IPP) program selectees have to complete their degree (dependent upon the program)?
48
208
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for SELRES personnel who are selected for LDO?
3 years
209
What is the minimum physical fitness standards that LDO applicants must meet at the time of application and appointment?
Satisfactory medium
210
Which 9-week course is an intensive officer preparation and indoctrination held at NETC which is attended by all selectees en route to their university assignment?
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
211
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation of Active Duty and TAR personnel who are selected for CWO?
4 years
212
Which instruction specifies that STA-21 students may not use nor are they eligible for tuition assistance under the Navy's Tuition Assistance Montgomery GI Bill (MGID) educational benefits?
BUPERSINST 1780.1
213
All special duty assignment pays (SDAP) cease upon transfer to what course?
Naval Science Institute (NSI)
214
What is the minimum incurred active duty obligation for Active Duty and TAR personnel who are selected for LDO?
4 years
215
Which type of officers are technically oriented and perform duties in specific occupational fields that require strong managerial skills?
LDO's
216
Which type of officers are technical specialists who perform duties requiring extensive knowledge and skills of a specific occupational field?
CWO's
217
Which commissioning program provides an excellent opportunity for highly motivated active duty enlisted personnel in the Naval Reserve to earn a degree and receive a commission?
STA-21
218
Which program was designated to improve STA-21 applicants academic skills before they attend the Naval Science Institute (NSI)?
BOOST
219
Active Duty LDO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?
16 years
220
Active Duty CWO applicants must not have more than how many years of active duty service?
24 years
221
Any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse within the last how many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will result in disqualification for LDO applicants?
3
222
How many months must STA-21 candidates be able to complete a baccalaureate degree in?
36
223
Which instruction contains STA-21 student SRB entitlement guidance?
OPNAVINST 1160.6A
224
Up to how much money per year will STA-21 students receive to supplement tuition cost, books, and fees?
$10,000
225
What permanent grade in the U.S. Navy will Active Duty CWOs selected for LDO be appointed as?
O-2E
226
How many components make up STA-21?
3
227
What shall E-9 Active Duty and inactive duty personnel selected for CWO be appointment as that have completed 2 years Time In Rate (TIR) as of 1 October of the year in which the CWO board convenes?
CWO3
228
What form can officer applicants use to satisfy proof of U.S. Citizenship requirements if they reside in a state where it is illegal to copy the birth certificate?
DD Form 372
229
What is the minimum Service School duration that were attended but not listed on the Sailor/Marine American Council on Education Registry Transcript (SMART) that must be entered in block 25 of officer applications?
2 Weeks
230
What must the security manager obtain verification from that the appropriate entrance agency check is possessed by officer applicants?
Department of Navy Central Adjudication Facility (DONCAF)
231
Which completed form must OCS, MECP, or MSC IPP program applicants who do not have either a valid entry Level National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or National Agency Check (NAC) include with the Officer Programs Application?
SF 86
232
How many prior consecutive official PRT scores must be entered into block 19 of officer applications?
3
233
What must all commissioned officers possess?
U.S. Citizenship
234
What is the minimum active duty service obligation upon initial appointment for graduates of the U.S. Naval Academy?
5
235
What are Enlisted members who apply to the U.S. Naval Academy and are not selected for direct entry automatically considered for entrance into?
NAPS
236
What is the minimum American College Test (ACT)English score necessary to be considered for a Secretary of the Navy nomination to the naval Academy?
22
237
Applicants should not have passed which birthday on July 1st of the year that they will be considered for NAPS?
22nd
238
How many years may Midshipmen who complete the course of instruction in the Naval Academy and decline to accept an appointment as a commissioned officer be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty?
4
239
What is a four-year military college that offers an outstanding opportunity for qualified young person to embark on careers as officers in the Navy or Marine Corps after obtaining a Bachelor of Science degree?
U.S. Naval Academy
240
Approximately how much money must be remitted by each Naval Academy candidate upon admission to the Naval Academy as an entry deposit which is applied to the initial uniform issue?
$2,500
241
What administers medical examinations for Naval Academy applicants?
DODMERB
242
A minimum of how many remaining months of active obligated service, as of July 1st of the entering year must service members offered an appointment to the Naval Academy have?
24
243
What will remain the final authority on whether a member meets Naval Academy academic requirements based on a whole person assessment?
Naval Academy's Admissions Board
244
What is the maximum acceptable age of Scholastic Assessment Test (SAT) or American College Test (ACT)scores when applying for the Naval Academy?
2 years
245
What is the maximum number of years that Midshipmen who are separated or whose resignations are accepted after the start of the junior year in the Naval Academy, but before completing the course of instruction, may be transferred to the Reserve component in an enlisted status and ordered to active duty?
4
246
Which school provides intensive instruction and preparation for the academic, military and physical training at the Naval Academy?
NAPS
247
How many enlisted members of the Regular and Reserve Navy and Marine Corps may be appointed to the Naval Academy each year by the Secretary of the Navy?
170
248
Applicants to the Naval Academy in addition to other requirements must be scholastically qualified with an acceptable secondary school transcript with college preparatory subjects and grades indicating college capability and a class standing normally in the top what percent in high school?
40%
249
What is the minimum age that people can be to apply to the Naval Academy?
17
250
What is usually the minimum score on the Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination required to be competitive?
35
251
Which initial commissioning program is for individuals possessing a minimum of a baccalaureate degree from an accredited institution?
ODS
252
What age must Surface Warfare Officers (1160) be commissioned by?
29
253
What age must Pilots (1390) be commissioned by?
27
254
What minimum paygrade should the officer(s) conducting officer application interviews be?
O-3
255
How many weeks is Officer Candidate School (OCS)which is an intensive officer training and indoctrination program?
13
256
What is the minimum Officer Aptitude Rating (OAR) examination score required for the Intel community?
45
257
What age must information Warfare Officers (1640) e commissioned by?
35
258
How many years of service obligation is incurred upon Pilot (131X) (Maritime and Rotary Wing Communities) community designation?
8
259
What age must Naval Flight Officers (1370) be commissioned by?
27
260
What age must Surface Warfare Officer (SWO)Information Professional (IP Option) be commissioned by?
35
261
There is no specific deadline for officer applications as selections are made on a continuous basis throughout the year except for which officers that have annual selections?
Public Affairs Officer (PAO)
262
What is the minimum active duty obligation incurred by Officer Candidate School (OCS) graduates?
4 years
263
What age must Public Affairs Officers (1650) be commissioned by?
35
264
E-4 and below enlisted applicants are designated as officer candidates and will be advanced to what paygrade upon reporting to Officer Candidate School (OCS)?
E-5
265
Enlisted Officer Candidate School (OCS) applicants in what paygrades or above are designated as officer candidates in their present paygrades?
E-5
266
Which officer program disqualifies personnel who have defective color vision?
Unrestricted Line (URL)
267
How many officer interviews are required for an officer application?
3
268
How many years of active duty service obligation are incurred by MECP graduates?
4
269
MECP applicants are required to submit a pre-commissioning SF 88 or DD Form 2808 and SF 93 or DD Form 2807-1 within the last 12 months (or how many months for those applicants deployed)?
18
270
MECP selectees are authorized to reenlist more than 1 year early if they are unable to satisfy the 6 year obligated service requirement with an extension of how many months or less?
48
271
How many years of military service obligation are incurred by MECP appointees upon commissioning?
8
272
How many consecutive months do MECP selectees have to complete the requirements for a baccalaureate degree?
36
273
How many years of active service obligation by extending or reenlisting will be incurred by the MECP student prior to detaching their current command?
6
274
What convenes an annual selection board to consider eligible MECP applicants?
CHNAVPERS
275
Within how many days of notification of selection must any MECP selectee who does not desire to participate in the program notify Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM (Code OG3)?
15
276
Commander, NAVMEDEDTRACOM will report to the Chief of Naval Operations (N131M5) and the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery, BUMED (M131), a minimum of how many times per year, the names, last four digits of their social security numbers, administrative commands to which assigned, and expected graduation dates of all MECP candidates?
2
277
What is the minimum amount of transferable college credits needed to apply for MECP?
30
278
How many of the last consecutive years of EVAL's shall all MECP packages contain?
5
279
Which commissioning program was specifically intended to provide an advancement pathway to a commissioned status in the Nurse Corps?
MECP
280
How many miles from a naval activity should colleges or universities be, when possible, to which the MECP participant will be ordered, for administrative purposes, on a Permanent Change of Station (PCS) basis?
50
281
How many years within the application due date are SAT or ACT test scores considered acceptable for MECP packages?
3
282
What is the minimum recommended SAT score for MECP applicants?
1000
283
What is the last birthday that MECP applicants can have reached by the time of initial appointment and commissioning to be eligible?
35th
284
MECP students are not required to have an annual physical, but must pass the Physical Readiness Test as required by what reference?
OPNAVINST 6110.1G
285
Within how many months after NAVMEDEDTRACOM receives a program letter of acceptance from the MECP selectee will PCS orders be issued?
5
286
What school must be completed by MECP appointees?
ODS
287
How many times can Nurse Corps Officers take and fail the licensure examination before they may be re-appointed through the training attrition process to a different officer community/designator to complete any incurred active duty obligation?
2
288
MSC IPP applicants must not have reached what birthday by time of initial appointment and commissioning?
35th
289
For Physician Assistant (PA) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants, minimum educational requirement is a high school diploma, GED, ASVAB or equivalent with how many semester hours of transferable college credit?
60
290
What form is required for all MSC IPP applicants who do not possess a current Entrance National Agency Check (ENTNAC) or a National Agency Check (NAC)?
SF 86
291
What is the minimum active duty military service obligation incurred by MSC IPP selectees upon commissioning?
3
292
What is the minimum GPA that Radiation Health Officer (RHO) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants must have?
3
293
Environmental Health Officer (EHO) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants, upon completion of baccalaureate degree in environmental health, will be commissioned and will be enrolled in a Master of Public Health degree program that lasts how long?
1 year
294
MSC IPP is available to communities for members of the Regular Navy and Regular Marine Corps, and Naval Reserve and Marine Corps Reserve on active duty, including Full Time Support (FTS), and Active Reserve (AR) serving in any rating or Military Occupational Specialty (MOS), in paygrades E-5 through what paygrade at the time of application (paygrade is not able to be waived)?
E-9
295
What is the minimum GPA that Health Care Administrator (HCA) IPP applicants must have?
2.5
296
What form is used by personnel who reside in States where it is illegal to copy, photocopy, or photograph birth certificates or naturalization certificates?
DD Form 372
297
Up to how many months do personnel selected for any MSC IPP program who require training to complete their degree (dependent upon the program) with benefits that include tuition, mandatory fees, book allowance, full pay and allowances for their enlisted paygrades, and eligibility for advancement while in college?
48
298
What is the recommended ACT score for MSC IPP candidates?
42
299
All applicants who have completed a bachelor's degree, including applicants who have completed a master's, must submit official GRE, GMAT, or the appropriate test scores defined within the specialty requirements completed within how many years of application due date for MSC IPP?
5
300
How many months must Industrial Health Officer (IHO) In-service Procurement Program (IPP) applicants be able to complete a degree in?
24
301
Which chapter of the Manual of the Medical Department defines the physical qualifications required for appointment to LDO and CWO?
15
302
What are the minimum PRT scores that must be met by LDO and CWO applicants at the time of application and appointment?
Satisfactory medium
303
LDO and CWO applicants must be of good moral character and have no record of disciplinary action under Article 15, UCMJ, no courts martial conviction or civilian felony conviction, or conviction by a civil court or misdemeanors (except minor traffic violations ($300 or less) in the past how years as of 1 October of the year application is made?
3
304
How many years as of 1 October of the year application is made will any substantiated drug or alcohol abuse result in disqualification for LDO and CWO applicants?
3
