4. TRICARE CHOICES; TRICARE DENTAL; NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1; NAVMED P-5132; NMCPHC-TIM 6250.1 Flashcards
What is the Department of Defense’s worldwide health care program available to eligible beneficiaries from any of the seven uniformed services?
TRICARE
Which system is used to maintain Tricare eligibility information?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)
How many consecutive days at a minimum must National Guard and Reserve members be called or ordered to active service to be eligible to participate in the Active Duty TRICARE program?
30
Sponsors and family members lose TRICARE eligibility after active duty separation (non-retirement) but can qualify for a period of continued coverage under the Transitional Assistance Management Program along with which other program?
Continued Health Care Benefit Program
Who provides referrals under TRICARE Prime to receive services from specialty care providers and coordinates the referral request with the regional contractor when necessary?
Primary Care Management (PCM)
How many miles must personnel be within an available primary care management (PCM) to enroll in TRICARE Prime?
100
Which TRICARE Prime options are available to Active Duty Service Members (ADSMs) living and working in remote locations and their family members?
Tricare Prime Remote (TPR) and TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members (TPRADFM)
The US Family Health Plan (USFHP) is a TRICARE Prime option in which care is provided through networks of community-based, not-for-profit health care systems in how many areas of the United States?
6
What is the maximum out-of-pocket amount an individual or family pays per FY for TRICARE- covered services?
Catastrophic cap
Up to what age are retirees allowed to enroll in TRICARE Prime or USFHP?
65
What is the fixed amount a TRICARE Prime beneficiary pays for health care services?
Copayment
What is the form number for the TRICARE Prime Enrollment, Disenrollment, and Primary Care Management (PCM) Change Form?
DD Form 2876
Which options allows TRICARE Prime beneficiaries to pay additional out-of-pocket costs to receive nomemergency health care services from any TRICARE - authorized provider without a referral?
Point-of-Service (POS)
The Point-of-Service (POS) option does not apply to newborns or adopted children within the first how many days after birth or adoption?
60
The Point-of-Service (POS) option does not apply to the first how many mental health care outpatient visits per fiscal year to a network provider for a medically diagnosed and covered condition?
8
How many types of TRICARE authorized providers are there?
2
Which type of TRICARE authorized providers have a signed agreement with your regional contractor to provide care and file claims for you?
Network providers
Up to what percent above the TRICARE- allowable charge can non-network providers charge when they don’t participate on a claim?
15%
Which act requires you to have health care coverage that meets a minimum standard called minimum essential coverage?
Affordable Care Act (ACA)
What is the annual amount that a beneficiary must pay for covered outpatient services before TRICARE begins to pay for or reimburse for those services?
Annual Deductible
What is a premium-based, worldwide health care plan that qualified Selected Reserve members and qualified survivors may purchase for themselves and/or their family members?
TRICARE Reserve Select (TRS)
What is the percentage a TRICARE beneficiary must pay for covered inpatient and outpatient services (other than the annual deductible or disallowed amounts)?
Cost-Share
What is a premium-based, worldwide health care plan that qualified Retired Reserve members and qualified survivors may purchase for themselves and/or their family members?
TRICARE Retired Reserve (TRR)
If you are eligible for both TFL and VA benefits and elect to use your TFL benefit for non-service connected care, you will incur significant out-of-pocket expenses when seeing a VA provider. By law, TRICARE can only pay up to what percent of the TRICARE allowable amount?
20%
What can beneficiaries who have lost all TRICARE eligibility purchase to keep coverage if they qualify/
Continued Health Care Benefits Program (CHCBP)
What is the minimum age to be eligible to purchase Tricare Young Adult Coverage?
21
How many days of transitional health care benefits to help certain service members and their families transitions to civilian life is provided by Transitional Assistance Management Program (TAMP)?
180
Up to how many months of continued health coverage can be provided by the Continued Health Care Benefits Program (CHCBP)
36
If personnel qualify they can purchase CHCBP coverage within how many days of loss of TRICARE or TAMP coverage?
60
How many days worth of most medications at no cost can personnel receive from military pharmacies?
90
Over how many TRICARE retail network pharmacies are there?
57,000
The DoD has established a how many tier uniform formulary that groups prescription drugs that may be reimbursed by TRICARE?
Three
Which tier of prescription drugs have the highest out of pocket costs?
Tier 3
What is the TRICARE Dental Program(TDP) administered by?
MetLife
How many geographical service areas is the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) divided into?
2
Which system is used to confirm TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) eligibility?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)
Family members of active duty service members (ADSMs) including unmarried children until reaching which age are eligible to enroll in TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) ?
21
Family members of active duty service members (ADSMs) including unmarried children until reaching which age are eligible to enroll in TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) if enrolled in a full-time course of study at an approved institution of higher learning, and if the sponsor provides over 50 percent of the financial support?
23
A family enrollment is defined as how many or more covered family members?
2
Children under which age may be voluntarily enrolled at any time into the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP)?
4
All beneficiaries must remain enrolled in the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) for at least how many months?
12
If an Active Duty Service Member (ADSM) transfers with TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) - enrolled family members to a duty station where space-available dental care is available at the local Dental Treatment Facility (DTF), the ADSM may choose to terminate enrollment for his or her family members from the TDP within how many calendar days of the transfer?
90
If you fail to pay your TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) monthly premium(s), your TDP enrollment will be terminated. You will be prohibited from reenrolling in the program, or “locked out”, for how many months following the last month that premiums were paid?
12
When a sponsor dies, the surviving spouse and children are eligible for the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) Survivor Benefit. Spouses are eligible for how many years beginning on the date of the sponsor’s death?
3
How often does the Department of Defense require all National Guard and Reserve members to undergo dental examinations?
Annually
Which form will be used to assist TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) -enrolled National Guard and Reserve members in documenting dental health?
DD FORM 2813
National Guard and Reserve sponsors are eligible to enroll in the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) when they are not on active duty for more than how many consecutive days?
30
Which type of dentist has signed a contractual agreement with MetLife to follow TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) rules for providing care and accepting payments?
Preffered Dentist Program (PDP)
When using a Preferred Dentist Program (PDP) dentist, you should never pay more than the applicable cost-share for covered services subject to applicable maximums, limitations, and exclusions. MetLife recommends that you have your dentist submit a predetermination request when the cost is expected to be above which amount?
$300
You will be able to seek care from a non-PDP dentist and MetLife will pay the claim for that particular procedure in a manner that limits your out-of-pocket costs to approximately what they would be from a Preferred Dentist Program (PDP) dentist if MetLife is unable to schedule an appointment within how many days?
21
What is the annual maximum benefit per beneficiary, per plan year for non-orthodontic services?
$1,300
What is the Orthodontic Lifetime Maximum (OLM) benefit per beneficiary for orthodontic treatment?
$1,750
Claims submitted for payment more than how many months after the month in which a service is provided are not eligible for payment?
12
How many oral evaluations (D0120, D0150, or D0180) are covered in a consecutive 12-month period?
3
Comprehensive evaluations (D0150) are only eligible for new patients, on an exception basis, by report, for patients who have had a significant change in health conditions or other unusual circumstances, and for patients who have not had an oral evaluation within the previous how many months from the same office?
36
How many comprehensive periodontal evaluations (DO180s) will be allowed per patient per consecutive 12-month period per office?
1
Panoramic and full mouth X-rays are not routinely covered for patients under which age unless approved by MetLife ?
5
How many routine prophylaxes are covered in a consecutive 12- month period?
2
How many months from the date of finalization are TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) predeterminations valid for?
12
If a patient or participating dentist disagrees with MetLife’s benefit decision may be eligible for an appeal. How many levels of appeal are there?
3
Patients may request a formal review from TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) if they disagree with MetLife’s reconsideration and if the amount remaining in dispute is which amount or more?
$50
A request for a formal review must be postmarked or received by the TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) within how many days from the date of the reconsideration determination?
60
If a patient disagrees with the formal review decision from TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) and the amount in dispute is at least which amount or more, he or she may request a hearing with TMA?
$300
What is an alloy that is typically composed of mercury,silver,tin, and copper along with other metallic elements added to improve physical and mechanical properties used in direct dental restorations?
Amalgam
What is the professional association of dentist committed to the public’s oral health, ethics, science, and professional advancement; leading a unified profession through initiatives in advocacy, education, research, and the development of standards?
American Dental Association (ADA)
Which system serves as a centralized Department of Defense data repository of personnel and health care benefits distributed to uniformed services members?
Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)
Endodontic Exclusions involve the treatment of diseases of the dental pulp (never tissue) or injuries that affect the root tip or nerve of the tooth (apex). What is the most common procedure that you will deal with?
Root canal
What is the relationship between the teeth in the upper and lower arches at rest position?
Occlusion
What is the ideal interval between prophylaxis treatment (prophys)?
Semi-annually
What is MetLife’s fraud and abuse investigation department for reporting suspected fraud if a beneficiary believes a dentist or entity received insurance money through the submission of a false claim?
Special Investigations Unit (SIU)
Which program provides dental care for uniformed services members who are entitled to retirement pay, members of the Retired Reserve under age 60, Congressional Medal of Honor recipients, un-remarried surviving spouses, and certain other eligible family members?
TRICARE Retiree Dental Program (TRDP)
Which program provides for the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased persons for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible?
Decedent Affairs Program (DAP)
Under which program are the remains of the deceased shipped to a place designated by the primary next of kin for permanent disposition and ships the decedent’s personal effects to the legal recipient?
Current Death Program
Which program provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, disposition of personal effects found with each deceased, and burial of eligible deceased persons in temporary cemeteries?
Graves Registration Program (GR)
Which publication contains operational details incident to graves registrations procedures?
FMFM 4-8 (NOTAL)
Which program is a combination of the Current Death Program and the Graves Registration Program?
Concurrent Return Program
Which program provides for permanent disposition of remains of those persons buried in temporary cemeteries who could not be evacuated under the Concurrent Return Program?
Return of Remains Program
Who in the Navy is responsible for advising field activities of the activation of a Return of Remains Program?
Commander, Naval Medical Command (COMNAVMEDCOM)
Who is responsible for helping the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) with problems surrounding the death and providing information on disposition of remains?
Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO)
Who administers the Navy Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)?
Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command (COMNAVMILPERSCOM)
Who administers the Marine Corps Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)?
Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)
What is the age of majority?
18
The term father or mother includes a stepparent or parent by adoption, and any other person, including a former stepparent, who has stood in loco parentis to the member for a continuous period of not less than how many years during the minority of the member?
5
Which type of expenses are incurred in connection with recovery, preparation, and encasement of remains?
Primary
Which type of expenses are incurred in connection with the funeral and burial of remains?
Secondary
Which term is used in connection with the release of naval messages to be transmitted by electrical means?
Minimize Considered
Which form should be prepared in each instance of death occurring within the 48 contiguous United States in which the decedent affairs officer or designee obtains supplies and services on a contractual basis in coordination with the contract mortician, including one-time contracts?
DD 2063
Which form should be prepared for remains of dependents of active duty members, dependents of civilians paid from appropriated fund, and for other individuals authorized to receive services on a reimbursable basis?
DD 2065
Which publication requires the convening of an administrative fact-finding body when remains must be searched for, recovered, and identified usually as a result from an incidence of violence, such as an aircraft accident, fire, explosion, or natural disaster?
Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN)
How many DD 565’s (Statement of Recognition of Deceased), signed by different individuals must Commanding Officers in overseas areas ensure are sent to the overseas processing mortuary?
2
Who should be designated when large numbers of remains are involved prior to the start of identification processing operations?
Control Officer
Which form must be used for positive identification of all remains?
DD 565
Which form should be used during identification to locate and record in detail the location and description of scars, tattoos, birthmarks, and other identifying markings?
DD 893
What is the form number of the Record of Identification Processing- Dental Chart?
DD 891
Which form should be used to record prints of all fingers?
DD 894
Who must be satisfied that identification is established beyond and question of doubt for remains to be considered identified?
Commanding Officer
Who directs the disposition of unidentified remains?
COMNAVMEDCOM
All anatomical portions of human remains recovered from the scene of a disaster subsequent to release of principal remains to the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) will be reported to COMNAVMEDCOM by which message precedence?
Priority
Chronologically numbered progress reports, MED 5360-6, will be dispatched at 24 hour intervals when search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than how many hours after a disaster?
36
Which instruction should be followed when disposing of organs removed during an autopsy?
NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.3
Remains may be refrigerated for short periods pending arrival of a transportation vessel or arrival of the embalmer from a government mortuary. Which temperature range should the remains be kept at to minimize cellular deterioration?
36-40 F
How many copies of the DD 2064, Certificate of Death (Overseas), must accompany the remains inside the transfer care when remains are transferred to another overseas activity or to a POE in the United States?
3
When the identity of remains is not known, such remains will only be treated with what ration of solution of a commercially accepted cavity fluid?
1:03
Which type of casket is required to accomplish cosmetizing, dressing, and wrapping of remains to be transported outside the 48 contiguous United States?
Sealer
Which fund will be charged if a complete and presentable uniform is not among the personal effects of the deceased person must be purchased?
DAP
Inside dimensions will not be less than how many inches in length for the standard size casket?
78’’
Inside dimensions will not be less than how many inches in length for the oversized casket?
81’’
Which form will be used to report any discrepancies in preservation by an overseas activity?
DD 2062
Who is responsible for expediting arrangements for transportation of deceased personnel to the destination and for ensuring that required timely inspections are made?
DAO
Who makes at sea disposition determinations when it becomes necessary to suspend the Current Death Program in a war or major military operation?
Area Commander
At sea dispositions should be conducted following the provisions of which U.S. Navy Regulation articles?
1089-1094
As soon as cremains are received by the shore facility, or casketed remains arrive at the funeral home near the port of embarkation, the OMA/NH servicing the area will contact the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) not less than once every how many weeks to reaffirm the schedule of events?
3
The commander of the NAVMEDCOM region out which the at sea disposition will be accomplished will provide message notification to COMNAVMEDCOM WASHINGTON DC when delay in disposition is expected to extend beyond how many weeks from the date at sea disposition was approved?
10
Commanding officers of ships designated to conduct at sea dispositions will, within 24 hours after committal, send a message to the Primary Next of Kin giving the date and time of committal and indicating that details and photographs of the ceremony (as appropriate) will be forwarded within how many days or as soon as practicable?
10
How many holes at a minimum must be drilled n the casket for at sea dispositions?
20
Placing weights in the foot end of the casket may be necessary to assure rapid feet first submersion for at sea dispositions if the casket and remains weight less than how many pounds?
300
Disposition at sea of cremains from a naval ship or aircraft will not be performed less than how many miles from the nearest land?
3
Committals at sea of casketed remains should be conducted at a depth greater than how many fathoms?
100
What is responsible for providing a flag for eligible veterans for disposition at sea?
Veterans Administration
How many escorts are authorized for each deceased individual using Decedent Affairs Program funding?
1
Who must approve one-way first class air travel when coach class accommodations are not available and a delay in delivery of remains would affect prior commitments?
COMNAVMEDCOM
What will provide for the transportation required in accompanying remains and for a return to place designated in orders?
Government Transportation Request (GTR)
Which publication should be of help in instructing an escort?
NAVPERS 15955F
Who should the Primary Next of Kin’s questions concerning circumstances of death, cause of death, return of personal effects, and entitlement to other benefits be referred to?
CACO
What is the form number of the Request for Payment of Funeral and/or Interment Expenses?
DD 1375
Approximately how many days are required for adjudicating and paying funeral and/or Interment expense claims?
30
Which form must be completed by the escort after returning back to either the shipping command or to the parent organization concerning duties performed?
MED 5360-14
If a stopover for funeral services en route to final destination is authorized, the escort is allowed a stopover time not to exceed how many hours at the stopover point in addition to the stopover time authorized?
72
How many categories of Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E), for accounting purposes, have been defined in SECNAVINST 7320.10 series?
3
Which category of Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) are recognized to be of historical or natural significance, cultural, educational, or artistic importance, or possess significant architectural characteristics?
Heritage assets
How many sub-categories is general Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E divided into?
2
How many ways is personal property categorized as?
3
Capitalized Personal Property has an acquisition cost, book value, or when applicable, an estimated fair market value equal to or greater than which amount?
$100,000
Capitalized Personal Property has an estimated recovery period equal to or greater than how many months?
24
Sub-Minor Personal Property is defined as any asset that has an acquisition cost of which amount or less?
$5,000
What is BUMED’s system of record for all personal property purchased, leased (capital or operating leases as applicable,(SECNAVINST 7320.10) series)), or otherwise obtained, having a unit acquisition cost of $5,000 or more, all ADP equipment, and items that are considered sensitive or classified?
Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS)
Which program established policies and procedures in achieving Department of Defense’s (DOD’s) standardization objectives?
Defense Standardization Program (DSP)
Who is responsible for maintaining a unified defense standardization and cataloging program for like products, technologies, a common set of specifications, and cooperating with the industry in the development of standards?
Secretary of Defense
Which instructions provides objectives and procedures for Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery’s (BUMED) participation in Defense Standardization Program (DSP)?
BUMEDINST 4120.2
Which command coordinates a unified DON (including the Marine Corps) position for medical and dental items standardization?
Naval Medical Logistics Command (NAVMEDLOGCOM)
What is responsible for clinical, technical, and logistical aspects of medical material entered into the Defense Supply System?
Defense Medical Standardization Board (DMSB)
Activities are required to report all excess equipment with condition A,B,and C and with a minimum line value of which amount to NAVMEDLOGCOM via the Tri-Service Medical Excess Distribution System (TRIMED) by using the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) system?
$500
What will be established and used at each activity to plan, budget, approve, and prioritize equipment acquisitions and leases?
Equipment Program Review Committee (EPRC)
How often at a minimum must the Equipment Program Review Committee (EPRC) meet to formulate and prioritize all unfunded equipment?
Semi-Annually
It is recommended that Command Business Plans include a 5-year Equipment Replacement Plan that is updated how often?
Annually
NAVMEDLOGCOM’s Equipment Support Directorate (Code 03) performs technical review of equipment greater than which amount regardless of projected funding source?
$25,000
What is the current OP-Funded Threshold?
$250,000
How many years are technical approvals valid for?
3
NAVMEDLOGCOM coordinates the review and approval process for the procurement of expense equipment ranging from $25,000 up to which amount?
$249,999
The O&M appropriation is proper when the equipment or system falls under which category?
Sustainment, Restoration, and Modernization (SRM)
Which series provides guidance on determining if equipment should be procured with OP, O&M, or construction (SRM) dollars?
OPNAVINST 11010.20
What is defined as all self-propelled equipment normally used in storage and handling operations in and around warehouses, industrial plants, airfields, or depots, such as forklift trucks, warehouse tractors, platform trucks, and pallet trucks?
Material Handling Equipment (MHE)
Which series provides specific instructions for initiation of requirements for initial or replacement procurement of Material Handling Equipment (MHE), allowance change requests, maintenance, and inventory reporting?
NAVSUP 10490.33
How many different ways can leases be classified as?
2
Capital leases are leases that meet the minimum capitalization threshold of $100,000; has an estimated recovery period equal to or greater than how many months; is not intended for sale in the ordinary course of operations; and has been acquired or constructed with the intention of being used, or available to be used by DON in its operations?
24
What is the administration, operation, and maintenance of automotive vehicles, construction, and railway equipment collectively known as?
Civil Engineering Support Equipment (CESE)
Which command is responsible for the administration and procurement of Civil Engineering Support Equipment (CESE) for the Navy?
Naval Facilities Engineering Command (COMNAVFACENGCOM)
What were established within designated COMNAVFACENGCOM Engineering Field Divisions (EFDs) to facilitate execution and management of the Civil Engineering Support Equipment?
Transportation Equipment Management Centers (TEMCs)
What maintains Medical Visual Information Service Activities (MVISA) that supports local medical and dental VI activities?
BUMED
Which center is responsible for coordinating all reviews ad approvals of medical equipment that connect to the local and wide area networks (LAN/WAN)?
Naval Medical Information Management Center (NMIMC)
Which series establishes authority for Clinical Investigation Program (CIP) equipment?
BUMEDINST 6000.12
The Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) and Bachelor Quarters (BQ) program is administered following which instruction?
NAVMEDCOMINST 1710.1
Which board evaluates new and emerging medical imaging and radiotherapy technologies, and recommends short- and long-range planning and acquisition strategies for radiographic, nuclear medicine, ultrasound imaging, radiotherapy, related support equipment?
Naval Diagnostic Imaging and Radiotherapy Board (NAVDIRB)
How many weeks prior to a Naval Diagnostic Imaging and Radiotherapy Board (NAVDIRB) meeting must activities submit emergent equipment requests to NAVMEDLOGCOM’s Equipment Support Directorate (Code 03)?
6
BUMED Activities shall prepare and submit investment equipment budgets following BUMED’s annual published guidance. OP Budgets are submitted via the Regions to NAVMEDLOGCOM’s Equipment Support Directorate (Code03). OP Investment equipment is budgeted how many years prior to when it is expected to be purchased?
3
What will be assigned to each OP equipment item budgeted?
Acquisition Control Number (ACN)
How many digits is the Acquisition Control Number (ACN)?
6
Expense equipment is equipment with a cost up to which amount?
$249,999
To support standardization and cost savings through consolidated procurement, requests to purchase expense equipment with a cost greater than which amount shall be routed through the Regions to BUMED?
$25,000
The priority designator in OPNAVINST 4614.1 UMMIPS, shall be strictly followed when determining delivery date of an item. The designators for requisition processing are 03, 06, or what else?
13
Under certain circumstances, NAVMEDLGCOM will be perform procurement actions on behalf an activity. The requesting activity must forward specifications for the item using either a NAVCOMPT 2276 or which form to NAVMEDLOGCOM?
DD 1149
After BMET inspection, tag equipment and update property accounting records. Ensure that the ACN is entered in the ACN of the new equipment record in DMLSS. Under all circumstances, equipment must be tagged and entered into DMLSS within how many days of receipt, or it must be determined damaged/defective and rejected?
7
Accountable Equipment Records, also known as property account records, shall be coded as accountable equipment. Equipment is identified in the DMLSS system as accountable by assigning which Accountable Equipment Code (AEC)?
Y
Accountable records will be maintained in Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) for all personal property purchased, leased (capital or operating leases as applicable), or otherwise obtained, having an acquisition cost of how much or more?
$5,000
Who is responsible for issuing custody receipts, maintaining and updating a consolidated listing of all personal property issued to Custodians or Responsible Officers who maintain custody of equipment within their respective areas?
Personal Property Manager (PPM)
How often at a minimum must be the consolidated inventory list be updated?
Annually
Within how many days prior to change of Custodian or Responsible Officer must be the consolidated inventory list be updated?
20
Which series establishes DON Personal Property accountability procedures?
SECNAVINST 7320.10
A unique numeric identifier shall be assigned to all Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) items within how many calendar days from the day of receipt?
7
Which system shall be used as the system of record for all accountable Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) assignd to BSO-18 activities and shall be used to assign the Equipment Control Number (ECN)?
Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS)
Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) shall be bar coded and entered in Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) within how many calendar days from the date of receipt?
7
All medical equipment within maintenance requirement indicator (MRI) is considered accountable and must be tracked. This includes lease and cost-per-use equipment. If a piece of equipment cannot be located during its normal preventive maintenance (PM) cycle, the Equipment Manager, and the Responsible Officer will make every effort to locate the missing item. If the item cannot be located within 30 days or by the end of PM cycle, whichever comes first, the Equipment Manager will ensure that the responsible officer initiates which form?
DD FORM 200
What is the process of creating records for accountability and/or maintenance purpose?
Equipment gain
Which Acquisition Fund Code (AFC) should be used by MTFs for Operation and Maintenance Expense-Health Affairs with acquisition cost of less than $100,000?
XH
Which Acquisition Fund Code (AFC) should be used by MTFs for Operation and Maintenance Capital-Health Affairs with acquisition cost of $100,000 to less than $250,000?
MH
Which Acquisition Fund Code (AFC) should be used by MTFs for Other Procurement Investment-Health Affairs with acquisition cost of $250,000 and over?
PH
In accordance with DONINST 5000.64 and SECNAVINST 7320.10 series, BUMED activities are responsible for conducting physical inventories and reconciliation of records of all classes of personal property. Physical inventory accuracy should be at least what percent?
98%
How often at a minimum must walk-through inspections be conducted to identify sharable, idle, under-utilized, non-bar coded, or unneeded equipment?
Quarterly
Which publication details the types of medical and dental care available for eligible beneficiaries at Navy Medical Department facilities?
NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3B
Intra-Hospital loans of equipment may be made for up to how many days?
60
The Equipment Managers of each activity must coordinate inter-activity loans of equipment. Which form should be used to document inter-activity loans and transfers?
DD FORM 1348-1A
Transactions must be treated as a permanent transfer of property if inter-activity loans extend beyond how many days?
180
Who is the only individual authorized by the Commanding Officer to transfer personal property?
Equipment Manager
Personal property that has been transfered-out, sold, disposed, lost, stolen, or destroyed shall be properly documented and removed from the personal property system at the time the property leaves the activity or it is determined the item no longer exists. Substantiating documentation must be retained for at least how many months?
36
Who must enforce the countermeasures necessary to prevent malaria?
Line commanders
Who are the first line of defense in malaria and DNBI prevention?
Hospital Corpsmen
Who are specially trained hospital corpsmen who are directly involved in all aspects of malaria control and other DNBI collection/reporting?
Preventive Medicine Technicians (PMTs)
Which officers assist in the collection of epidemiological and entomological data as well as evaluate the environmental conditions that affect malaria control?
Environmental Health Officers (EHOs)
Who obtain the most current mosquito information and recommend applicable methods of vector control?
Medical entomologists
Which form must be used to enter either deficient or normal G6PD screening results?
SF 600
All Navy Medical Department personnel who diagnose a patient with a suspected or confirmed case of malaria shall report the case within how many hours of diagnosis?
24
All Navy Medical Department personnel with NIPRnet access shall report all suspect or confirmed malaria cases and outbreaks via which system?
Disease Reporting System internet (DRSi)
What is required to be submitted for outbreaks or clusters of suspect or confirmed malaria?
Outbreak Medical Event Report (MER)
Blood donation programs are subject to the guidance of which series?
BUMED P-5120
How many years from completion of malaria chemoprophylaxis must individuals wait before they can donate blood?
3
How many months must individuals wait before donating blood who visited a malaria- endemic area without taking chemoprophylaxis?
6
