4. TRICARE CHOICES; TRICARE DENTAL; NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.1; NAVMED P-5132; NMCPHC-TIM 6250.1

Question 1

What is the Department of Defense’s worldwide health care program available to eligible beneficiaries from any of the seven uniformed services?

Answer 1

TRICARE

Question 2

Which system is used to maintain Tricare eligibility information?

Answer 2

Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)

Question 3

How many consecutive days at a minimum must National Guard and Reserve members be called or ordered to active service to be eligible to participate in the Active Duty TRICARE program?

Answer 3

30

Question 4

Sponsors and family members lose TRICARE eligibility after active duty separation (non-retirement) but can qualify for a period of continued coverage under the Transitional Assistance Management Program along with which other program?

Answer 4

Continued Health Care Benefit Program

Question 5

Who provides referrals under TRICARE Prime to receive services from specialty care providers and coordinates the referral request with the regional contractor when necessary?

Answer 5

Primary Care Management (PCM)

Question 6

How many miles must personnel be within an available primary care management (PCM) to enroll in TRICARE Prime?

Answer 6

100

Question 7

Which TRICARE Prime options are available to Active Duty Service Members (ADSMs) living and working in remote locations and their family members?

Answer 7

Tricare Prime Remote (TPR) and TRICARE Prime Remote for Active Duty Family Members (TPRADFM)

Question 8

The US Family Health Plan (USFHP) is a TRICARE Prime option in which care is provided through networks of community-based, not-for-profit health care systems in how many areas of the United States?

Answer 8

6

Question 9

What is the maximum out-of-pocket amount an individual or family pays per FY for TRICARE- covered services?

Answer 9

Catastrophic cap

Question 10

Up to what age are retirees allowed to enroll in TRICARE Prime or USFHP?

Answer 10

65

Question 11

What is the fixed amount a TRICARE Prime beneficiary pays for health care services?

Answer 11

Copayment

Question 12

What is the form number for the TRICARE Prime Enrollment, Disenrollment, and Primary Care Management (PCM) Change Form?

Answer 12

DD Form 2876

Question 13

Which options allows TRICARE Prime beneficiaries to pay additional out-of-pocket costs to receive nomemergency health care services from any TRICARE - authorized provider without a referral?

Answer 13

Point-of-Service (POS)

Question 14

The Point-of-Service (POS) option does not apply to newborns or adopted children within the first how many days after birth or adoption?

Answer 14

60

Question 15

The Point-of-Service (POS) option does not apply to the first how many mental health care outpatient visits per fiscal year to a network provider for a medically diagnosed and covered condition?

Answer 15

8

Question 16

How many types of TRICARE authorized providers are there?

Answer 16

2

Question 17

Which type of TRICARE authorized providers have a signed agreement with your regional contractor to provide care and file claims for you?

Answer 17

Network providers

Question 18

Up to what percent above the TRICARE- allowable charge can non-network providers charge when they don’t participate on a claim?

Answer 18

15%

Question 19

Which act requires you to have health care coverage that meets a minimum standard called minimum essential coverage?

Answer 19

Affordable Care Act (ACA)

Question 20

What is the annual amount that a beneficiary must pay for covered outpatient services before TRICARE begins to pay for or reimburse for those services?

Answer 20

Annual Deductible

Question 21

What is a premium-based, worldwide health care plan that qualified Selected Reserve members and qualified survivors may purchase for themselves and/or their family members?

Answer 21

TRICARE Reserve Select (TRS)

Question 22

What is the percentage a TRICARE beneficiary must pay for covered inpatient and outpatient services (other than the annual deductible or disallowed amounts)?

Answer 22

Cost-Share

Question 23

What is a premium-based, worldwide health care plan that qualified Retired Reserve members and qualified survivors may purchase for themselves and/or their family members?

Answer 23

TRICARE Retired Reserve (TRR)

Question 24

If you are eligible for both TFL and VA benefits and elect to use your TFL benefit for non-service connected care, you will incur significant out-of-pocket expenses when seeing a VA provider. By law, TRICARE can only pay up to what percent of the TRICARE allowable amount?

Answer 24

20%

Question 25

What can beneficiaries who have lost all TRICARE eligibility purchase to keep coverage if they qualify/

Answer 25

Continued Health Care Benefits Program (CHCBP)

Question 26

What is the minimum age to be eligible to purchase Tricare Young Adult Coverage?

Answer 26

21

Question 27

How many days of transitional health care benefits to help certain service members and their families transitions to civilian life is provided by Transitional Assistance Management Program (TAMP)?

Answer 27

180

Question 28

Up to how many months of continued health coverage can be provided by the Continued Health Care Benefits Program (CHCBP)

Answer 28

36

Question 29

If personnel qualify they can purchase CHCBP coverage within how many days of loss of TRICARE or TAMP coverage?

Answer 29

60

Question 30

How many days worth of most medications at no cost can personnel receive from military pharmacies?

Answer 30

90

Question 31

Over how many TRICARE retail network pharmacies are there?

Answer 31

57,000

Question 32

The DoD has established a how many tier uniform formulary that groups prescription drugs that may be reimbursed by TRICARE?

Answer 32

Three

Question 33

Which tier of prescription drugs have the highest out of pocket costs?

Answer 33

Tier 3

Question 34

What is the TRICARE Dental Program(TDP) administered by?

Answer 34

MetLife

Question 35

How many geographical service areas is the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) divided into?

Answer 35

2

Question 36

Which system is used to confirm TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) eligibility?

Answer 36

Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)

Question 37

Family members of active duty service members (ADSMs) including unmarried children until reaching which age are eligible to enroll in TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) ?

Answer 37

21

Question 38

Family members of active duty service members (ADSMs) including unmarried children until reaching which age are eligible to enroll in TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) if enrolled in a full-time course of study at an approved institution of higher learning, and if the sponsor provides over 50 percent of the financial support?

Answer 38

23

Question 39

A family enrollment is defined as how many or more covered family members?

Answer 39

2

Question 40

Children under which age may be voluntarily enrolled at any time into the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP)?

Answer 40

4

Question 41

All beneficiaries must remain enrolled in the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) for at least how many months?

Answer 41

12

Question 42

If an Active Duty Service Member (ADSM) transfers with TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) - enrolled family members to a duty station where space-available dental care is available at the local Dental Treatment Facility (DTF), the ADSM may choose to terminate enrollment for his or her family members from the TDP within how many calendar days of the transfer?

Answer 42

90

Question 43

If you fail to pay your TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) monthly premium(s), your TDP enrollment will be terminated. You will be prohibited from reenrolling in the program, or “locked out”, for how many months following the last month that premiums were paid?

Answer 43

12

Question 44

When a sponsor dies, the surviving spouse and children are eligible for the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) Survivor Benefit. Spouses are eligible for how many years beginning on the date of the sponsor’s death?

Answer 44

3

Question 45

How often does the Department of Defense require all National Guard and Reserve members to undergo dental examinations?

Answer 45

Annually

Question 46

Which form will be used to assist TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) -enrolled National Guard and Reserve members in documenting dental health?

Answer 46

DD FORM 2813

Question 47

National Guard and Reserve sponsors are eligible to enroll in the TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) when they are not on active duty for more than how many consecutive days?

Answer 47

30

Question 48

Which type of dentist has signed a contractual agreement with MetLife to follow TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) rules for providing care and accepting payments?

Answer 48

Preffered Dentist Program (PDP)

Question 49

When using a Preferred Dentist Program (PDP) dentist, you should never pay more than the applicable cost-share for covered services subject to applicable maximums, limitations, and exclusions. MetLife recommends that you have your dentist submit a predetermination request when the cost is expected to be above which amount?

Answer 49

$300

Question 50

You will be able to seek care from a non-PDP dentist and MetLife will pay the claim for that particular procedure in a manner that limits your out-of-pocket costs to approximately what they would be from a Preferred Dentist Program (PDP) dentist if MetLife is unable to schedule an appointment within how many days?

Answer 50

21

Question 51

What is the annual maximum benefit per beneficiary, per plan year for non-orthodontic services?

Answer 51

$1,300

Question 52

What is the Orthodontic Lifetime Maximum (OLM) benefit per beneficiary for orthodontic treatment?

Answer 52

$1,750

Question 53

Claims submitted for payment more than how many months after the month in which a service is provided are not eligible for payment?

Answer 53

12

Question 54

How many oral evaluations (D0120, D0150, or D0180) are covered in a consecutive 12-month period?

Answer 54

3

Question 55

Comprehensive evaluations (D0150) are only eligible for new patients, on an exception basis, by report, for patients who have had a significant change in health conditions or other unusual circumstances, and for patients who have not had an oral evaluation within the previous how many months from the same office?

Answer 55

36

Question 56

How many comprehensive periodontal evaluations (DO180s) will be allowed per patient per consecutive 12-month period per office?

Answer 56

1

Question 57

Panoramic and full mouth X-rays are not routinely covered for patients under which age unless approved by MetLife ?

Answer 57

5

Question 58

How many routine prophylaxes are covered in a consecutive 12- month period?

Answer 58

2

Question 59

How many months from the date of finalization are TRICARE Dental Program (TDP) predeterminations valid for?

Answer 59

12

Question 60

If a patient or participating dentist disagrees with MetLife’s benefit decision may be eligible for an appeal. How many levels of appeal are there?

Answer 60

3

Question 61

Patients may request a formal review from TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) if they disagree with MetLife’s reconsideration and if the amount remaining in dispute is which amount or more?

Answer 61

$50

Question 62

A request for a formal review must be postmarked or received by the TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) within how many days from the date of the reconsideration determination?

Answer 62

60

Question 63

If a patient disagrees with the formal review decision from TRICARE Management Activity (TMA) and the amount in dispute is at least which amount or more, he or she may request a hearing with TMA?

Answer 63

$300

Question 64

What is an alloy that is typically composed of mercury,silver,tin, and copper along with other metallic elements added to improve physical and mechanical properties used in direct dental restorations?

Answer 64

Amalgam

Question 65

What is the professional association of dentist committed to the public’s oral health, ethics, science, and professional advancement; leading a unified profession through initiatives in advocacy, education, research, and the development of standards?

Answer 65

American Dental Association (ADA)

Question 66

Which system serves as a centralized Department of Defense data repository of personnel and health care benefits distributed to uniformed services members?

Answer 66

Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS)

Question 67

Endodontic Exclusions involve the treatment of diseases of the dental pulp (never tissue) or injuries that affect the root tip or nerve of the tooth (apex). What is the most common procedure that you will deal with?

Answer 67

Root canal

Question 68

What is the relationship between the teeth in the upper and lower arches at rest position?

Answer 68

Occlusion

Question 69

What is the ideal interval between prophylaxis treatment (prophys)?

Answer 69

Semi-annually

Question 70

What is MetLife’s fraud and abuse investigation department for reporting suspected fraud if a beneficiary believes a dentist or entity received insurance money through the submission of a false claim?

Answer 70

Special Investigations Unit (SIU)

Question 71

Which program provides dental care for uniformed services members who are entitled to retirement pay, members of the Retired Reserve under age 60, Congressional Medal of Honor recipients, un-remarried surviving spouses, and certain other eligible family members?

Answer 71

TRICARE Retiree Dental Program (TRDP)

Question 72

Which program provides for the search, recovery, identification, care, and disposition of remains of deceased persons for whom the Department of the Navy is responsible?

Answer 72

Decedent Affairs Program (DAP)

Question 73

Under which program are the remains of the deceased shipped to a place designated by the primary next of kin for permanent disposition and ships the decedent’s personal effects to the legal recipient?

Answer 73

Current Death Program

Question 74

Which program provides for the search, recovery, evacuation, initial identification, disposition of personal effects found with each deceased, and burial of eligible deceased persons in temporary cemeteries?

Answer 74

Graves Registration Program (GR)

Question 75

Which publication contains operational details incident to graves registrations procedures?

Answer 75

FMFM 4-8 (NOTAL)

Question 76

Which program is a combination of the Current Death Program and the Graves Registration Program?

Answer 76

Concurrent Return Program

Question 77

Which program provides for permanent disposition of remains of those persons buried in temporary cemeteries who could not be evacuated under the Concurrent Return Program?

Answer 77

Return of Remains Program

Question 78

Who in the Navy is responsible for advising field activities of the activation of a Return of Remains Program?

Answer 78

Commander, Naval Medical Command (COMNAVMEDCOM)

Question 79

Who is responsible for helping the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) with problems surrounding the death and providing information on disposition of remains?

Answer 79

Casualty Assistance Calls Officer (CACO)

Question 80

Who administers the Navy Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)?

Answer 80

Commander, Naval Military Personnel Command (COMNAVMILPERSCOM)

Question 81

Who administers the Marine Corps Casualty Assistance Calls Program (CACP)?

Answer 81

Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)

Question 82

What is the age of majority?

Answer 82

18

Question 83

The term father or mother includes a stepparent or parent by adoption, and any other person, including a former stepparent, who has stood in loco parentis to the member for a continuous period of not less than how many years during the minority of the member?

Answer 83

5

Question 84

Which type of expenses are incurred in connection with recovery, preparation, and encasement of remains?

Answer 84

Primary

Question 85

Which type of expenses are incurred in connection with the funeral and burial of remains?

Answer 85

Secondary

Question 86

Which term is used in connection with the release of naval messages to be transmitted by electrical means?

Answer 86

Minimize Considered

Question 87

Which form should be prepared in each instance of death occurring within the 48 contiguous United States in which the decedent affairs officer or designee obtains supplies and services on a contractual basis in coordination with the contract mortician, including one-time contracts?

Answer 87

DD 2063

Question 88

Which form should be prepared for remains of dependents of active duty members, dependents of civilians paid from appropriated fund, and for other individuals authorized to receive services on a reimbursable basis?

Answer 88

DD 2065

Question 89

Which publication requires the convening of an administrative fact-finding body when remains must be searched for, recovered, and identified usually as a result from an incidence of violence, such as an aircraft accident, fire, explosion, or natural disaster?

Answer 89

Manual of the Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN)

Question 90

How many DD 565’s (Statement of Recognition of Deceased), signed by different individuals must Commanding Officers in overseas areas ensure are sent to the overseas processing mortuary?

Answer 90

2

Question 91

Who should be designated when large numbers of remains are involved prior to the start of identification processing operations?

Answer 91

Control Officer

Question 92

Which form must be used for positive identification of all remains?

Answer 92

DD 565

Question 93

Which form should be used during identification to locate and record in detail the location and description of scars, tattoos, birthmarks, and other identifying markings?

Answer 93

DD 893

Question 94

What is the form number of the Record of Identification Processing- Dental Chart?

Answer 94

DD 891

Question 95

Which form should be used to record prints of all fingers?

Answer 95

DD 894

Question 96

Who must be satisfied that identification is established beyond and question of doubt for remains to be considered identified?

Answer 96

Commanding Officer

Question 97

Who directs the disposition of unidentified remains?

Answer 97

COMNAVMEDCOM

Question 98

All anatomical portions of human remains recovered from the scene of a disaster subsequent to release of principal remains to the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) will be reported to COMNAVMEDCOM by which message precedence?

Answer 98

Priority

Question 99

Chronologically numbered progress reports, MED 5360-6, will be dispatched at 24 hour intervals when search, recovery, and identification operations continue for more than how many hours after a disaster?

Answer 99

36

Question 100

Which instruction should be followed when disposing of organs removed during an autopsy?

Answer 100

NAVMEDCOMINST 5360.3

Question 101

Remains may be refrigerated for short periods pending arrival of a transportation vessel or arrival of the embalmer from a government mortuary. Which temperature range should the remains be kept at to minimize cellular deterioration?

Answer 101

36-40 F

Question 102

How many copies of the DD 2064, Certificate of Death (Overseas), must accompany the remains inside the transfer care when remains are transferred to another overseas activity or to a POE in the United States?

Answer 102

3

Question 103

When the identity of remains is not known, such remains will only be treated with what ration of solution of a commercially accepted cavity fluid?

Answer 103

1:03

Question 104

Which type of casket is required to accomplish cosmetizing, dressing, and wrapping of remains to be transported outside the 48 contiguous United States?

Answer 104

Sealer

Question 105

Which fund will be charged if a complete and presentable uniform is not among the personal effects of the deceased person must be purchased?

Answer 105

DAP

Question 106

Inside dimensions will not be less than how many inches in length for the standard size casket?

Answer 106

78’’

Question 107

Inside dimensions will not be less than how many inches in length for the oversized casket?

Answer 107

81’’

Question 108

Which form will be used to report any discrepancies in preservation by an overseas activity?

Answer 108

DD 2062

Question 109

Who is responsible for expediting arrangements for transportation of deceased personnel to the destination and for ensuring that required timely inspections are made?

Answer 109

DAO

Question 110

Who makes at sea disposition determinations when it becomes necessary to suspend the Current Death Program in a war or major military operation?

Answer 110

Area Commander

Question 111

At sea dispositions should be conducted following the provisions of which U.S. Navy Regulation articles?

Answer 111

1089-1094

Question 112

As soon as cremains are received by the shore facility, or casketed remains arrive at the funeral home near the port of embarkation, the OMA/NH servicing the area will contact the Primary Next of Kin (PNOK) not less than once every how many weeks to reaffirm the schedule of events?

Answer 112

3

Question 113

The commander of the NAVMEDCOM region out which the at sea disposition will be accomplished will provide message notification to COMNAVMEDCOM WASHINGTON DC when delay in disposition is expected to extend beyond how many weeks from the date at sea disposition was approved?

Answer 113

10

Question 114

Commanding officers of ships designated to conduct at sea dispositions will, within 24 hours after committal, send a message to the Primary Next of Kin giving the date and time of committal and indicating that details and photographs of the ceremony (as appropriate) will be forwarded within how many days or as soon as practicable?

Answer 114

10

Question 115

How many holes at a minimum must be drilled n the casket for at sea dispositions?

Answer 115

20

Question 116

Placing weights in the foot end of the casket may be necessary to assure rapid feet first submersion for at sea dispositions if the casket and remains weight less than how many pounds?

Answer 116

300

Question 117

Disposition at sea of cremains from a naval ship or aircraft will not be performed less than how many miles from the nearest land?

Answer 117

3

Question 118

Committals at sea of casketed remains should be conducted at a depth greater than how many fathoms?

Answer 118

100

Question 119

What is responsible for providing a flag for eligible veterans for disposition at sea?

Answer 119

Veterans Administration

Question 120

How many escorts are authorized for each deceased individual using Decedent Affairs Program funding?

Answer 120

1

Question 121

Who must approve one-way first class air travel when coach class accommodations are not available and a delay in delivery of remains would affect prior commitments?

Answer 121

COMNAVMEDCOM

Question 122

What will provide for the transportation required in accompanying remains and for a return to place designated in orders?

Answer 122

Government Transportation Request (GTR)

Question 123

Which publication should be of help in instructing an escort?

Answer 123

NAVPERS 15955F

Question 124

Who should the Primary Next of Kin’s questions concerning circumstances of death, cause of death, return of personal effects, and entitlement to other benefits be referred to?

Answer 124

CACO

Question 125

What is the form number of the Request for Payment of Funeral and/or Interment Expenses?

Answer 125

DD 1375

Question 126

Approximately how many days are required for adjudicating and paying funeral and/or Interment expense claims?

Answer 126

30

Question 127

Which form must be completed by the escort after returning back to either the shipping command or to the parent organization concerning duties performed?

Answer 127

MED 5360-14

Question 128

If a stopover for funeral services en route to final destination is authorized, the escort is allowed a stopover time not to exceed how many hours at the stopover point in addition to the stopover time authorized?

Answer 128

72

Question 129

How many categories of Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E), for accounting purposes, have been defined in SECNAVINST 7320.10 series?

Answer 129

3

Question 130

Which category of Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) are recognized to be of historical or natural significance, cultural, educational, or artistic importance, or possess significant architectural characteristics?

Answer 130

Heritage assets

Question 131

How many sub-categories is general Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E divided into?

Answer 131

2

Question 132

How many ways is personal property categorized as?

Answer 132

3

Question 133

Capitalized Personal Property has an acquisition cost, book value, or when applicable, an estimated fair market value equal to or greater than which amount?

Answer 133

$100,000

Question 134

Capitalized Personal Property has an estimated recovery period equal to or greater than how many months?

Answer 134

24

Question 135

Sub-Minor Personal Property is defined as any asset that has an acquisition cost of which amount or less?

Answer 135

$5,000

Question 136

What is BUMED’s system of record for all personal property purchased, leased (capital or operating leases as applicable,(SECNAVINST 7320.10) series)), or otherwise obtained, having a unit acquisition cost of $5,000 or more, all ADP equipment, and items that are considered sensitive or classified?

Answer 136

Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS)

Question 137

Which program established policies and procedures in achieving Department of Defense’s (DOD’s) standardization objectives?

Answer 137

Defense Standardization Program (DSP)

Question 138

Who is responsible for maintaining a unified defense standardization and cataloging program for like products, technologies, a common set of specifications, and cooperating with the industry in the development of standards?

Answer 138

Secretary of Defense

Question 139

Which instructions provides objectives and procedures for Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery’s (BUMED) participation in Defense Standardization Program (DSP)?

Answer 139

BUMEDINST 4120.2

Question 140

Which command coordinates a unified DON (including the Marine Corps) position for medical and dental items standardization?

Answer 140

Naval Medical Logistics Command (NAVMEDLOGCOM)

Question 141

What is responsible for clinical, technical, and logistical aspects of medical material entered into the Defense Supply System?

Answer 141

Defense Medical Standardization Board (DMSB)

Question 142

Activities are required to report all excess equipment with condition A,B,and C and with a minimum line value of which amount to NAVMEDLOGCOM via the Tri-Service Medical Excess Distribution System (TRIMED) by using the Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) system?

Answer 142

$500

Question 143

What will be established and used at each activity to plan, budget, approve, and prioritize equipment acquisitions and leases?

Answer 143

Equipment Program Review Committee (EPRC)

Question 144

How often at a minimum must the Equipment Program Review Committee (EPRC) meet to formulate and prioritize all unfunded equipment?

Answer 144

Semi-Annually

Question 145

It is recommended that Command Business Plans include a 5-year Equipment Replacement Plan that is updated how often?

Answer 145

Annually

Question 146

NAVMEDLOGCOM’s Equipment Support Directorate (Code 03) performs technical review of equipment greater than which amount regardless of projected funding source?

Answer 146

$25,000

Question 147

What is the current OP-Funded Threshold?

Answer 147

$250,000

Question 148

How many years are technical approvals valid for?

Answer 148

3

Question 149

NAVMEDLOGCOM coordinates the review and approval process for the procurement of expense equipment ranging from $25,000 up to which amount?

Answer 149

$249,999

Question 150

The O&M appropriation is proper when the equipment or system falls under which category?

Answer 150

Sustainment, Restoration, and Modernization (SRM)

Question 151

Which series provides guidance on determining if equipment should be procured with OP, O&M, or construction (SRM) dollars?

Answer 151

OPNAVINST 11010.20

Question 152

What is defined as all self-propelled equipment normally used in storage and handling operations in and around warehouses, industrial plants, airfields, or depots, such as forklift trucks, warehouse tractors, platform trucks, and pallet trucks?

Answer 152

Material Handling Equipment (MHE)

Question 153

Which series provides specific instructions for initiation of requirements for initial or replacement procurement of Material Handling Equipment (MHE), allowance change requests, maintenance, and inventory reporting?

Answer 153

NAVSUP 10490.33

Question 154

How many different ways can leases be classified as?

Answer 154

2

Question 155

Capital leases are leases that meet the minimum capitalization threshold of $100,000; has an estimated recovery period equal to or greater than how many months; is not intended for sale in the ordinary course of operations; and has been acquired or constructed with the intention of being used, or available to be used by DON in its operations?

Answer 155

24

Question 156

What is the administration, operation, and maintenance of automotive vehicles, construction, and railway equipment collectively known as?

Answer 156

Civil Engineering Support Equipment (CESE)

Question 157

Which command is responsible for the administration and procurement of Civil Engineering Support Equipment (CESE) for the Navy?

Answer 157

Naval Facilities Engineering Command (COMNAVFACENGCOM)

Question 158

What were established within designated COMNAVFACENGCOM Engineering Field Divisions (EFDs) to facilitate execution and management of the Civil Engineering Support Equipment?

Answer 158

Transportation Equipment Management Centers (TEMCs)

Question 159

What maintains Medical Visual Information Service Activities (MVISA) that supports local medical and dental VI activities?

Answer 159

BUMED

Question 160

Which center is responsible for coordinating all reviews ad approvals of medical equipment that connect to the local and wide area networks (LAN/WAN)?

Answer 160

Naval Medical Information Management Center (NMIMC)

Question 161

Which series establishes authority for Clinical Investigation Program (CIP) equipment?

Answer 161

BUMEDINST 6000.12

Question 162

The Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) and Bachelor Quarters (BQ) program is administered following which instruction?

Answer 162

NAVMEDCOMINST 1710.1

Question 163

Which board evaluates new and emerging medical imaging and radiotherapy technologies, and recommends short- and long-range planning and acquisition strategies for radiographic, nuclear medicine, ultrasound imaging, radiotherapy, related support equipment?

Answer 163

Naval Diagnostic Imaging and Radiotherapy Board (NAVDIRB)

Question 164

How many weeks prior to a Naval Diagnostic Imaging and Radiotherapy Board (NAVDIRB) meeting must activities submit emergent equipment requests to NAVMEDLOGCOM’s Equipment Support Directorate (Code 03)?

Answer 164

6

Question 165

BUMED Activities shall prepare and submit investment equipment budgets following BUMED’s annual published guidance. OP Budgets are submitted via the Regions to NAVMEDLOGCOM’s Equipment Support Directorate (Code03). OP Investment equipment is budgeted how many years prior to when it is expected to be purchased?

Answer 165

3

Question 166

What will be assigned to each OP equipment item budgeted?

Answer 166

Acquisition Control Number (ACN)

Question 167

How many digits is the Acquisition Control Number (ACN)?

Answer 167

6

Question 168

Expense equipment is equipment with a cost up to which amount?

Answer 168

$249,999

Question 169

To support standardization and cost savings through consolidated procurement, requests to purchase expense equipment with a cost greater than which amount shall be routed through the Regions to BUMED?

Answer 169

$25,000

Question 170

The priority designator in OPNAVINST 4614.1 UMMIPS, shall be strictly followed when determining delivery date of an item. The designators for requisition processing are 03, 06, or what else?

Answer 170

13

Question 171

Under certain circumstances, NAVMEDLGCOM will be perform procurement actions on behalf an activity. The requesting activity must forward specifications for the item using either a NAVCOMPT 2276 or which form to NAVMEDLOGCOM?

Answer 171

DD 1149

Question 172

After BMET inspection, tag equipment and update property accounting records. Ensure that the ACN is entered in the ACN of the new equipment record in DMLSS. Under all circumstances, equipment must be tagged and entered into DMLSS within how many days of receipt, or it must be determined damaged/defective and rejected?

Answer 172

7

Question 173

Accountable Equipment Records, also known as property account records, shall be coded as accountable equipment. Equipment is identified in the DMLSS system as accountable by assigning which Accountable Equipment Code (AEC)?

Answer 173

Y

Question 174

Accountable records will be maintained in Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) for all personal property purchased, leased (capital or operating leases as applicable), or otherwise obtained, having an acquisition cost of how much or more?

Answer 174

$5,000

Question 175

Who is responsible for issuing custody receipts, maintaining and updating a consolidated listing of all personal property issued to Custodians or Responsible Officers who maintain custody of equipment within their respective areas?

Answer 175

Personal Property Manager (PPM)

Question 176

How often at a minimum must be the consolidated inventory list be updated?

Answer 176

Annually

Question 177

Within how many days prior to change of Custodian or Responsible Officer must be the consolidated inventory list be updated?

Answer 177

20

Question 178

Which series establishes DON Personal Property accountability procedures?

Answer 178

SECNAVINST 7320.10

Question 179

A unique numeric identifier shall be assigned to all Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) items within how many calendar days from the day of receipt?

Answer 179

7

Question 180

Which system shall be used as the system of record for all accountable Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) assignd to BSO-18 activities and shall be used to assign the Equipment Control Number (ECN)?

Answer 180

Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS)

Question 181

Property, Plant, and Equipment (PP&E) shall be bar coded and entered in Defense Medical Logistics Standard Support (DMLSS) within how many calendar days from the date of receipt?

Answer 181

7

Question 182

All medical equipment within maintenance requirement indicator (MRI) is considered accountable and must be tracked. This includes lease and cost-per-use equipment. If a piece of equipment cannot be located during its normal preventive maintenance (PM) cycle, the Equipment Manager, and the Responsible Officer will make every effort to locate the missing item. If the item cannot be located within 30 days or by the end of PM cycle, whichever comes first, the Equipment Manager will ensure that the responsible officer initiates which form?

Answer 182

DD FORM 200

Question 183

What is the process of creating records for accountability and/or maintenance purpose?

Answer 183

Equipment gain

Question 184

Which Acquisition Fund Code (AFC) should be used by MTFs for Operation and Maintenance Expense-Health Affairs with acquisition cost of less than $100,000?

Answer 184

XH

Question 185

Which Acquisition Fund Code (AFC) should be used by MTFs for Operation and Maintenance Capital-Health Affairs with acquisition cost of $100,000 to less than $250,000?

Answer 185

MH

Question 186

Which Acquisition Fund Code (AFC) should be used by MTFs for Other Procurement Investment-Health Affairs with acquisition cost of $250,000 and over?

Answer 186

PH

Question 187

In accordance with DONINST 5000.64 and SECNAVINST 7320.10 series, BUMED activities are responsible for conducting physical inventories and reconciliation of records of all classes of personal property. Physical inventory accuracy should be at least what percent?

Answer 187

98%

Question 188

How often at a minimum must walk-through inspections be conducted to identify sharable, idle, under-utilized, non-bar coded, or unneeded equipment?

Answer 188

Quarterly

Question 189

Which publication details the types of medical and dental care available for eligible beneficiaries at Navy Medical Department facilities?

Answer 189

NAVMEDCOMINST 6320.3B

Question 190

Intra-Hospital loans of equipment may be made for up to how many days?

Answer 190

60

Question 191

The Equipment Managers of each activity must coordinate inter-activity loans of equipment. Which form should be used to document inter-activity loans and transfers?

Answer 191

DD FORM 1348-1A

Question 192

Transactions must be treated as a permanent transfer of property if inter-activity loans extend beyond how many days?

Answer 192

180

Question 193

Who is the only individual authorized by the Commanding Officer to transfer personal property?

Answer 193

Equipment Manager

Question 194

Personal property that has been transfered-out, sold, disposed, lost, stolen, or destroyed shall be properly documented and removed from the personal property system at the time the property leaves the activity or it is determined the item no longer exists. Substantiating documentation must be retained for at least how many months?

Answer 194

36

Question 195

Who must enforce the countermeasures necessary to prevent malaria?

Answer 195

Line commanders

Question 196

Who are the first line of defense in malaria and DNBI prevention?

Answer 196

Hospital Corpsmen

Question 197

Who are specially trained hospital corpsmen who are directly involved in all aspects of malaria control and other DNBI collection/reporting?

Answer 197

Preventive Medicine Technicians (PMTs)

Question 198

Which officers assist in the collection of epidemiological and entomological data as well as evaluate the environmental conditions that affect malaria control?

Answer 198

Environmental Health Officers (EHOs)

Question 199

Who obtain the most current mosquito information and recommend applicable methods of vector control?

Answer 199

Medical entomologists

Question 200

Which form must be used to enter either deficient or normal G6PD screening results?

Answer 200

SF 600

Question 201

All Navy Medical Department personnel who diagnose a patient with a suspected or confirmed case of malaria shall report the case within how many hours of diagnosis?

Answer 201

24

Question 202

All Navy Medical Department personnel with NIPRnet access shall report all suspect or confirmed malaria cases and outbreaks via which system?

Answer 202

Disease Reporting System internet (DRSi)

Question 203

What is required to be submitted for outbreaks or clusters of suspect or confirmed malaria?

Answer 203

Outbreak Medical Event Report (MER)

Question 204

Blood donation programs are subject to the guidance of which series?

Answer 204

BUMED P-5120

Question 205

How many years from completion of malaria chemoprophylaxis must individuals wait before they can donate blood?

Answer 205

3

Question 206

How many months must individuals wait before donating blood who visited a malaria- endemic area without taking chemoprophylaxis?

Answer 206

6