Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

HM Instructions Combined > 1. BUMEDINST 6010.13; BUMEDINST 6220.9B; NMCPHC-TM 6220.12; BUMEDINST 5040.2C; & BUMEDINST 6110.14; SECNAVINST 6120.3; OPNAVINST 5215.17A > Flashcards

1. BUMEDINST 6010.13; BUMEDINST 6220.9B; NMCPHC-TM 6220.12; BUMEDINST 5040.2C; & BUMEDINST 6110.14; SECNAVINST 6120.3; OPNAVINST 5215.17A Flashcards

1
Q

What is the instruction for Quality Assurance (QA) Program?

A

BUMEDINST 6010.13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Who does Quality Assurance apply to?

A

All health care personnel providing services in naval MTFs and DTFs, fixed and non-fixed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Who must participate in ongoing monitoring and evaluation processes designed to assess the quality and appropriateness of the services they provide?

A

All active duty (ACDU), Reserve and civilian medical and dental personnel.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who must fixed MTFs and DTFs gain and maintain accreditation from?

A

Joint Commission on Accreditation of Healthcare Organization (Joint Commission, JCAHO).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

How many years does routine Quality Assurance program related documentation must be maintained in a secure location before disposal?

A

5 years.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How many years does Quality Assurance (QA) inquiries, medical records related to a potentially compensable event (PCE) and Judge Advocate General (JAGMAN) investigations, must be maintained in a secure location at the local command for?

A

A minimum of 2 years or as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Medical staff functions are under the direction of who?

A

Executive Committee of the Medical Staff (ECOMS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Who are the Dental Staff functions under the direction of?

A

Executive Committee of Dental Staff (ECODS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Nursing staff and administrative staff functions are under the direction of?

A

Command Quality Assurance (QA) Committee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to interpret Department of Defense (DoD), Secretary of the Navy (SECNAV) and CNO policies and provides guidance for Navy-wide Quality Assurance program implementation?

A

Chief, Bureau of Medical and Surgery (BUMED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Who ensures that subordinate commanders comply with the Quality Assurance (QA) program?

A

Fleet Commanders in Chief (FLTCINCs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Who may elect to have a fleet-wide medical and dental Quality Assurance (QA) program under the cognizance of the fleet medical and dental officer?

A

Type Commanders (TYCOM)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Who’s responsibility is it to implement an effective, flexible, integrated and comprehensive Quality Assurance (QA) program, guided by a written plan?

A

Commanding Officers, Officers in Charge and Senior Medical and Dental Department Representative of Treatment Facilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Who conducts two educational workshops each year in the principle, components, and management of Quality Assurance (QA) program for naval Medical Department personnel?

A

Naval School of Health Sciences, Bethesda, MD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What date must fixed MTFs and DTFs forward an annual assessment of the preceding fiscal year’s Quality Assurance (QA) program to MED-3C4 with a copy to the cognizant responsible line commander and HLTHCARE SUPPO to reach BUMED by?

A

15 January of each year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Who does TYCOM forward a copy to reach BUMED of the annual assessment of the preceding QA program to by 15 January?

A

Submit original to MED-3C4 and copies to the cognizant FLTCINC and HLTHCARE SUPPO to reach BUMED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Who submits case abstract for malpractice claim to MED-3C4 for each Potentially Compensable Event (PCE) review that is required or JAGMAN investigation initiated?

A

Commanding Officers, Officers in Charge and Senior Medical and Dental Representatives of Treatment Facilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the assigned report control symbol for risk management case review and malpractice information reports?

A

DD-HA (AR) 1782 (6010)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A medical record is considered delinquent if all required record components are not completed within how many days of patient discharge?

A

30 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

An infection is considered nosocomial if it first becomes apparent in how many hours after admission?

A

72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is an event or outcome during the process of medical or dental care in which the patient suffers a lack of improvement, injury or illness of severity greater than ordinarily experienced by patients with similar procedures or illness?

A

Potentially Compensable Event (PCE, Adverse Event)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the formal and systematic exercise of monitoring and reviewing medical care delivery and outcome; designing activities to improve health care and overcome identified deficiencies in providers, facilities, or support systems?

A

Quality Assurance (QA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Who’s goal is to improve efficiency and effectiveness of such process by addressing and eliminating special cause variations, eliminating non-value added steps, identifying and solving process problems, and making other carefully planned and tested changes to reduce overall process variation?

A

Continuous Quality Improvement (CQI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What form is the case abstract for malpractice claims?

A

DD 2526

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How many days must cognizant treatment facilities forward the DD2526 to MED-3C4?

A

30 days of the event for all PCEs.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Who are committed in providing the highest quality medical and dental care to DON beneficiaries?

A

Chief of Naval Operations (CNO) and the Commandant of the Marine Corps (CMC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What instruction and form is the BUMEDINST 6010.13 canceling?

A

NAVMEDCOMINST 6010.6 and NAVMED 6010/20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The QA program was originally issued to standardize all medical treatment facilities. In what year was the QA program originally issued?

A

1984

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Naval medical policy, procedures and responsibilities for DTFs were issued in ____ (what year) and they were incorporated into the QA program in ______ (what year)?

A

1987 and 1989

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Commands must ensure that all personnel, including direct and indirect care providers, administrators, ancillary services, volunteers, students, and other who come within how many feet of patients receive and maintain appropriate vaccination against seasonal influenza?

A

3 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) and general trash must be collected, treated, stored, disposed of, and managed following relevant local regulations and guidelines provided in what reference?

A

BUMEDINST 6280.1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Healthcare Associated Infection (HAI) prevention principles and procedure training must occur during initial indoctrination, as needed, and at least how often thereafter?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Commanders, COs, OICs will appoint an Infection Prevention and Control Committee (IPCC) to implement the Healthcare-Associated Infection Prevention and Control (HAIPC) Program per what reference?

A

BUMEDINST 6010.13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What reference requires Infection Prevention and Control Committees (IPCCs) to be established in MTFs and DTFs?

A

BUMEDINST 6010.13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What allows data comparisons at multiple levels for purposes of performance improvement?

A

Benchmarking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Who will oversee the Navy Infection Preventionist (IP) program to interpret requirements and facilitate interoperability?

A

BUMED Infection Preventionist (IP) SME

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Command must oversee reporting of communicable diseases per local or state requirements and per what reference?

A

BUMEDINST 6220.12B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What program covers all aspects of health care operations?

A

Healthcare-Associated Infection Prevention and Control (HAIPC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Freestanding ambulatory care facilities, including DTFs, must have the recommended staffing of at least 1.0 Fulltime Equivalent (FTE) for up to how many ambulatory care and dental visits per year?

A

200,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

The Healthcare-Associated Infection Prevention and Control (HAIPC) is guided by a written plan that includes at a minimum amongst other items an Infection Control Risk Assessment (ICRAs) how often?

A

Annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Who will act as liaisons for construction/renovation/mitigation projects by providing Infection Control Risk Assessments (ICRAs) and working with facilities, administration, construction workers, and others to help ensure patient safety from transmission of infectious diseases related to each project?

A

BUMED Infection Preventionists (IPs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

All bedded health care facilities as well as clinics attached to a bedded facility are eligible for participation in HHSN as of what year?

A

September 2010

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

All cases in MTF and DTFs involving serious injury, prolonged disability, or death secondary to Healthcare-Associated Infection Prevention and Control (HAIPC) problem, regardless of wether the patient is in active duty or civilian status, need to be reported to what both locally and at BUMED?

A

Patient Safety and Risk Management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Dental unit waterline monitoring and treatment must follow CDC Dental Guidelines and EPA standards of less than how many Colony-forming units per milliliter (CFUs/ml)?

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How often must all Navy Infection Prevention and Control Committees (IPCCs) meet?

A

Quarterly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who interprets DoD, Secretary of the Navy, and Chief of Naval Operations policies and provides guidance for Navy-wide Healthcare-Associated Infection Prevention and Control (HAIPC) Program implementation?

A

BUMED Infection Control Consultant (BUMED-M3/5)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

By what means shall all eligible MTFs and DTFs report Healthcare Associated Infections (HAIs)?

A

CDC’s National Healthcare Safety Network (NHSN)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Routine microbiological surveillance of hospital or clinic environments adds littler to infection prevention/control and should be restricted to investigations of outbreaks when recommended by the IP or who else?

A

Infection Prevention and Control Committee (IPCC) Chairman

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is critical in identifying outbreaks, emerging infectious diseases, antibiotic-resistant organisms (AROs), and bioterrorism events so that infection prevention measures can be instituted?

A

Infection Surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is defined as an organism that is capable of producing infection or infectious disease?

A

Infectious Agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What term is defined as an illness due to a specific infectious agent or toxic products which arises through transmission of that agent or its products from an infected person, animal, or inanimate reservoir to a susceptible host, either directly or indirectly?

A

Communicable Disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is an infection whose manifestations are not evident either at admission or within a likely incubation period for acquisition outside the health care facility?

A

Healthcare Associated Infection (HAI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What confer a high risk for infection if they are contaminated with any microorganism, including bacterial spores?

A

Critical Devices

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

In general, infections are not considered Healthcare Associated Infections (HAIs) unless the onset of the infections occurs more than how many hours after the time of admission or treatment?

A

48

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What type of medical devices contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin?

A

Semi-critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What concept is the quantity of materials or supplies required to treat a single patient?

A

Unit Dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Each day should begin with a hand wash with a minimum duration of how many seconds from fingertips to the wrist with soap and lukewarm water?

A

15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What items must be heat sterilized after cleaning following local Central Sterilization Room (CSR) standard operating procedures?

A

Critical and Semi-Critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

The method of transporting contaminated instruments from the DTR to Central Sterilization Room (CSR) is based on the result of the clinic’s risk assessment and may require more stringent containment and labeling per what standards?

A

OSHA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What technique should be used to recap anesthetic needles?

A

One handed “scoop”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

For routine dental treatment output water there must be less than or equal to what amount of CFUs per ML of heterotrophic water bacteria to meet EPA standards for drinking water?

A

500

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Clinical dentistry is practiced under how many basic conditions that require the application of infection control measures to mitigate the risk of cross-contamination?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Water and air must be flushed for how many seconds after each patient from any device connected to the dental water system that enter’s the patient’s mouth?

A

20-30

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Aerosols take considerable energy to generate, consists of particles less than how many microns in diameter, and are not typically visible to the naked eye?

A

10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are incompatible with infection control principles and should not be in DTRs?

A

Electric fans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What must be used when there is potential for splash, spatter, spray, or exposure to aerosols created while working with contaminated materials or performing disinfection procedures?

A

Face masks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What form should be used to clearly label the method of disinfection used for contaminated items?

A

DD Form 2322

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What are the two most common patient care items that rely on dental laboratory support and carry a multitude of oral microorganisms originating from dental plaque, blood, and saliva?

A

Prostheses and oral impressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Before turning on the lathe ensure that protective eye-wear is worn, plexiglass is properly positioned, and the vacuum ventilation system is activated (at least how many feet per minute continuous suction)?

A

200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the two functional areas that need to be considered when developing dental laboratory infection control procedures?

A

DTR and Dental Laboratory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How many separate work areas should each dental laboratory have whenever possible?

A

three (receiving area, production area for new work, and a production area for repair work)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Some microorganism with prosthetic materials are known to survive up to how many days?

A

7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

How often should pumice brushes be cleaned, disinfected, and sterilized?

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What should never be used to polish wax patterns on Denture Wax-up?

A

Saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What indicates that all blood, saliva, and body fluids in the health car setting should be treated as potentially infectious as indicated by Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)?

A

Standard precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What regulations are materials that originate from either the treatment area or dental laboratory that are not decontaminated subject to regarding transportation and shipping of potentially infectious materials?

A

Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What should be used on film packets to minimize the risk of contamination of the fabric light shield sleeves?

A

Plastic infection control barrier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Digital sensors and other high-tech instruments that come into contact with oral mucous membranes are considered to be what type of devices?

A

Semi-critical

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

How often must all counter surfaces be disinfected in the Darkroom?

A

Daily

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which reference defines medical surveillance?

A

DoD Directive 6490.02E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What are the two types of surveillance and reporting covered this manual?

A

Reportable Medical Event (RME); Syndromic and Categorical injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Which type of events, usually disease or etiologic agent specific, may pose an inherent, significant threat to public health and military operations?

A

Reportable Medical Event (RME)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What have the potential to affect large numbers of people, to be widely transmitted within a population, to have severe/life threatening clinical manifestations, and/or disrupt military training and deployment?

A

Reportable Medical Event (RME)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What publishes the agreed upon Reportable Medical Events (RME) list along with specific case definitions as the Armed Forces Reportable Medical Events Guidelines and Case Definitions?

A

The Armed Forces Health Surveillance Center (AFHSC)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Reportable Medical Events (RMEs) are commonly referred to as?

A

Medical Event Reports (MERs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Which instruction requires any medical event that meets the case definition of a reportable event to be reported

A

BUMEDINST 6220.12

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

When submitting Medical Event Reports (MERs) of outbreaks or disease clusters, reporters need not include identifying information about individual patients or file a MER for each individual case unless instructed by who?

A

Navy Environmental and Preventative Medicine Unit (NEPMU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Urgent medical event reports are required within how many hours for some events?

A

24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

How many calendar days must routine reports for all non-urgent medical events be submitted after their identification?

A

7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the Navy’s official system to submit, view and track Medical Event Reports?

A

Disease Reporting System Internet (DRSi)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

If reporters are affected by connectivity limitations, Medical Event Reports (MERs) may be made by what communication means?

A

Phone, naval message, or e-mail to the nearest Navy Environmental and Preventative Medicine Unit (NEPMU)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

For the prevention of disease and reporting of communicable disease, regulations promulgated by the Chief, Bureau of Medicine and Surgery in the Navy’s Manual of the Medical Department mandate that all Navy Medical Officers will cooperate with the what agencies?

A

Public Health Services and other Federal, State, and local agencies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Which type of surveillance involves monitoring the incidence of specific pre-diagnostic syndromes and injury occurring in specific populations to identify important clusters of disease/injury at the earliest time possible?

A

Syndromic and Categorical Injury Surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Syndromic and Categorical Injury Surveillance is also known as?

A

Disease and non-battle injury (DNBI) surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Base off of new guidance Disease and non-battle injury (DNBI) surveillance is imply referred to as?

A

D&I surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is performed either electronically or manually depending on a unit’s ability to complete and transmit healthcare encounter records to central Military Health System (MHS) data repositories?

A

D&I surveillance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the preferred D&I surveillance and reporting method that involves the analysis and monitoring of D&I related information stored in Military Health System (MHS) data repositories with the aid of analytic systems such as Electronic Surveillance System for the Early Notification of Community-Based Epidemics (ESSENCE), the Joint Medical Workstation, or the Theater Medical Data Store web interface?

A

Electronic D&I Surveillance and Report method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Which program will be used to compile and submit manual reports of their unit’s D&I information to the Navy and Marine Corps Public Health Center (NMCPHC)?

A

Microsoft Excel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

For manual reporting, how will you name the Microsoft (MS) Excel spreadsheet file before submitting your weekly report?

A

unitname.xls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

In general, the classification of Medical Event Reports (MERs) are considered?

A

unclassified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Before releasing the report, reports who are concerned that a report from their unit might have an adverse impact on their unit’s operational security or our national security should consult who for report classification?

A

Information Security/CO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

All Medical Event Reports (MERs) and D&I reports contain sensitive medical information, so all reports made through email should be?

A

Digitally signed and encrypted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What are the Navy’s primary consultative resource for disease/outbreak confirmation and response assistance including implementation of prevention and control measures?

A

Navy Environmental and Preventative Medicine Units (NEPMUs)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Inspections conducted by the Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) are restricted to _______ command activities?

A

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Inspections for medical treatment facilities (MTFs) are conducted in conjunction with the Joint Commission. T or F?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

What are the following information considered as?

  1. Assess command efficiency and effectiveness of Budget Submitting Office (BSO)-18 activities.
  2. Improve an organization’s mission readiness and performance based on program specific policies and direction.
A

Program Objectives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What program is designed to promote enterprise-wide organizational improvement by sharing best business practices and identifying systemic issues that require headquarters attention?

A

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) Inspection Program (BUMEDINST 5040.2C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

To ensure adequate attention is given and/or resources are made available to correct such finding, who are findings (initial or repeat) are briefed to?

A

Chief of BUMED and appropriate BUMED Leadership

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

If indicated, the Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) may require an organization to submit plans for correcting deficiencies and/or conduct a focused inspection in how many months?

A

6-12 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Inspected programs WITHOUT deficiencies are categorized as?

A

Compliant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Inspected program WITH deficiencies may receive what?

A

Requirement for Improvement (RFI) or Supplemental Finding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What identifies a nonexistent program or one that is deficient in major elements so that it does not fulfill the intent of policy?This requires the command to respond with an Implementation Status Report (ISR) outlining the command’s plan to initiate the program or correct its deficiencies.

A

Requirement for Improvement (RFI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

What form is used to submit the Implementation Status Report (ISR)?

A

OPNAV 5040/2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

The Implementation Status Report (ISR) and supporting documents will be forwarded through the chain of command. How many days after the receipt of the Final Report is the ISR due to Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN)?

How often are the follow-up ISR’s due to MEDINSGEN?

A

60 days

Every 90 days until closed by MEDINSGEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What is the procedure if a Requirement for Improvement (RFI) remains open greater than a year?

A

followed up by a letter to the respective regional commander to address why the RFI remains open

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What identifies a program that has an effective and formal process in place, but requires modification to achieve full compliance?

A

Supplemental Findings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are recommendations that will enhance a program’s effectiveness?

A

Opportunities for Improvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

The Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) Inspection and Joint Commission Accreditation survey is a concurrent assessment. T or F?

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What allows MEDINSGEN staff to capture Joint Commission concerns for dissemination throughout the Navy Medicine while simultaneously providing a source of information and clarification to the Joint Commission surveyors regarding military unique factors?

A

The Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) and the Joint Commission Accreditation survey concurrent assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Who notifies the Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) liason of required special announced or unannounced, focused, follow-up, or random unannounced surveys by the Joint Commission of Navy MTFs as they develop?

A

The Joint Commission Account Representative (AR)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Navy Medicine commands will be notified of impending inspections by the Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) and the Joint Commission Account Representative (AR) ___ business days in advance in CONUS or ___ business days in advance OCONUS.

A

CONUS = 7 business days

OCONUS = 30 business days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

From the end of the inspection, Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) will electronically forward the final inspection report to the command and a copy to the regional commander in HOW LONG?

A

Approximately 4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The Joint Commission surveyors will provide commands a copy of their preliminary findings at the conclusion of the survey. Any additional information related to the survey results will be posted WHERE?

A

the Joint Commission’s Web site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What echelon is the Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) categorized in?

A

Echelon 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) conducts Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) site assessments (inspection) in what TIME cycle?

A

1-4 year cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Who assigns a point of contact (POC) within the Team to serve as a liaison for all issues relating to the Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) inspection?This POC will be designated in the notification letter.

A

Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED)

127
Q

What is the MEDINSGEN team composition? (MTF)

A
  • senior inspector as team leader
  • senior comptroller to coordinate the financial and materials management inspections with the assistance from individual augments as needed
  • health care administrator
  • physician
  • nurse
  • dentist
  • senior enlisted inspector
  • investigator (as needed)
  • safety manager
  • yeoman with additional duty of trip coordinator to assist in logistical prep of sites
128
Q

Who will identify the specific team composition in the inspection agenda at the time of notification?

A

Medical Inspector General (MEDINSGEN) point of contact (POC)

129
Q

The MEDINSGEN tailors its inspection schedule for support activities based on standard inspection areas and the activity’s mission. T or F?

A

TRUE

130
Q

The first draft of the inspection agenda is forwarded to who? If there are any unresolved conflicts on site, who should be immediately notified?

A

Command POC

MEDINSGEN Team Leader

131
Q

Who shall appoint primary and alternate individuals to be POCs for the inspection?

A

Commanding Officer

132
Q

Who coordinates the preparatory activity prior to the arrival of the inspection party and provides support during the inspection?

A

Command POC

133
Q

Who will provide the MEDINSGEN a prepared brief to review during the document review session?

A

Command

134
Q

What are the focus group requirements?

A

10-12 (12 max) staff members

135
Q

How many focus groups can a member participate in?

A

only 1

136
Q

Executive Steering Committee (ESC)/Board of Director should have meeting minutes for the past ___ months shall be available.

A

12 months

137
Q

Performance Improvement (PI) meeting minutes for the past ___ months shall be available.

A

12 months

138
Q

Command and subordinate commands inspection and survey reports for the past ___ years shall be available.

A

3 years

139
Q

List of investigations conducted during the past ___ months shall be available.

A

12 months

140
Q

Management Internal Control (MIC) program reviews for the past ___ months shall be available.

A

12 months

141
Q

Command Evaluation (CE) program reviews for the past ___ months shall be available.

A

12 months

142
Q

Anti-Fraud Program periodic fraud risk assessments for the past ___ month shall be available.

A

12 months

143
Q

Other on-site documents include:

  1. Provider coding audit training documents for MTF inspections.
  2. Most recent Defense Equal Opportunity Management Institute (DEOMI) Equal Opportunity Climate Survey (DEOCS) results and any other assessments profiling the EO climate, morale, teamwork, and communication within the command.
  3. Executive Committee of Medical Staff (ECOMS) and Executive Committee of the Nursing Staff (ECONS) meeting minutes (MTF)

T or F?

A

TRUE

144
Q

What form is the MEDINSGEN Position Paper?

A

NAVMED 5040/7

145
Q

What are the transportation requirements for the following:CONUS?OCONUS?MEDINSGEN and Senior Enlisted Leader courtesy calls?

A

CONUS = No arrangements (RENTALS/need base passes and reserve 5 parking spaces)
OCONUS = Need transportation
Courtesy Calls = Provided by inspected Command

146
Q

What form is the MEDINSGEN Non-Medical Treatment Command Demographics Worksheet?

A

NAVMED 5040/3

147
Q

What form is the MEDINSGEN Non-Medical Treatment Command Preparatory Worksheet?

A

NAVMED 5040/4

148
Q

What form is the MEDINSGEN Medical Treatment Command Demographics Worksheet?

A

NAVMED 5040/5

149
Q

What form is the MEDINSGEN Medical Treatment Command Preparatory Worksheet?

A

NAVMED 5040/6

150
Q

How soon should the command point of contact ensure the NAVMED 5040/3 NAVMED 5040/4, and NAVMED 5040/5 be completed?

A

first 24 hours of IG inspection

151
Q

Non-medical & Medical treatment command MEDINSGEN team composition?

A
  • team leader
  • HCA for logistics and fiscal inspection
  • physician
  • nurse
  • dentist
  • senior enlisted inspector
  • an investigator (as needed)
  • a safety manager
  • yoeman
152
Q

Briefing should take not more than?

A

30-45 mins

153
Q

If the MEDINSGEN Team POC cannot be reached, who can the command contact?

A

MEDINSGEN Team Administrative

154
Q

Visits to outlying clinics, labs, or dets are designed for interaction and sharing information between personnel assigned to these activities and medinsgen. This describes what activities?

A

Echelon V activities

155
Q

Focus groups for Non-medical treatment commands generally include who?

A

Executive Steering Council (ESC), Department Heads, CPO, and E-6 and below.

156
Q

Focus groups for medical treatment commands generally include who?

A

Executive Steering Council (ESC), Executive Committee of Medical Staff (ECOMS), Department Head, Provider, CPO, and E-6 and below.

157
Q

What are the IT requirements for MEDINSGEN workspaces?

A

4 Common Access Card (CAC) enabled computers with internet access

158
Q

What establishes Navy Medicine policy and procedures for assessing, documenting, and reporting Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) in support of readiness requirements for Active Components (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) service members?

A

BUMEDINST 6110.14 - Documenting and Reporting Individual Medical Readiness Data

159
Q

Readiness is overall whose responsibility?

A

Commanding Officer

160
Q

Who actively support line commanders by performing periodic assessments and entering Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) data into approved electronic systems and the health record?

A

Navy Medicine

161
Q

What is being describe from the following descriptions:

  1. Integral component of force health protection and reflects a Sailor’s or Marine’s ability to deploy rapidly.
  2. Direct indication of a unit’s capability to fulfill its mission.
  3. Benefits the service member and the unit by ensuring protecttion against infectious and endemic diseases, can safely recieve prophylaxis and treatments, have all required medical equipment, and are in a state of dental readiness.
A

Individual Medical Readiness (IMR)

162
Q

Joint service committee has established requirements for service level tracking nad quarterly reporting of IMR data to the _______ _______ __ _______ (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA)) and also established the minimum standards for overall force medical readiness.

A

Assistant Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) (ASD(HA))

163
Q

What are the six elements of Individual Medical Readiness (IMR)?

A
  1. Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)
  2. Dental Readiness
  3. Readiness Lab Studies
  4. Immunizations
  5. Individual Medical Equipment
  6. Deployment Limiting Conditions
164
Q

What is used to review, identify and correct Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) deficiencies?

How often is it conducted?

A

Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)

Annually

165
Q

During the Periodic Health Assessment, data from what systems will be reviewed, verified, and updated?

A
  • Medical Readiness Reporting System (MRRS)

- Shipboard Non-tactical Automated Data Processing Program (SNAP), Automated Medical System (SAMS)

166
Q

For whom will the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) be performed within 30 days of each service member’s birth month and is overdue if not accomplished within 30 days following the birth month?

(Birth month is October. PHA can be completed as early as 1 September and as late as 30 November)

A

Active Components (AC) service members

167
Q

Who will have the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) performed based on an annual requirement due date and is considered overdue if not accomplished by the last day of the month one year after the last PHA?

(PHA completed October. Considered overdue on 31 October)

A

Reserve Component (RC) service members

168
Q

What system will the the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) clinical note be documented in? (an encounter and readiness module entry)

A

Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA)

169
Q

If Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) is not available, the PHA clinical note will be documented on what form?

A

NAVMED 6120/4 - PHA

170
Q

To document PHA visits for tracking purposes, the date must be manually entered in SAMS or MRRS, until the AHLTA Readiness Module allows for electronic transmission of this data. T or F?

A

TRUE

171
Q

What medical record form will be updated, ellectronically and/or paper health record, upon completion of the PHA?

A

DD Form 2766 - Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet

172
Q

For the IMR report, all personnel will be considered “Indeterminate” ___ year plus ___ month from the last PHA completion date.

A

ONE year; ONE month

173
Q

Who will ensure the deployment health requirements have been assessed; as well as, assess whether the service member has unresolved deployment-related health concerns or referrals pending for members with adverse signs and symptoms?

A

Provider

174
Q

Members that have deployed or re-deployed, will be assessed during the PHA to ensure what has been completed from the most recent deployment?

A
  • DD Form 2796, Post Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA)

- DD Form 2900, Post Deployment Health Reassessment (PDHRA)

175
Q

If it is beyond ___ days since redeployment, it is NOT necessary to complete DD Form 2796 (PDHA), as DD Form 2900 (PDHRA) will suffice.

A

89 days

176
Q

What Navy program is used to conduct the Post Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA) and the Post Deployment Health Reassessment (PDHRA)?

A

electronic Deployment Health Assessment (eDHA) program

177
Q

What is the PHA considered as when the required deployment health assessment forms are completed, provider and service member have discussed a plan for any necessary follow up, and required referrals have been entered?

A

Complete

178
Q

What dental classification is considered worldwide deployable?

A

Dental Class 1 & 2

179
Q

What dental classification is considered at increased risk to eaxperience a dental emergency and is NOT deployable because dental emergencies during deployment compromise unit combat effectiveness?

A

Dental Class 3 & 4

180
Q

What type of dental examination is used as a part of the initial dental examination and again at all annual recalls in order to determine a service members dental classification? (documented as part of the PHA)

A

Type 2 dental examination

181
Q

What form and systems are dental classifications documented on?

A
  • NAVMED 6600/13, Dental (Oral) Examination
  • Dental Common Access System (DENCAS)
  • MRRS
182
Q

The member’s dental examination remains current for one year and one month following the month of the last Type 2 dental examination. At what month will the member be delinquent for the Type 2 dental examination?

A

the first day of the 14th month

183
Q

What dental classification are assigned to service members with a current dental examination who do not require dental treatment or re-evaluation and are considered worldwide deployable?

A

Dental Class 1 (Oral Health)

184
Q

What dental classification are assigned to service members with a current dental examination who require non-urgent dental treatment or re-evaluation for oral conditions that are unlikely to result in dental emergencies within 12 months and are considered worldwide deployable?

A

Dental Class 2

185
Q

What dental classification are assigned to service members who require urgent or emergent dental treatment and are considered NOT worldwide deployable?

A

Dental Class 3

186
Q

What dental classification are assigned to service members who require periodic dental examinitaion, have an unknow dental classification, have no dental record, and are considered NOT worldwide deployable?

A

Dental Class 4

187
Q

What are the basic laboratory studies required for an individual to be deployable?

A
  1. Blood type and Rh factor.
  2. G6PD status.
  3. DNA on file
  4. Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV) antibody
188
Q

What are the test results for G6PD?

A

Normal or deficient

189
Q

Where must DNA have a verified receipt from?

A

Armed Forces Institute of Pathology repository

190
Q

Active duty service members shall be tested for HIV how often?

A

Every 2 years

191
Q

When should reservists be tested for HIV?

A

At the time of activation when called to active duty for more than 30 days, and if they have not received a HIV test within the last two years.

192
Q

HIV considered overdue for IMR reporting ___ days after the scheduled due date.

A

30 days

193
Q

Who processes samples submitted for HIV testing?

A

Navy MTF

194
Q

DNA specimens do not require manual entry into MRRS. T or F?

A

TRUE

195
Q

HIV positive service members receive a clinical evaluation and HIV disease specific laboratory studies how often? Where? Are routine HIV lab testing indicated?

A
  • Twice a year
  • HIV Evaluation and Treatment Unit (HETU)
  • Routine labs are not indicated
196
Q

What surveillance/screening is part of the PHA process and is not required to be tracked separately in IMR?

A

TB Surveillance/Screening and TB skin test

197
Q

All readiness laboratory study results are documented in the health record and what approved electronic system?

If not documented, the readiness laboratory studies will be considered as what on IMR reports?

How is this corrected?

A
  • AHLTA, MRRS, and SAMS
  • Deficient.
  • Review health record and manually enter the studies until electronic capabilities are available
198
Q

During the PHA, what will be updated to ensure all required boosters coming due during the subsequent year are administered?

A

Immunizations

199
Q

Do not administer any portion of an initial immunization series earlier than the perscribed interval. T or F?

A

TRUE

200
Q

Immunizations are considered overdue for IMR reporting on their due date, with the exception of what vaccine?

A

Influenza

201
Q

How are immunitions documented?

A

AHLTA encounter in the AHLTA immunizations module

202
Q

If immunizations are properly entered in the AHLTA immunizations module, they will not be manually entered in what systems?

A

MRRS or SAMS

203
Q

If electronic sources are unavailable, the immunization encounter will be documented on what form?

A

NAVMED 6230/4, Adult Immunization Record

204
Q

Immunizations given at location without AHLTA will enter the data into either ____ or ____ for transmission to the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System (DEERS).

A

MRRS or SAMS

205
Q

What has the capability that allows alignment of immunizations that appear in the DEERS repository without the need for manual entry?

A

MRRS

206
Q

What option should only be used when it is possible to validate the immunizations with AHLTA, the paper record, or the CDC-731 (International Certificate of Vaccination) or Prophylaxis?

A

Align option

207
Q

What immunization can be used to substitute Hapatitis A and B?

A

TWINRIX

208
Q

What immunizations must service members have to be deployment ready?

A 
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis B
IPV
Tdap
MMR
Annual influenza
209
Q

Tetanus/diphtheria/pertusis (Tdap) is a one time booster between the ages of what years?

A

11-64 years old

210
Q

Influenza is required at the beginning of what date?It is considered overdue if not administered on what date?

A

1st of September1st of January

211
Q

Additional immunizations may be required based on what?

A
  • Geographic area of operation(s)
  • Occupational
  • Immediate Superior in Command (ISIC) specific requirements
212
Q

How many pairs of glasses are service members required to have who require vision correction?

A
  • 2 pairs(one frame of choice and one standard issue or personal eyeglasses may be substituted)
213
Q

For service members under deployment orders who require corrective lenses will posses gas mask _____ for the model of gas mask in use. Perscriptive _____ for ballistic eyewear will be issued, if required.

A

Inserts

214
Q

What form is used for Medical Warning Tag Order?

A

NAVMED 6150/5

215
Q

All information regarding Individual Medical Equipment will be entered into MRRS or SAMS, until what is available?

A

Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA)

216
Q

What is defined as medical and dental conditions that would make a member unsuitable to perform their duties in a deployable status?

A

Deployment Limiting Conditions

217
Q

What are the limiting conditions that would prevent a service member from being deployable?

A 
Limited duty (LIMDU)
Medical Evaluation Board (MEB)
Physical evaluation board (PEB)
Pregnant
Postpartum period
218
Q

Service members hospitalized or convalescing from serious illness or injury expected to require greater than 90 days for full recovery shall be placed on what?

A

LIMDU

219
Q

Women in the post-partum period are non-deployable for one year from the date of delivery, but are elligible for voluntary deployment how many months after delivery?

A

6 months

220
Q

Reserve Component (RC) service members who are classified as Temporarily Not Physically Qualified (TNPQ), in Medical Retention Review (MRR) status (Navy), Not Physically Qualified status (Marine Corps and Navy), in the Line of Duty (LOD-Navy) or Notice of Eligibility (NOE-Marine Corps) status, and/or Temporarily Not Dentally Qualified (TNDQ) are considered what for deployment?

A

Not medically ready

221
Q

What are the 4 classifications of Individual Medical Readiness?

A
  1. Fully Medically Ready (FMR)
  2. Partially Medically Ready (PMR)
  3. Not Medically Ready (NMR)
  4. Medical Readiness Indeterminate (MRI)
222
Q

What Classification is current in all six elements?

A

Fully Medically Ready (FMR)

223
Q

What Classification is lacking any readiness laboratory studies, immunizations, or medical equipment?

A

Partially Medically Ready (PMR)

224
Q

What Classification is dental class 3 or with a deployment limiting condition?

A

Not Medically Ready (NMR)

225
Q

What Classification if overdue PHA, PDHRA (Navy), or in a dental class 4 status?

A

Medical Readiness Indeterminate (MRI)

226
Q

Whos are responsible for ensuring all IMR medical and dental data is recorded in an approved electronic system for uniformed service members in their service area of responsiblity (AOR) including all new accessions?

A

Commanding Officers of MTFs, OIC, and authorized medical department representatives

227
Q

What are approved sources for the PHA to be documented in?

A
  1. Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA)
  2. Dental Common Access System (DENCAS)
  3. Shipboard Non-tactical Automated Data Processing Program (SNAP), Automated Medical System (SAMS)
  4. Medical Readiness Reporting System (MRRS)
  5. Members Health Record
228
Q

What system is approved for use in documenting all IMR elements?

A

MRRS

229
Q

What system is approved for shipboard use in documenting all IMR elements and the data must be properly entered when providing IMR support services and submitted to the Navy Medicine On-line (NMO)?

A

Shipboard Non-tactical Automated Data Processing Program (SNAP), Automated Medical System (SAMS)

230
Q

The information from Shipboard Non-tactical Automated Data Processing Program (SNAP), Automated Medical System (SAMS) will be sent to MRRS by the Navy Medicine what?

A

Data Broker

231
Q

What are used for dental readiness data entry?

A

DENCAS and SAMS transmit data to MRRS, all 3 are used.

232
Q

MTF Commanders are prohibited from the use of “homegrown” or locally developed clinical databases for tracking of IMR. T or F?

A

TRUE

233
Q

BUMED Medical Operations (M3/5) submits the DOD IMR reports to the TRICARE Management Activity, Office of the Assistanr Secretary of Defense (Health Affairs) how often?

A

Quarterly

234
Q

Officer of the Chief of Navy Reserve will provide Navy Reserve IMR quarterly reports, Headquarters Marine Corps will provide AC IMR, and Headquarter Marine Forces Reserve will provide RC Marine Corps IMR quarterly reports to who?

A

BUMED Medical Operations (M3/5)

235
Q

What happens when the “yes” option in MRRS reporting is selected in the “excluded” field when preparing reports?

A

Exclude members who fall within specific category, code, or duty status and therefore are not available for the command to correct IMR deficiencies

236
Q

Who is responsible for oversight of all medical readiness and deployment activities from each Navy Medicine region and command? This individual/team will assist those in isolated or unique billets.

A

A trained IMR/MRRSsubject matter expert as the designated person/team leader

237
Q

Navy MTFs will also serve as a resource to Line commands as they gain MRRS access. T or F?

A

TRUE

238
Q

Commanding Officers of MTFs, OICs, and authorized medical department representative will implement the program actions, if not already in place, within how many days of the date of this instruction?

A

60 days

239
Q

What form is the International Certificate of Vaccination? Replaced the PHS-731 (yellow shot card)?

A

CDC-731

240
Q

Which instruction establishes policy and procedures to ensure the Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) of Navy and Marine Corps Active Component (AC) and Reserve Component (RC) is complete?

A

SECNAVINST 6120.3, Periodic Health Assessment for Individual Medical Readiness

241
Q

What will be used to review, verify, and correct IMR deficiencies?

A

Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)

242
Q

How many elements does Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) consist of?

A

IMR consists of six elements:

(1) Individual Medical Equipment
(2) Immunizations
(3) Readiness Laboratory Studies
(4) Dental Readiness
(5) Deployment Limiting Conditions
(6) Periodic Health Assessment

243
Q

What does the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) replace for Reserve Component (RC) and Active Component (AC) requirements?

A
  • RC = NAVMED 6120/3, Annual Certificate of Physical Condition
  • AC = Routine 5-year periodic physical examination
244
Q

How often will all AC and RC service members receive an individualized face-to-face assessment of their health status?

A

Annually

245
Q

What are the approved electronic systems in which a Periodic Health Assessment (PHA) can be documented in?

A
  • Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA)
  • Dental Common Access System (DENCAS)
  • Shipboard Non-Tactical Automated Data Processor (SNAP) Automated Medical System (SAMS)
  • Medical Readiness Reporting System (MRRS)
  • Member’s Health Record
246
Q

Who are responsible for scheduling the Periodic Health Assessment and completing all referrals and Individual Medical Readiness (IMR) requirements?

A

AC and RC service members

247
Q

Who are responsible for ensuring the individual readiness of the personnel assigned to their units?

A

Command Officers

248
Q

What is the fundamental method by which medical readiness and the health of each unit is measured?

A

Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)

249
Q

What is the form number of the Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet?

A

DD 2766

250
Q

What is the form number of the Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet Continuation Page?

A

DD 2766C

251
Q

What is the form number of the Active Duty/Reserve Forces Dental Examination?

A

DD 2813

252
Q

What is the form number of the Pre-Deployment Health Assessment?

A

DD 2795

253
Q

What is the form number of the Post-Deployment Health Assessment (PDHA)?

A

DD 2796

254
Q

What is the form number of the Post-Deployment Health Re-Assessment (PDHRA)?

A

DD 2900

255
Q

What is the form number of the Annual Certificate of Physical Condition?

A

NAVMED 6120/3

256
Q

What is the form number of the Dental Exam (trial)?

A

EZ 603.2

257
Q

What is the form number of the Periodic Health Assessment (PHA)?

A

NAVMED 6120/4

258
Q

Within how many days of their birth month will Active Component (AC) service members have the PHA performed?

A

30 days

259
Q

Reserve Component (RC) personnel will have their annual Periodic Health Assessments completed through?

A

Operational Suuport Centers (OSC) Medical Department Representatives (MDRs) or Inspector-Instructor MDR and assessed by available provider assets

260
Q

What is reviewed to identify any unresolved health issures, incomplete health care, IMR deficiencies, completion of deployment health requirements, or health risk factors?

A

Health Data

261
Q

For purposes of the Periodic Health Assessment, who are the approved providers?

A

IDC, Physicians, Nurse Practitioners, and PAs.

262
Q

What is blood pressure measurement used to screen for?

A

Hypertension

263
Q

Service members must be referred to optometry if during the PHA visit their distance or near binocular visual acuity is worse than what?

A

20/40

264
Q

If service members do not meet the 20/40 acuity standard, shall obtain and wear what?

A

Glassess or eyewear

265
Q

RC service members will provide updated corrective lens prescriptions from their civilian provider at least every how many years for inclusion in their HREC?

A

2 years

266
Q

Which standard acuity chart is used for the distance binocular visual acuity test?

A

Snellen

267
Q

Service members less than how many years of age do not require near vision testing unless they report difficulties with near vision?

A

45 years old

268
Q

A reading acuity test is performed using a Near Acuity Card normally at an appropriate distance of how many inches depending on the card being used?

A

16 inches

269
Q

What will not be worn while testing visual acuity?

A

Contact lenses

270
Q

How many pairs of eyeglasses are required for service members who require vision correction?

A

2 pairs

271
Q

Service members who are subject to deployment and require vision correction will possess the appropriate Ballistic Protection Optical Inserts that is compatible with what issued item?

A

Military Combat Eye Protection (MCEP)

272
Q

What are required for service members with documented allergies and permanent conditions which would delay treatment, or render the routinely indicated course of treament dangerous (e.g., diabetes, drug allergies, or insect bites)?

A

Medical Warning Tags

273
Q

Service members must be sent for a hearing evaluation if they are enrolled in the Hearing Conservation program and there hasn’t been a monitoring audiogram within the past how many months?

A

12 months

274
Q

When will overdue immunizations be administered?

A

during the PHA

275
Q

What immunizations will not be administered earlier than the prescribed interval?

A

initial series immunizations

276
Q

In order for service members to be deployment ready, what immunizations must they have?

A 
Hepatitis A (Completed series)
Hepatitis B
Inactive Polio Vaccine (IPV)
Tetanus/Diphtheria/Pertussis (Tdap)
Measles, Mumps, and Rubella (MMR)
Annual Influenza
277
Q

What basic laboratory studies are required to be completed for an individual to be deployable?

A 
Blood TypeRh factor
G6PD Status (normal/abnormal)
Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA)
Current Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)
278
Q

Who verifies DNA specimens?

A

Armed Forces Institute of Pathology repository

279
Q

Unless clinically indicated all AC personnel will be tested for HIV at least every how many years?

A

2 years

280
Q

RC personnel shall be HIV tested at the time of activation when called to active duty for more than how many days? Or within how many years of not being tested?

A

30 daysno test within the last 2 years

281
Q

Which Dental Class does a service member have to be in to be considered worldwide deployable?

A

1 or 2

282
Q

What Dental Class does a service member have to be in to be considered at increased risk to experience a dental emergency and is normally not regarded to be worldwide deployable?

A

3 or 4

283
Q

What is the preferred method to measure cardiovascular risks and can be found on the Navy Environmental Health Center (NEHC) PHA website?

A

Framingham Risk Score

284
Q

What will service members complete that the results will serve as the basis for health risk prevention counseling?

A

Health Assessment Review Tool (HART)

285
Q

Assessment and review must be conducted on all prescribed and over the counter medication, nutritional supplements, ergogenic aids, and herbal agents. What form will be used for documentation?

A

DD 2766, Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet

286
Q

How many days of supply of prescription medication should service members have when they deploy?

A

90 days

287
Q

Which system are medical waiver forms available through?

A

Physical Readiness Information Management System (PRIMS)

288
Q

Which form provides immediate visibility of current health status and future screening requirements?

A

DD 2766, Adult Preventive and Chronic Care Flowsheet

289
Q

What are formal written guidance that informs and instructs Navy personnel by communicating policy and procedures used in the performance of their duties?

A

Directives

290
Q

Depending on the purpose and use, what may be issued in the form of an instruction, a notice, or a change transmittal to an instruction?

A

Directive

291
Q

What are the two forms of directives?

A

Internal and External

292
Q

Which form of directives are issued and applicable only to addressees within the issuing authority’s organization?

A

Internal Directives

293
Q

Which form of directives are issued and applicable to addressees external to the issuing authority’s organization?

A

External Directives

294
Q

How many different ways can a directive be issued depending on the purpose and use?

A

3

295
Q

Which form should be used to cancel a form and must be submitted to the command forms manager?

A

DD 67 Form Processing Action Request

296
Q

What is the official font for Navy directives?

A

Times New Roman

297
Q

What is the official font size for Navy directives?

A

12

298
Q

Notices are normally issued for policy, forms, or information collection requirements of a short term nature typically less than how many years?

A

1

299
Q

What is issued for informative announcement, such as change of command, education or promotion opportunities, recreational activities, work improvement plans, suggestions for morale building, or changes in office locations or telephone numbers?

A

Notices

300
Q

Which type of documents should not be issued via a directive?

A

Navy Regulations or top secret documents

301
Q

How often at a minimum must all Navy instructions be reviewed?

A

Annually

302
Q

How many years from the date of issuance must an instruction that has not been revised (as contrasted with changed, such as a change transmittal as per subparagraph 8c), in the interim, require revision or cancellation?

A

5 years

303
Q

All Navy notices are self-cancelling and cannot be in effect for more than how many years?

A

1 year

304
Q

What type of instructions are excluded from the 5-year cancellation or revision requirement date?

A

Joint inter-Service instructions and manual-type instructions

305
Q

If Navy is the lead Service and the Inter-Service joint instruction has not been revised or cancelled by which anniversary date, it will be automatically cancelled?

A

10th year anniversary

306
Q

Navy manual-type instructions not revised or cancelled by which anniversary date will be automatically cancelled?

A

10th year anniversary

307
Q

One-year extensions of the required cancellation or revision date, as necessary, may be authorized by appropriate authority. How many extensions will be allowed?

A

No more than 2

308
Q

Extension requests must be submitted via action memorandum at least 90 days prior to the 5-year anniversary date for the first extension and at least __ days prior to the _-year anniversary date of for the second extension?

A

90 days; 6-year anniversary date

309
Q

What form is used to indicate the releaseability of the directive?

A

OPNAV 5215/9, Clearance of Proposed Directive

310
Q

How many days are canceled Office of the Chief of Naval Operations (OPNAV) directives maintained on the Department of the Navy Issuance (DONI) website after which they are removed from the site?

A

90 days

311
Q

Who exercises overall management of the Navy Directives Management Program and provides for the implementation and administration of the program within the Navy?

A

CNO

312
Q

How often must issuing authorities conduct a review of directives using OPNAV 5215/40, Review of Instruction?

A

Annually

313
Q

OPNAV DSCPs must Complete OPNAV 5215/41 Navy Directives Management Self-Assessment within how many days following their command appointment letter with a copy sent via his or her chain of command to OPNAV echelon 1 directives manager (Navy Directives Program Management Office ((DNS-15))?

A

30 days

314
Q

Department of the Navy Issuance (DONI) website provides what classifications for sensitive and classified OPNAV directives?

A

“F” - For Official Use Only
“N” - Not Releasable to Foreign Nationals (NOFORN)
“C” - Confidential
“S” - Secret

HM Instructions Combined (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions