2. BUMEDINST 6300.19; BUMEDINST 6280.1C; MCTP 3-40A; MCTP 3-40G; BUMEDINST 6230.15B Flashcards
1
Q
What has the mission of providing Force Health Protection and supporting the medical needs of the Navy and Marine Corps Team across the entire spectrum of operations?
A
Navy Medicine
2
Q
What is the foundation on which Force Health Protection is built?
A
Primary Care services
3
Q
What will PCMH be known as in Navy Medicine?
A
Medical Home Port
4
Q
Oversight of this instruction will be provided by three Navy Medicine clinical Region Commanders, reporting implementation progress and subsequent performance to the Bureau of medicine and Surgery (BUMED) M3/5 on what basis?
A
Monthly
5
Q
All primary care clinics in Navy Medicine will have transitioned to the Medical Home Port model by what date?
A
June 30th, 2011
6
Q
Who will act as the resource sponsor for all resource requirements necessary to fully implement Medical Home Port?
A
Deputy Chief, BUMED, Resource Management (M8)
7
Q
Who will lead a diverse, multidisciplinary team in the implementation, monitoring, and assessment of Medical Home Port?
A
MTF Clinical Champion
8
Q
Who will identify board members to augment National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) site surveyors to assist in site evaluation for recognition by NCQA and compliance with the standards in BUMEDINST 6300.19?
A
Chairman, Primary Care Advisory Board
9
Q
What is an integrated, comprehensive, continuous way of meeting the health care needs of patients by the Navy Medicine Team?
A
Navy Medicine Primary Care
10
Q
What is Navy Medicine’s new model of primary care services?
A
Medical Home Port
11
Q
What has established nationally recognized standards for PCMH?
A
National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA)
12
Q
It is expected that all Medical Home Port locations will attain recognition for Level I within how many months of establishing a Medical Home Port clinic?
A
Four
13
Q
Once achieving National Committee for Quality Assurance (NCQA) Level I recognition through a self-assessment, Medical Home Port clinics have an additional how many months to achieve NCQA Level II recognition?
A
6
14
Q
A clinician who is available for how many fully bookable hours each week shall be defined as a full time equivalent of 1.0?
A
36
15
Q
Family Medicine Training Program Faculty members are required to comply with the requirements of the Accreditation Council for Graduate Medical Education (ACGME) Residency Review Committee (RRC) mandate of how many hours per faculty full time equivalent per year spent in resident teaching, oversight, or other faculty-related activities, exclusive of other patient care responsibilities?
A
1400
16
Q
New hiring actions to support Medical Home Port are not authorized unless specifically approved by whom?
A
Navy Medicine Region Commander
17
Q
BUMED strongly recommends that providers should realize 1,100 patients is the minimum, but not to exceed how many patients, for every full time equivalent provider on the Medical Home Port Team for patient empanelment?
A
1,300
18
Q
CNO guidance specifies that MTFs cannot enroll students who are assigned to that command for less than how many days?
A
179
19
Q
Closed panel. Once NCQA recognition is attained, then that Medical Home Port clinic will serve a closed panel. They will only be responsible for meeting the needs of their enrolled patients. Medical Home Port clinics will not be responsible for the patients of other providers outside their clinic or non-enrolled patients. Who are the only exceptions?
A
Newborns of enrolled patients who are less than 60 days old and are awaiting TRICARE enrollment, as well as, foreign nationals or dignitaries
20
Q
Each Medical Home Port team will consist of how many privileged providers?
A
3-5 providers
21
Q
When a Medical Home Port provider team consists of three providers, at least how many of them must be physicians?
A
One
22
Q
When a Medical Home Port provider team consists of five providers the team will have no more than what total of administrative discounts?
A
1.25
23
Q
What percentage of civilians should command strive to ensure that each Medical Home Port provider team consists of?
A
50%
24
Q
Each Medical Home Port team shall have one Behavioral Health Provider for every how many enrollee’s?
A
7,500
25
Who serves as the care manager for assigned patients to coordinate care and other necessary services to meet the needs of the patient, as determined by the patient's primary care provider?
RN
26
As a general rule, commanders, COs, and OICs will make every effort to not rotate Medical Home Port Team Nurses for a minimum of how many years?
One
27
Who is responsible for the care, career progression, and Sailorization of enlisted personnel in the primary care department of which the Medical Home Port clinic is a part?
SEL
28
Who facilitate patient check-in, verification of DEERs eligibility and collection of other Health Insurance Information?
Clerical Staff
29
What is the recommended ratio of behavioral health providers to enrolled patients?
1:7,500
30
In general, one Nurse Educator can serve the needs of approximately how many patients?
7,500
31
In general, one case manager can meet the needs of approximately how many patients?
7,200
32
Who provide advice on diet, food , and nutrition?
Nutritional Supports
33
How many types of appointments will be used in Medical Home Port clinics?
Four
34
Acute Appointment Types (ACUT) appointment types are for patients to be seen within what time frame?Open Access Appointment Type (OPAC) is the same as ACUT, but patients are seen when?
24 hours
Same Day
35
Established Appointment Types (EST) appointments are for patient to be seen within what time frame?
One week
36
All Wellness Appointments Types (WELL) are only used for patient wellness visits and provisions of preventative services. This type of appointment will be seen within what time frame?
One week
37
Primary care providers that routinely perform minor outpatient procedures on their patients are booked under what type of appointment?
Procedure Type Appointment (PROC) or Specialty Type Appointments (SPEC)
38
What two factors will be considered when deciding which appointment type to use?
Medical acuity and Patient desires
39
Civilian experience suggests that what percent of patients requesting a primary care appointment will desire a same day appointment?
50%
40
Medical Home Port clinics that attain what recognition will no longer be subject to traditional productivity-based PPS incentives, but will be judged on access, quality, outcome, and other related measures?
National Committee on Quality Assurance (NCQA) Level II
41
What type of offices are used for providers, nurses, support staff, as well as associated rooms for treatment or private consultation?
Combined offices (PODS)
42
How many exam rooms per provider is required?
2
43
All primary care providers participating in a Medical Home port clinic shall be a member of the Medical Home Port clinic team of how many providers?
3-5 providers
44
BUMED strongly recommends that providers realize 1,100 patients is the minimum, but not to exceed how many patients for every provider or full time equivalent?
1,300
45
Enrolled patients calling for an appointment and requesting to be seen the same day will be seen that same day by a member of the Medical Home Port team. All other patients will be seen within how many days unless they specifically request a later appointment or it would be medically inappropriate for them to wait that long?
7
46
What is the process used to empower patients to make wiser health care decisions?
Demand management
47
Quality care is realized when patients and providers partner together to set and attain health care goals. what is essential for this to succeed?
Continuity of care
48
Which instruction provides standards for management of regulated medical waste (RMW) generated from processes at Bureau of Medicine and Surgery (BUMED) Budget Submitting Office (BSO) 18 facilities or received by BUMED facilities prior to treatment and disposal?
BUMEDINST 6280.1C, Management of Regulated Medical Waste
49
Personnel conducting activities outside of the Continental United States, Hawaii, Alaska, and its territories will adhere to their host nation _____ _________ _________.
Final Governing Standards (FGS)
50
If a host nation Final Governing Standards (FGS) does not exist, what is adhered to?
Overseas Environmental Baseline Guidance Document (OEBGD)
51
Regulations provided in 29 CFR Part 1910.1030 and the policies in which other reference describe the processes that BUMED facilities will implement to protect personnel from occupational exposures to blood and other potentially infectious material?
BUMEDINST 6220.14, Bloodborne Pathogen control Program
52
Wastes generated from the management of biological select agents and toxins must be managed per which reference?
BUMEDINST 6210.3, Handling and Shipping of Potentially Hazardous Biological Materials, DiagnosticSpecimens, and Etiologic Agents
53
Shipboard personnel are governed by what guide?
Afloat Medical Waste Management Guide
54
Regulated medical wastes generated by non-BUMED facilities or received by non-BUMED facilities for management are governed by the requirements of which reference?
OPNAVINST 5090.1D, Environmental Readiness Program
55
What is solid material intended for disposal which is produced as the direct result of non-infectious patient diagnosis, treatment, therapy, or medical research other than those characterized as Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)?
Non-Regulated Medical Waste
56
Non-Regulated Medical Waste requires no further treatment and is disposed as?
general waste and trash
57
What is generated during diagnosis, treatment, or immunization of humans or animals and is capable of causing disease or would pose other adverse health risks to individuals or the community if improperly handled?
Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)
58
How many groups is Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) organized into that are managed based on associated risks?
9
59
How many primary groups of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) are there each with specific management, treatment, and disposal criteria?
9
60
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with cultures, stocks, and vaccines?
1
61
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with pathological waste?
2
62
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with blood and blood products?
3
63
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with used sharps?
4
64
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with animal Waste (from animals exposed to infectious agents during research, production of biologicals, or testing of pharmaceuticals)?
5
65
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with isolation Wastes (including bedding from patients or animals from BioSafety Level 4 (BSL 4) agents)?
6
66
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with unused sharps?
7
67
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with other (including fluids that are designated by the local infection control authority)?
8
68
Which group of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) deals with Chemotherapy Trace Wastes?
9
69
Which category of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) is specific to infectious animals, contaminated animal carcasses, body parts, and bedding of animals known to have been exposed to infectious agents during treatment, research, productions of biologicals, or testing of pharmaceuticals?
Animal Waste
70
How many Bio Safety Levels are there with specific combination of work practices, safety equipment, and facilities, which are designed to minimize the exposure of workers and the environmental to infectious agents?
4
71
Which Bio Safety Level is the most stringent and applies for work with dangerous and exotic agents that pose a high individual risk of life threatening disease, which may be transmitted via the aerosol route and for which there is no available vaccine or therapy?
Level 4
72
Which type of waste is a free-flowing liquid human blood, plasma, serum, and other blood derivatives (e.g., blood in blood bags or bloody drainage in suction containers); absorbent materials soaked or dripping with blood; and items caked with dried blood, capable of releasing blood if handled?
Blood and blood products
73
What are defined as infectious agents and associated biologicals, including those from medical and pathological laboratories, as well as dishes and devices used to transfer, inoculate, and mix cultures?
Cultures and stocks
74
Which type of waste qualifies as both Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) and hazardous waste? For example a syringe used to administer a medication that classifies as a pharmaceutical Hazardous Waste (HW) or dental amalgam waste be an example of?
Dual
75
What is a Solid Waste (SW), or combination of Solid Waste (SW), which, because of its quantity, concentration, or physical, chemical, or infectious characteristics, may cause or significantly contribute to an increase in mortality or an increase in serious irreversible or incapacitating reversible illness or pose a substantial present or potential hazard to human health or the environment when improperly treated, stored, transported, disposed of, or otherwise managed?
Hazardous Waste (HW)
76
Which type of waste would include biological waste and discarded materials contaminated with blood, excretion exudates, secretions from humans who are isolated to protect others from highly communicable disease, and secretions from isolated animals known to be infected with highly communicable diseases caused by BSL 4 agents including pox viruses and arboviruses?
Isolation
77
Which type of waste would include used personal hygiene products (e.g., diapers, facial tissues, and sanitary napkins not originating from post-partum suites or gynecological surgical wards) and absorbent materials containing very small amounts of blood or other body fluids (e.g., bandaids)?
Non-Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)
78
Which type of waste would include organs, tissues, body parts other than teeth, products of conception, and fluids containing tissue removed by trauma or during surgery or autopsy or other medical procedure?
Pathological
79
These wastes are typically not considered pathological waste if they have been fixed in ________ and should then be disposed of per state, local, or Final Governing Standards (FGS) regulations.
Formaldehyde
80
What is a devise or item to be worn, used, or put in place for the safety or protection of an individual or the public at large, when performing work assignments in or entering hazardous areas or under hazardous conditions? Equipment includes an article of clothing, hearing and eye protection, respirators, etc.
Personal Protective Equipment (PPE)
81
Which type of waste is generated during diagnosis, treatment, and immunization of humans or animals and is capable of causing disease or would pose other adverse health risks to individuals or the community if improperly handled?
Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)
82
Which type of waste are used or unused hypodermic needles, syringes (with or without the attached needles), Pasteur pipettes, scalpel blades, blood collection and vials, test tubes, needles attached to tubing, dental burs, endodontic files, culture dishes (regardless of presence of infectious agents), glassware (broken or unbroken), damaged dishes, dishes with sharp edges that were in contact with infectious agents, microscope slides, and cover slips?
Sharps
83
Chemotherapy trace waste is defined as needles, empty vials, syringes, gowns, and tubing that contained chemotherapeutic pharmaceuticals or were exposed to chemotherapeutic pharmaceuticals during treatment of the patients. These wastes must be classified as empty (less than what percent of its full capacity remaining) to meet this definition?
3%
84
Chemotherapy trace wastes that are not classified as empty must be managed as?
Bulk chemotherapy waste
85
Who is responsible for formulating and disseminating Navy Medicine policy and guidance related to the management of Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)?
Chief, BUMED
86
Who is responsible for ensuring that Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) is identified and managed according to existing regulations and policies, including adherence to the most stringent requirements applicable to a site are followed?
Environmental Program Manager (EPM)
87
How many years after being appointed must the Environmental Program Manager (EPM) take environmental training?
1 year
88
How often at a minimum must the Environmental Program Manager (EPM) visit each subordinate command to assess the environmental compliance posture and provide assistance as required?
Annually
89
Who is responsible for providing overall management of the Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) program for the site, including proper segregation, collection, storage, preparation for transport, and recordkeeping?
Environmental Point of Contact (EPOC)
90
How often must employees handling Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) receive environmental refresher training?
Annually
91
Within the facility, all non-sharps RMW must be placed in containers appropriate for the waste that are clearly marked with the universal biohazard symbol, labeled with the word “BIOHAZARD”, and what in color?
Red
92
Containers used for the collection of non-sharp RMW must be lined with plastic RMW bags that are marked and certified by the manufacturer to meet the 165 gram (g) Impact Strength American Society for Testing and Materials (ASTM) D 1709-01 and the how many grams Tear Strength ASTM D 1922-00a standards?
480g
93
Sharps must be collected in rigid, red, or clear containers that are ________-________ and both the container and exterior container (i.e., wall mount) must be marked with the international biohazard symbol.
puncture-resistant
94
Per Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) interpretation, all Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) containers must remain what when not in use?
Closed
95
What are vaccines containing thimerosal managed as?
Hazardous Waste (HW)
96
What type of waste must be placed in a rigid Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) container lined with a compliant RMW bag or double-bagged and labeled appropriately? Ethical considerations may dictate using alternative means of disposal such as cremation or burial by whom?
Pathological WasteLicensed mortician
97
Pathological waste must be placed in frozen storage if it is to be maintained on-site longer than how many hours?
24 hours
98
Which type of waste are extracted teeth considered to be?
Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)
99
Which type of waste are extracted teeth with amalgam considered to be?
Dual
100
Which type of waste are placentas considered to be if managed by the facility?
Pathological
101
Which Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) group may include but are not limited to semen, vaginal secretions, cerebrospinal fluid, synovial fluid, pleural fluid, peritoneal fluid, pericardial fluid, and amniotic fluid?
*** This group includes fluids that are designated as Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) by the local Infection Control (IC) authority ***
Group 8
102
Generally, what color are the chemotherapeutic trace waste containers?
*** Do not mix chemotherapy trace wastes with non-chemotherapy Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) or Hazardous Waste (HW) ***
Yellow
103
What should not be used to transport Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)?
** Avoid busy patient areas or use freight elevators **
Chutes and Dumbwaiters
104
If frozen, pathological waste may remain in storage on-site up to how many calendar days?
30 days
105
Non-pathological RMW may be placed unrefrigerated in final storage (i.e., the location where RMW is held to await off-site transport or disposal) for up to how many calendar days unless the waste becomes putrescent within a shorter storage duration?
7 days
106
Interim and final Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) storage areas must be constructed to prevent pest access, and to allow for easy cleaning, especially of spills. The entrance(s) to the storage area must be labeled as “BIOHAZARD” and marked with the universal biohazard symbol. If the signage cannot be placed on the door, it must be placed on the wall directly adjacent to the entry. Per BUMEDINST 6220.14, the signage must be fluorescent orange or orange-red with lettering and symbols in a contrasting color such as black. The signage must be legible from a distance of at least how many feet?
5 feet
107
What type of vehicles are authorized for use to transport Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) between locations and are easily cleaned and disinfected? It contains a spill kit with appropriate PPE.
Designated government-owned vehicles
108
Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) that will be transported over public roadways to an off-site treatment and disposal facility is typically removed by a Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) disposal contractor. This waste must be packaged per which reference including labeling requirements?
49 CFR 100-185, Hazardous Waste Regulation
109
Which type of waste is treated or disposed by being incinerated, thermally inactivated, chemically disinfected (liquids only), or treated by steam sterilization followed by incineration or grinding?
Group 1: Cultures, stocks, and vaccines.
110
What type of waste is treated or disposed by being discharged to the sanitary sewer or if not allowed, be steam sterilized or incinerated?
Group 3: Blood and blood products
111
Steam sterilization must be achieved per equipment manufacturer recommendations, including equipment maintenance and testing. In the absence of manufacturer recommendations, steam sterilization requires temperatures of at least 121° C (250° F) for at least 90 minutes at 15 pounds per square inch of gauge pressure, and Geobacillus stearothermophilus spore strips must be used how often to test the sterilization process?
Weekly
112
Command and job specific training must occur prior to beginning work, and how often thereafter for all employees with occupational exposure to Regulated Medical Waste (RMW)?
Annually
113
Employees in continental United States locations responsible for packaging the Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) for off-site transport or signing the shipping documents and manifests must complete training that is specific for Class 6-Division 6.2 hazardous materials and compliant with the requirements of 49 CFR 100-185. Initial training is required as soon as possible, but not longer than how many days, upon assuming duties?How often is this training refreshed thereafter?
90 days24 months
114
What document outlines the cradle-to-grave management of RMW specific to the generating processes at the facility and must include a contingency plan for the management of RMW should the primary means become unavailable or should environmental conditions temporarily prevent the removal of RMW from the facility?
Medical Waste Management Plan
115
How often is the Medical Waste Management Plan reviewed?
Annually
116
Each facility must develop a site-specific Medical Waste Management Plan. Modifications to the plan must be made within how many days of the annual review or following a significant process change?
90 days
117
How many years from the date of training must all training records be retained for?
3 years
118
Facilities must maintain Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) shipping documents and manifests for at least how many years after the waste was accepted by the transporter?
2 years
119
If Regulated Medical Waste (RMW) is transported off-site, the receiving facility must provide written documentation certifying proper treatment and disposal to the generating facility. In the event that this documentation is not received within how many days, the Environmental Program Manager (EPM) must notify the contracting officer representative for the RMW disposal contract to determine appropriate means of contacting the transporter and receiving facility to trace the disposal?
60 days
120
What departments are consulted for additional information about potential occupational exposure to RMW?
Safety Department and Occupation Health Department
121
Who are AMALs/ADALs maintained and resupplied by?
MEDLOG, Supply Company, MLG
122
What AMAL contain equipment and reusable materiel to establish a laboratory capable of hematology, microbiology, urinalysis, collecting, and chemistry testing?
618 - Lab Equipment
123
What AMAL contain consumable supplies to perform hematology, microbiology, urinalysis, and chemistry testing for 100 patients?
619 - Lab Supply
124
What AMAL contain equipment, consumable supplies, and reusable materiel to establish 1 X-ray suite?
627 - X-Ray
125
What AMAL contain equipment and reusable materiel to establish a basic shock trauma surgical team or triage supporting the receipt, resuscitation, sorting and temporary holding of casualties?
631 - Shock Surgical/Triage Equipment
126
What AMAL contain consumable supplies required to receive, resuscitate, sort, and temporarily hold 50 casualties with major wounds?
632 - Shock Surgical Team/Triage Supply
127
What AMAL contain equipment and reusable materiel to establish a 10-bed unit providing care for patients?
633 - Acute Care Ward Equipment
128
What AMAL contain consumable supplies to ward support for 100-bed days to patients?
634 - Acute Care Ward Supply
129
What AMAL contains consumable supplies to provide aid station support, initial resuscitative and stabilizing care for 50 casualties with major wounds prior to evacuation and resupplying basic line Corpsman?
635 - Battalion Aid Station Equipment636 - Battalion Aid Station Supply
130
What AMAL contains consumable supplies required to support PVNTMED effort of the MEF in 12, 5-day packages for 60 days?
638 - Preventative Medicine Technician
131
What AMAL contain equipment and reusable materiel required to support 1 operating room for performing major surgical procedures, administrating general anesthesia, sterilizing, and maintaining sterile materiel?
639 - Operating Room Equipment
132
What AMAL contain consumable supplies required to provide operating room support for 25 surgical cases?
640 - Operating Room Supply
133
What AMAL contain equipment, consumable supplies, and reusable materiel required to care for 18 patients in a 48-hour period?
645 - Forward Resuscitative Surgical System (FRSS)
134
What AMAL contain equipment and consumable supplies required to reconstitute the Forward Resuscitative Surgical System (FRSS) suite?
646 - Forward Resuscitative Surgical System (FRSS) Resupply
135
What AMAL contain equipment, consumable supplies, and medical treatment protocols necessary for the medical management of 2 critically injured/ill, but stabilized, patients during transport aboard Marine Corps aircraft from elements ashore to elements at sea or ashore?
647 - En Route Care System (ERCS)
136
What AMAL provides the equipment and consumables required to conduct en route care for 2 critically injured/ill, but stabilized patients within the ACE?
648 - Casualty Evacuation (CASEVAC)
137
What AMAL provides the equipment and consumables required to provide care to military and civilian casualties from a CBRN or high-yield explosives incident in CONUS and OCONUS?
652 - CBRIF
138
What AMAL provides the equipment and consumables required to provide initial resuscitative and stabilization capability for a MARSOC unit?
660 - MARSOC
139
What AMAL contain consumable supplies and reusable materiel to accommodate special mission/geographic related requirements into areas where cold-related injuries are likely to occur?
685 - GEO Mission/Cold Weather
140
What AMAL contain consumable supplies and reusable materiel to accommodate special mission/geographic related requirements into areas where heat-related injuries are likely to occur?
686 - GEO Mission/Hot Weather Supplement
141
What AMAL contain materiel required for the individual to conduct primary decontamination and treatment in a CBRN environment?
687 - GEO Mission/CBRN Individual
142
What AMAL contain materiel required for the units to conduct primary and secondary decontamination and treatment in a CBRN environment?
688 - GEO Mission/CBRN Unit
143
What AMAL contain equipment and reusable materiel to perform testing calibration, and 3d and 4th echelon maintenance of medical/dental equipment?
691 - MEDLOG Test/Repair Equipment
144
What AMAL contain consumable supplies to accommodate a medical repair section in testing, calibrating, and intermediate maintenance of medical/dental equipment?
692 - MEDLOG Test/Repair Supply
145
What AMAL contain medical materiel to provide essential treatment for Disease and Non-Battle Injuries (DNBIs) during routine sick call for 300 deployed Marine Corps forces for 30 days?This AMAL provides the sick call capability for a BAS and will usually be deployed with the BAS AMALs.
699 - Sick Call
146
What ADAL contain equipment and reusable materiel establishing a field dental clinic?Consumable supplies providing emergency, diagnostic, preventive, and maintenance dental support for 400 patients.
662 - Field Dental Operatory
147
What encompasses the procurement, initial issue, management, resupply, and disposition of material required to support medical and dental elements organic to the MARFOR?
Health Service Support (HSS) Logistics
148
What instruction is followed for guidance for planning and procuring Class VII (consumable and equipment material such as blood products)?
DoD Instruction 6480.4 - Armed Services Blood Program (ASBP) Operational Procedures
149
When the medical planner is developing and planning for appropriate levels of Class VIII support, the following information is crucial to ensuring that the entire HSS system is responsive to the commander:
1. Concept of operation/scheme of maneuver.
2. Combat Intensity
3. Duration of the operation
4. Casualty estimates
150
The _____ surgeon advises the MAGTF commander regarding medical and dental material support.
MAGTF
151
How many days are AMAL/ADAL designed to support a MEF?
60 days
152
How many days are AMAL/ADAL designed to support a MEB?
30 Days
153
How many days are AMAL/ADAL designed to support a maritime prepositioning force?
30 Days
154
How many days are AMAL/ADAL designed to support a MEU?
15 days
155
Who is responsible for funding AMALs/ADALs above the level prescribed by the Marine Corps Order (MCO) 6700.5, Medical and Dental (Class VIII) Material Support of the Marine Operational Force?
Authorizing Commander
156
A unit's _____ includes items necessary for basic support of the organization.
Table of Equipment
157
Authorized medical allowance lists and ADAL's are specialized equipment and supply assemblages for medical and dental elements to provide?
Combat Health Service Support (HSS)
158
Health service support detachments deploy wit their initial issue, for the first _____ days of operations, Class VIII material beyond this level for the MEF is maintained by the LCE supply detachment and provided to support units as required.
60 Days
159
In joint operations, _____ is the organization that is authorized by the CCDR to provide central logistical support to all participating services in the CCDR's area of responsibility.
Single Integrated Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM)
160
During joint operations, what organization is authorized by the Combatant Commander (CCDR) to provide central logistical support to all participating Services in the CCDR's area of responsibility?
Theater Lead Agent for Medical Materiel (TLAMM)
161
What organization is designated by Single Integrated Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM) to accomplish the mission?
Theater Lead Agent for Medical Materiel (TLAMM)
162
As the dominant user, the _______ has been formally tasked by the DOD to perform the peacetime Theater Lead Agent for Medical Materiel (TLAMM)/Single Integrated Medical Logistics Manager (SIMLM) mission in the European, Pacific, Korean, and Middle Eastern theaters and must plan for the missions under wartime or crisis conditions.
US Army
163
The ____ supply detachment, which may include portions of MEDLOGCO, provides Class VIII single item resupply and limited medical repair capabilities to all HSS units of the MAGTF.
Logistics Combat Element (LCE)
164
What is the name of the medical bag issued to Hospital Corpsmen assigned to combat support units of the MAGTF?
Corpsman Assault Pack (CAP)
165
Who is responsible for ensuring that the contents of the Corpsman Assault Pack (CAP) are maintained in good condition, and that medications have not exceeded their shelf life?
The Corpsmen's parent unit supply section
166
What is the name given to medical equipment and supplies required to support the patient during evacuation?
Patient Movement Items (PMI)
167
When a patient requires evacuation, who is responsible for providing the PMI? Where is this addressed at?
Originating MTFOperation Plan (OPLAN)
168
When disposing of soiled, contaminated, or other unserviceable Class VIII items in the United States or its territories, disposal should be coordinated with the local _____.
Defense Reutilization Marketing Office (DRMO)
169
When disposing of soiled, contaminated, or other unserviceable Class VIII items, when the tactical situation permits during combat operations, the safest method of field disposal is ____, followed by ____.
Burning; Deep Burial
170
When disposing of items in a tactical situation utilizing deep burial, how deep should items be buried?
6 feet or more
171
Whose responsibility is to neutralize and dispose of clothing, equipment, and dressings removed during CBRN decontamination process?
Command CBRN Officer
172
Medical material and supplies are protected under The Law of War and the _____.
Geneva Conventions
173
Medical materials and supplies that are mixed with combat supplies lose the protection afforded by The Law of War and the Geneva Conventions. T or F?
TRUE
174
What is the recovery of remains and personal effects, identification of remains, and evacuation of remains to a temporary cemetery within the theater for burial or to a mortuary facility?
Mortuary Affairs
175
What consists of three different programs: current death program, concurrent death program, and graves registration program?
Mortuary Affairs
176
What program is in effect during peacetime and during hostilities of short duration when few casualties are expected; where remains are moved from a unit's area of operation to a collection point, then to a mortuary either within CONUS or OCONUS, and finally to the person authorized to direct disposition of remains?
Current Death Program
177
What program is in effect during wartime; where remains move from the unit area of operation to a collection point, then to a Theater Mortuary Evacuation Point (TMEP), next to a mortuary located in CONUS, and finally to the person authorized to direct disposition of remains?
Concurrent Return Program
178
What program is used only as a last resort and only upon order of the geographic combatant commander; only enacted when an overwhelming number of remains prevents normal mortuary affairs operations from occurring or when contaminated remains cannot be decontaminated?
Graves Registration Program
179
What military branch is the executive agent of mortuary affairs for all Services?
The US Army
180
In the _____ _____, mortuary affairs responsibilities reside in the Reserves, whose primary focus is graves registration. The reserve unit is the Graves Registration Platoon, H&S Company, H&S Battalion, 4th FSSG.
Marine Corps
181
The Graves Registration Platoon's T/O consists of?
Marine Officer - 1
Marine Enlisted - 42
Enlisted Navy Embalmers - 3
182
What is the designated site where specially-trained personnel provide technical assistance for the acceptance and disposition of remains and is an intermediate or transit point for remains?
Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP)
183
What should be close to a main supply route, have easy access to a landing strip or fixed airport, and be located on terrain that accommodates a temporary interment site?
Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP)
184
Who is responsible for selecting the site of the Mortuary Affairs Collection Point (MACP)?
MAGTF Commander
185
What is established when the threat of nuclear, biological, and chemical (NBC) warfare exists?
Mortuary Affairs Decontamination Collection Point (MADCP)
186
The handling of contaminated remains is a three-phase process that consists of recovery, movement to the theater quality control station, and final verification of remains. T or F?
TRUE
187
What is the systemic process of searching for remains and personal effects, plotting and recording their location, and evacuating remains to a mortuary affairs facility?
Remains processing
188
At all levels, who are responsible for the initial search, recovery, tentative identification, and evacuation of all deceased unit personnel within their area of operation?
Unit Commanders
189
The following forms will be filled out and delivered to who?DD Form 1380, Certificate of DeathDD Form 2064, Certificate of Death OverseasDD Form 894, Record of ID Processing (Finger Print)DD Form 890, Record of ID Processing (Effects/Personal Data)DD Form 1076, Military Operations: Records of Personal Effects of Deceased
Joint Mortuary Affairs Office (JMAO)
190
Certificate of Death
DD Form 1380
191
Certificate of Death Overseas
DD Form 2064
192
Record of ID Processing (Finger Print)
DD Form 894
193
Record of ID Processing (Effects/Personal Data)
DD Form 890
194
Military Operations: Records of Personal Effects of Deceased
DD Form 1076
195
The success of a search and recovery mission depends on a well-organized search _____ that is tailored to the situation.
Pattern
196
What operation must take the following into consideration?- Precautions to preserve all items that might be helpful in establishing a tentative identification of remains.- Safety and Sanitation- Remains must be free of the risk of spreading harmful contamination, and they must have all unexploded ordnance and other hazardous items removed.
Recovery Operation
197
During recovery, units must ensure that identification tags and cards, if present, are not removed from the remains, protected, and secured to the remains. T or F?
TRUE
198
Remains, portions, and personal effects are evacuated from the recovery site to a mortuary affairs facility using the most expedient manner of transport to prevent losing identification media due to ________ of remains.
Decomposition
199
Operational requirements may dictate the use of any available transportation, but the use of what type of vehicle is not encouraged?
Medical and Food bearing vehicles
200
Remains are carried feet first; loaded feet first on vehicles and rotary-wing aircraft; head first on fixed-wing aircraft; and are placed in a manner to prevent stacking and secured to prevent shifting during movement. T or F?
TRUE
201
If the tactical situation requires a unit to move out of an area in an expedient manner without evacuating remains, who may approved requests to conduct isolated interments?
Geographic Combatant Commander
202
What are shallow graves constructed to prevent unattended remains in open areas, where all personal effects and other identification media are interred with the remains, and the site is marked in an easily distinguishable manner for future recovery teams?
Isolated interments
203
The unit prepares and submits an incident report on the isolated interment of remains to the ______ via higher headquarters as soon as possible.
Joint Mortuary Affairs Office (JMAO)
204
At a minimum, what must include a 10-digit coordinate, the number of isolated graves, tentative identification of each remains, and markings of isolated graves?
Incident report
205
If tactical and logistical situations make it possible to use preferred evacuation or emergency burial methods, ____ or ______ burials may be used to reduce the time between recovery and burial remains.
Mass or Trench burials
206
Who may approve mass or trench burials of casualties.
Joint Mortuary Affairs Office (JMAO) within theater with the approval from the geographic combatant commander
207
If there are no mortuary affairs units in the area and contact with higher headquarters is lost, who in the area decides whether the remains should be buried in a mass grave or evacuated to the rear?
The Senior Officer
208
What are the measurements of the mass burial sites? How many can it hold?
70 feet long, 3.5 feet deep, and as wide as the earthmoving equipment blade (min. of 2.5 feet).Holds 10 remains, head to foot
209
The beginning and ending of each row is marked with a metal stake, and metal tag is securely affixed to each stake indicating the row number. If available, a global positioning system device is used to determine and record the location of each row. T or F?
TRUE
210
Remains may be committed at sea when a death occurs aboard a ship at sea and prevailing operational constraints do not permit evacuation. T or F?
TRUE
211
With authorization from the appropriate Service components commander is granted to perform committal as at sea, who appoints an officer in charge of the committal?
Ship's Commanding Officer
212
The officer in charge conducts the committal in accordance with what regulation?
Army Regulation (AR) 638-2, Care and Disposition of Human Remains and Disposition of Personal Effects
213
Prior to committal, who ensures the remains are positively identified?
Ship's Commanding Officer
214
Who is responsible for accurately recording all facts concerning the committal in the ship's log and for ensuring appropriate respect/honors are paid to the deceased?
Officer in Charge
215
What consists of a statement of recognition from two individuals and a certificate of death signed by a medical officer?
Identification case file
216
After the committal at sea, who does the Officer in Charge send the identification case and a report detailing the committal, to include distribution of personal effects?
Joint Mortuary Affairs Office (JMAO)
217
Who is responsible for ensuring that all temporary interments are disinterred and the remains are returned to the CONUS for final disposition?
Geographic Combatant Commanders
218
Who monitors, coordinates, and provides special guidance during disinterred operations?
Joint Mortuary Affairs Office (JMAO)
219
Who coordinates and supervises disinterment operations within the operational area; provides specialized equipment, personnel, and other support as necessary to accomplish the mission?
Designated component commanders
220
The component commander's ________ ________ office coordinated with the Joint Mortuary Affairs Office (JMAO)and obtains records and reports of burials required during disinterment. Remains are processed and sent to a collection point for further evacuation to a TMEP.
Mortuary Affairs
221
Who will prescribe specific immunization and chemoprophylactic requirements for their units per requirements established by this publication and additional guidance provided by the appropriate surgeon general or United States Coast Guard (USCG), Coast Guard, Director of Health and Safety (CG-11)?
Command medical authority
222
The DoD policy concerning immunizations follows what recommendations in addition to the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) and the prescribing information on the manufacturer's package inserts, unless there is a militarily relevant reason to do otherwise?
Centers for Disease Control (CDC)
223
What licensed by the Food and Drug Administration (FDA) or the Department of Health and Human Services (DHHS) may be used, as well as immunizing agents compliant with applicable DoD investigational new drug (IND) or emergency use authorization (EUA) process?
Any immunizing agent
224
What will not be used beyond the manufacturer's potency expiration date, unless the appropriate surgeon general or Director of Health and Safety (CG-11), United States Coast Guard (USCG) authorizes extension in exceptional circumstances?
Immunizing agents
225
Recommended immunization schedules will not be what?
Compressed
226
Immunizations given at an interval shorter than the recommended interval may not provide adequate immune response and should not be counted as part of a primary series, unless part of what schedules accepted by the Centers for Disease Control (CDC)?
"Catchup"
227
In general, to minimize injection-site discomfort, not more than how many vaccine injections will be given on the same day?
5 vaccines
228
Live-virus immunizations typically are given simultaneously or at an interval of how many or more weeks?
4 weeks
229
What agents are requisitioned in accordance with medical supply procedures?
Immunizing and Chemoprophylaxis
230
With regard to smallpox (vaccinia) vaccine, a specific pre-immunization screening form that assess the date of last menstrual period is required. For women whose last menstrual period was more than how many days, a pregnancy test is recommended?
28 days
231
Breastfeeding women may be immunized in accordance with what current guidelines?
Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) Guidelines
232
There are 2 types of exemptions from immunizations. What are they?
Medical and Administrative
233
Cases warranting what type of medical exemption due to a vaccine-related adverse event will be reported to the Vaccine Adverse Events Reporting System (VAERS)?
Permanent
234
Air Force: military members with permanent medical exemptions require a medical evaluation board and/or a flying waiver in accordance with what instruction?
Air Force Instruction (AFI) 48-123
235
Within how many days before separation or retirement, Service personnel may be exempt from deployment (mobility) immunizations if certain conditions are met?
180 days
236
Exemptions apply to civilian employees and contractor personnel who will leave a position subject to immunization with how many days or less?
30 days
237
For Service personnel, immunizations exemptions for religious reasons may be granted according to Service-specific policies to accommodate doctrinal religious beliefs. Whose decision is this ultimately?
Command decision made with medical and chaplain advice
238
Permanent exemptions for religious reasons will not be granted in what branch?
Air Force
239
For military personnel, civilian employees, and other health care beneficiaries, the DoD-approved what is preferred record for immunization data, including date, immunization given, dose, and identification of the person administering?
Electronic immunization tracking systems
240
Electronic Immunization Tracking Systems (ITS) must incorporate DoD-directed levels of security, certification, and redundancy, and the requirements of what act to preclude unauthorized access to personal medical information and to survive hardware or software malfunction?
Health Insurance Portability and Privacy Act of 1986
241
A printed report from the electronic Immunization Tracking System (ITS), in PHS Form 731, SF 601 (Health Record-Immunization Record), or DD Form 2766C (Adult Preventive and Chronic Flowsheet) (Continuation Sheet) format, accompanied by an official clinic stamp and the authorized signature and printed name of an authenticating official, will qualify as what type of immunization report?
Official paper
242
What form is prepared upon request for each member of the Armed Forces and for non-military personnel receiving immunizations, including date, immunization given, dose, and initials of person administering. The form contains valid certificates of immunization for international travel and quarantine purposes in accordance with World Health Organization (WHO) international health regulations?
PHS Form 731
243
Entries based on prior official records will include what following statement?
"Transcribed from official records"
244
The DoD and United States Coast Guard (USCG) withdrew needle-free multi-use nozzle jet injectors (MUNJIs) capable of 600 or more injections per hour, formerly identified within DoD supply systems as "hypodermic injection apparatus jet automatic: 115 volt or foot operated," in what year due to safety concerns?
1997
245
Whenever vaccines are administered, at least how many people present must be trained and current in basic Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation, oral pharyngeal airway management, and recognition and initial treatment of anaphylaxis with epinephrine?
1
246
The Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices (ACIP) general recommendations suggest that person be observed for how many minutes after being immunized?
15-20 minutes
247
Aviation personnel typically will be grounded for how many hours after immunization, or as specified by their flight surgeon?
12 hours
248
Health care personnel must report adverse events resulting in hospitalization, a life-threatening event (for example, anaphylaxis), time lost from duty more than HOW MANY HOURS, an event related to suspected contamination of a vaccine vial, and an event warranting permanent medical exemption (that is, a contraindicating event)?
24 hours
249
Military treatment facilities and commands storing health records will review immunization and chemoprophylaxis practices at least how often to ensure compliance with current standards of care and documentation and as a measure of medical readiness and health promotion?
Annually
250
Military treatment facilities and commands will conduct a review of the adequacy of immunization coverage among supported populations at least how often?
Annually
251
Enlisted accessions may be scheduled for immunizations in how many or more clusters as long as all appropriate immunizations are administered?
Two
252
Typhoid and Yellow Fever immunizations are required for alert forces defined by Forces Command (FORSCOM) as division -ready brigades, including attached command and control packages, combat support packages, combat service support packages, and other units approved by the FORSCOM commander for what branch?
Army
253
Yellow fever immunization is required for all Marine Corps personnel and for all Navy personnel assigned to Marine Operating Forces. Additionally, yellow fever immunization is required for Navy personnel assigned to Navy units subject to deployment within how many days of notification into land areas where yellow fever is endemic?
10 days
254
In accordance with what instruction, emergency-essential employees will be notified that they may be required to take immunizations as a condition of employment?
DODD 1404.10
255
Who will receive country-specific immunizations without charge at military activities upon presentation of official orders or authorization?
Federal civilian employees
256
Immunizations of civilian employees and contracted workers for biological warfare defense are addressed in what instruction?
DODI 6205.4
257
When what Food and Drug Administration (FDA), licensed vaccines are available, administer to military basic trainees as they arrive to prevent febrile respiratory disease, disease outbreaks resulting from person-to-person transmission, and lost training time?
Adenovirus
258
What is almost uniformly fatal once symptoms develop?
Inhalation anthrax
259
Hepatitis A, is an acute infection of the what? Acquired by consuming food and water contaminated with hepatitis A virus during development or travel to areas with poor food, water, and sewage sanitation. Hepatitis A is endemic worldwide.
Liver
260
Hepatitis B, an acute or potentially chronic infection of the what? Acquired through percutaneous, sexual, and other permucosal exposure to blood and body fluids from people infected with hepatitis B virus.
Liver
261
Influenza A and B, which are acute viral infections of what type? That can cause epidemics within military populations, especially under conditions of crowding, such as initial entry training, aboard ship, extended air transport, or deployment settings. Influenza A has the potential for pandemic spread.
Febrile repiratory
262
Japanese encephalitis, which is a viral disease of what type? During deployments and travel to endemic areas in Eastern Asia and certain western Pacific Islands. Japanese encephalitis virus can cause an acute infection of the brain, spinal cord, and meninges with high rates of complications, chronic disability, and death.
Mosquito borne
263
Administer Japanese encephalitis virus (JEV) to military personnel, civilian personnel, contracted workers, and other beneficiaries who are or will be stationed at least how many days in rural areas of Asia where there is substantial risk of exposure to the virus, especially during prolonged field operations at night?
30 days
264
Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) Persons born in 1957 or earlier are presumed to be immune through infection. Ensure military personnel born after 1957 have received how many lifetime doses of MMR vaccine or have positive serologic test results?
2
265
Administer meningococcal vaccine to military personnel traveling for more than how many days to regions subject to meningococcal outbreaks, if not administered within an appropriate booster interval?
15 days
266
What causative agent of plague has been identified as a potential biological warfare agent?
Yersinia pestis
267
What is acquired by person-to-person transmission through the fecal-oral route?
Poliomyelitis
268
In what year did the World Heath Organization (WHO) declare the global eradication of naturally occurring smallpox?
1980
269
What is an acute illness caused by an exotoxin of Clostridium tetani, a bacteria that grows at the site of wounds contaminated with its spores?
Tetanus
270
What have been shown to increase survival when used after exposure to anthrax and before onset of symptoms?
Antibiotics
271
What is spread by the bite of infective larval mites and may be a source of morbidity in populations encountering primitive field conditions?
Scrub typhus
272
Within how many days of receiving the validated and prioritized biological warfare threat list from the Chairman of the Joint Chiefs of Staff, the DoD Executive Agent, in consultation with the Secretaries of the military departments and the President of the Armed Forces Epidemiological Board, provides recommendations to the Assistant Secretary of Defense for Health Affairs (ASD(HA)) on vaccines and immunization protocols necessary to enhance protection against validated biological warfare threat agents?
30
273
Combatant Commanders must request approval from who to use Investigational New Drugs (IND) for force health protection?
Secretary of Defense
274
A vaccine, antibiotic, or other product in an Investigational New Drugs (IND) status may be mandatory for military members, if who has approved a waiver of the requirement for informed consent?
President of the United States
275
Under what section of the Food Drug and Cosmetic Act (21 USC 360), some drugs, vaccines, or devices that have not been approved or licensed by the FDA through the regular drug approval process (or not approved for an intended use) may be used as medical countermeasures to chemical, biological, radiological, or nuclear (CBRN) agents or threats if the FDA grants an emergency use authorization (EUA)?
Section 564
276
In general, the FDA may grant an emergency use authorization (EUA) for up to how many months, with potential renewal?
12 months
277
Who may decide that potential recipients of a drug under an emergency use authorization (EUA) should have the option to refuse it? The President may waive the option for military personnel.
The FDA
278
What is the Executive Agent for the Military Vaccination Program?
Army
279
What provides medical services for the U.S. Marine Corps?
Navy
280
Medical exemptions from immunizations are considered temporary if they are up to how many days?
365
281
What style of refrigerators are not authorized for vaccine storage?
Dormitory
282
At least how often should vaccine storage alarms be tested?
Monthly
283
What publication contains the Army's religious accommodation policy for immunizations?
AR 600-20
284
Vaccine storage alarm test records should be maintained for at least how many years?
3
285
At what temperatures should refrigerated vaccines be stored at?
35-46 degrees F
286
How far should injections be separated by when simultaneous vaccine injections are necessary and different anatomical sites are not possible?
1 inches
287
How long should vaccine storage unit documented temperature logs be kept?
5 years
288
Vaccine doses in an initial series administered how many or more days earlier than the minimum interval should not be counted as valid doses?
14 days
289
When using a Styrofoam cooler for transporting vaccines the container walls must at least how many inches thick?
2
290
Discarded needles and syringes if vaccines are not administered before the end of the clinic day or vaccination session in accordance with the manufacturer's package insert. If no time line is provided, discard after how many hours?
8 hours
291
TB testing if not done simultaneously with the live virus vaccines should be done how many weeks after administration of live virus vaccines?
4-6 weeks
292
What is usually recommended or required to increase immunity back to protective levels for vaccines that do not provide lifetime immunity?
Booster dose
293
Vaccinia Immune Globulin is only available by ordering through what office?
MILVAX
294
Two or more live virus vaccines must be administered simultaneously or separated by at least how many days?
28 days
295
At what temperature or lower should frozen vaccines be stored?
5 degree F
296
What typically represent the most imminent threat in military training center and are given immunization priority?
Contagious diseases
297
A minimum of how many adult doses of epinephrine must be immediately accessible on scene for the mid cal management of an anaphylaxis event whenever vaccines are administered?
Three
298
Permanent immunizations based on Religion are not granted in the Air Force. Who is the designated approval and revocation authority for temporary immunization exemptions?
MAJCOM commander
299
What form is required for yellow fever documentation and or prepared upon request for each member of the Armed Forces and for non military personnel receiving immunizations, including date, immunization given, dose, and the initials of the person administering the vaccine?
CDC form 731
300
Individuals preparing paper-based immunization and chemoprophylaxis records will ensure that paper records match the electronic ITS. If paper-based immunization or chemoprophylaxis records are used, electronic ITS will be updated within what time frame?
24 hours
301
What include Service personnel in enlisted initial training, ROTC, OCS, academy, prep school, Service Academy, Officer Indoctrination School, and officers who are directly commissioned?
Military Accessions
302
Except in an outbreak setting or for individual clinical purposes, immunization records will not be screened after completions of initial training with regard to measles, mumps, rubella, poliovirus, or what other vaccines?
Varicella
303
What will employees at occupational risk of exposure to wastewater or sewage receive per ACIP recommendations?
Tetanus-diphtheria toxoids
304
Family members of military personnel receive immunizations according to what current recommendations?
ACIP
305
Serologic testing of healthcare workers who have direct contact with patients and those who have potential occupational risk for exposure to bloodborne pathogens must be conducted how many months after completion of the Hep-B vaccine series to determine serologic response according to CDC and ACIP recommendations?
1-2 months
306
Unless sero-immune to both measles and rubella, the MMR vaccine must be administered to susceptible basic trainees and accessions within the first how many weeks of training?
2
307
Booster doses of Tetanus-diphtheria (Td) must be administered to all personnel every how many years following the completion of the primary three-dose series?
10
308
A second dose of the pneumococcal vaccine must be administered to persons without spleens or severely immunocompromised how man years after the initial dose?
10
309
In what way is yellow fever infection transmitted?
Mosquito bite
310
Within the first how many weeks of initial training must the Varicella vaccine be administered to susceptible trainees and other accessions?
2
311
Adults and adolescents required two doses of varicella vaccine given how many weeks apart?
4-8 weeks
312
A pre-exposure prophylactic immunization series may be indicated for people with potential occupational risk of exposure to rabid animals, or for forces assigned to locations where access to definitive care likely exceeds how many hours?
24
313
The meningococcal vaccine must be administered to personnel who are designated to deploy within how many days of notification?
10
314
How often must influenza vaccines be administered to all active duty, reserve, and National Guard personnel?
Annually
315
The meningococcal vaccine must be administered to basic trainees, cadets, and midshipmen at Service academies within the first 2 weeks of training if there is no evidence of vaccination within the last how many years?
5
316
Chemoprophylaxis agents dispensed to individuals must be in unit-of-use packaging or in child-resistant containers consistent with what Act?
Poison Prevention Packaging Act
317
What is effective in preventing leptospirosis in exposed military personnel during periods of high risk of exposure?
Doxycycline
318
What is defined as the administration of medication before, during, or after possible exposure to an infectious agent, to prevent either infection or disease?
Chemoprophylaxis
319
What licensed vaccine is effective against the pneumonic plague?
None
320
What publication should be consulted for chemical warfare-related chemoprophylaxis?
Medical Management of Chemical Casualties
321
What has been shown to increase survival when used after exposure to anthrax and before onset of symptoms?
Antibiotics and Immunoglobulin
322
What is the primary drug used for Group A Streptococcus?
Penicillin
323
How often at a minimum do combatant commanders provide the Chairman of Joint Chiefs of Staff with their assessment of the biological warfare threats to their theaters?
Annually
324
The DoD Immunizations Program for Biological Warfare Defense is conducted within how many days after receiving the validated and prioritized biological threat list?
30
325
How of ten at a minimum does the President of the Defense Health Board in consolation with the Secretaries of the Military Departments identity to the ASD (HA) the vaccines available to protect against validated biological warfare threat agents and recommend the appropriate immunization protocols and/or chemoprophylaxis?
Annually
326
For infectious disease threats for which the only available vaccine or chemoprophylaxis product is in an IND status, the IND product must be administered in full accordance with FDA regulations at 21 CFR Parts 50 and 312, as well as 10 USC 1107, Executive Order 13139, and what else?
SDODD 6200.2
327
A vaccine, antibiotic, or other product in an IND status may be mandatory for military members if who has approved a waiver for the treatment for informed consent?
POTUS
328
Using the appropriate chain, who must Commanders request approval from to use INDs for force health protection?
SECDEF
329
What is the Executive Agent for the Immunization Program for Biological Warfare Defense?
Army
330
Under what act, some drugs, vaccines, or devices that have not been approved or licensed by the FDA throughout the regular drug approval process may be used as medical countermeasures to CBRN agents or threats, if the FDA grants an EUA?
21 USC 564
331
Requests for possible EUAs for military purposes must be submitted to what for consideration?
ASD (HA)
332
The FDA may decide that potential recipients of a drug under an EUA should have the option to refuse it. Who may waive this option for military personnel?
POTUS
