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MSS > 5. Bone, Muscle, Soft tissue pathology > Flashcards

5. Bone, Muscle, Soft tissue pathology Flashcards

1
Q

[…] is a developmental disorder that causes soft/hypoplastic nails and it can lead to the major concern which is progressive nephropathy.

A

Nail-patella syndrome

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2
Q

Nail-patella syndrome is a developmental disorder that causes […] and it can lead to the major concern which is progressive nephropathy.

A

soft/hypoplastic nails

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3
Q

Nail-patella syndrome is a developmental disorder that causes soft/hypoplastic nails and it can lead to the major concern which is […].

A

progressive nephropathy

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4
Q

[…] presents with bone fragility, hearing loss, and blue sclera.

A

Osteogenesis imperfecta

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5
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta presents with bone fragility, hearing loss, and […].

A

blue sclera

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6
Q

Osteogenesis imperfecta in caused by defects in the […] and […] genes.

A

COL1A1, COL1A2

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7
Q

[…] syndrome is a severe disorder of bone associated with hearing loss and retinal dettachment which can lead to blindness.

A

Stickler

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8
Q

Stickler syndrome is a severe disorder of bone associated with hearing loss and […] which can lead to blindness.

A

retinal dettachment

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9
Q

[…] is associated with a widened pelvic area known as coxa vara.

A

Schmid metaphyseal chondrodysplasia

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10
Q

Schmid metaphyseal chondrodysplasia is associated with a widened pelvic area known as […].

A

coxa vara

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11
Q

[…] is a defect in the FGFR3 receptor leading to the abnormal proliferation of chondrocytes and osteblasts causing a frontal bossing appearance.

A

Achondroplasia

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12
Q

Achondroplasia is a defect in the […] receptor leading to the abnormal proliferation of chondrocytes and osteblasts causing a frontal bossing appearance.

A

FGFR3

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13
Q

Achondroplasia is a defect in the FGFR3 receptor leading to the abnormal proliferation of chondrocytes and osteblasts causing a […] appearance.

A

frontal bossing

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14
Q

[…] is a paramyxovirus infection of bone leading to easily fractured sclerotic bone.

A

Paget’s disease of bone

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15
Q

Paget’s disease of bone is a paramyxovirus infection of bone leading to easily fractured […] bone.

A

sclerotic

hat changing size is a common statement

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16
Q

One of the severe complications of paget’s disease is […].

A

high output cardiac failure

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17
Q

[…] is hardening of the bone due to a genetic disorder leading to reduced osteoclast functioning.

A

Osteopetrosis

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18
Q

Osteopetrosis is hardening of the bone due to a genetic disorder leading to reduced […] functioning.

A

osteoclast

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19
Q

The […] form of osteopetrosis leads to renal tubular acidosis.

A

carbonic anhydrase II

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20
Q

The carbonic anhydrase II form of osteopetrosis leads to […].

A

renal tubular acidosis

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21
Q

[…] can lead to the development of osteitis fibrosa cystica which presents with a spearhead arrangement of osteoclasts in the center of the trabeculum.

A

Hyperparathyroidism

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22
Q

Hyperparathyroidism can lead to the development of […] which presents with a spearhead arrangement of osteoclasts in the center of the trabeculum.

A

osteitis fibrosa cystica

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23
Q

Hyperparathyroidism can lead to the development of osteitis fibrosa cystica which presents with a […] of osteoclasts in the center of the trabeculum.

A

spearhead arrangement (dissecting osteitis)

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24
Q

The healing response that occurs in […] is called creeping substitution however, the bone usually collapses anyway as this process is too slow.

A

avascular necrosis

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25
Q

The healing response that occurs in avascular necrosis is called […] however, the bone usually collapses anyway as this process is too slow.

A

creeping substitution

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26
Q

[…] and […] are seen on histiological sections of syphilis induced osteomyelitis.

A

Gummata, plasma cells

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27
Q

Osteomyelitis commonly occurs in the […] and […].

A

long bones, vertebral bodies

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28
Q

If the host response to osteomyelitis is to wall of the affected area, this is known as […].

A

brodie abscess

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29
Q

Ocassionally, the host response to […] is to form extensive amounts of new bone in the jaw and this is called sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre.

A

osteomyelitis

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30
Q

Ocassionally, the host response to osteomyelitis is to form extensive amounts of new bone in the jaw and this is called […].

A

sclerosing osteomyelitis of Garre

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31
Q

The […] is the most important prognostic feature of a bone sarcoma.

A

histiologic grade

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32
Q

The histiologic grade is the most important prognostic feature of a […].

A

bone sarcoma

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33
Q

Osteosarcomas are most commonly found in the […] area around the knee.

A

metaphyseal

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34
Q

Osteosarcomas are most commonly found in the metaphyseal area around the […].

A

knee

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35
Q

[…] are painful bone lesions in adolescents that are found in the diaphyseal area.

A

Osteoid osteomas

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36
Q

Osteoid osteomas are painful bone lesions in adolescents that are found in the […] area.

A

diaphyseal

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37
Q

[…] are painful bone lesions that are suddenly relieved by NSAIDs.

A

Osteoid osteomas

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38
Q

Osteoid osteomas are painful bone lesions that are suddenly relieved by […].

A

NSAIDs

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39
Q

[…] is also known as Albright syndrome.

A

Fibrous dysplasia

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40
Q

Fibrous dysplasia is also known as […].

A

Albright syndrome

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41
Q

[…] are usually benign solitary lesions that are seen in the skull. When they appear in multiples, this is associated with Gardner syndrome.

A

Osteomas

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42
Q

Osteomas are usually benign solitary lesions that are seen in the skull. When they appear in multiples, this is associated with […].

A

Gardner syndrome

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43
Q

Osteoid osteomas appear […] on bone scan.

A

hot

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44
Q

[…] and […] osteosarcomas are two subtypes of osteosarcoma with good prognoses.

A

Periosteal, parosteal (juxtacortical)

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45
Q

[…] osteosarcoma has a characteristic lifting of the periosteum on xray known as Codman’s triangle.

A

Periosteal

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46
Q

Periosteal osteosarcoma has a characteristic lifting of the periosteum on xray known as […].

A

Codman’s triangle

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47
Q

A […] translocation is common to Ewing’s/PNET sarcoma which both arise in the diaphyseal area.

A

t(11,22)

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48
Q

A t(11,22) translocation is common to […] sarcoma which both arise in the diaphyseal area.

A

Ewing’s/PNET

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49
Q

A t(11,22) translocation is common to Ewing’s/PNET sarcoma which both arise in the […] area.

A

diaphyseal

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50
Q

[…] sarcoma has an onion-skinning appearance on xray.

A

Ewing’s/PNET

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51
Q

Ewing’s/PNET sarcoma has an […] appearance on xray.

A

onion-skinning

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52
Q

[…] are benign cartilage forming tumors that develop in bones of endochondral origin.

A

Osteochondromas

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53
Q

Osteochondromas are benign cartilage forming tumors that develop in bones of […] origin.

A

endochondral

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54
Q

[…] are usually solitary lesions that favor the short tubular bones of the hands and feet.

A

Enchondromas

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55
Q

Enchondromas are usually solitary lesions that favor the […] bones of the hands and feet.

A

short tubular

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56
Q

[…] disease is a skeletal disorder that presents with multiple enchondromas.

A

Ollier

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57
Q

Ollier disease is a skeletal disorder that presents with multiple […].

A

enchondromas

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58
Q

[…] is an enchondromatosis associated with soft tissue hemangiomas and patients are further at risk for ovarian carcinoma and brain gliomas.

A

Maffuci syndrome

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59
Q

Maffuci syndrome is an enchondromatosis associated with […] and patients are further at risk for ovarian carcinoma and brain gliomas.

A

soft tissue hemangiomas

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60
Q

Maffuci syndrome is an enchondromatosis associated with soft tissue hemangiomas and patients are further at risk for ovarian carcinoma and […].

A

brain gliomas

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61
Q

[…] are begin tumors with a “chicken-wire” appearance that usually affects young patients and cause pain due to their proximity to the joints.

A

Chondroblastomas

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62
Q

Chondroblastomas are begin tumors with a […] appearance that usually affects young patients and cause pain due to their proximity to the joints.

A

“chicken-wire”

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63
Q

Chondroblastomas are S100 […] on histological stain.

A

positive

64
Q

[…] are the 2nd most common primary malignancy of bone and they most often arise in the pelvis.

A

Chondrosarcomas

65
Q

Chondrosarcomas are the 2nd most common primary malignancy of bone and they most often arise in the […].

A

pelvis

66
Q

[…] present with a “snow storm” appearance on xray.

A

Chondrosarcomas

67
Q

Chondrosarcomas present with a […] appearance on xray.

A

“snow storm”

68
Q

Chondrosarcomas are S100 […] on histological stain.

A

positive

69
Q

The […] form of fibrous dysplasia is seen in Mc-Cune albright syndrome and it’s due to a somatic mutation of the c-fos oncogene.

A

polyostotic

70
Q

The polyostotic form of fibrous dysplasia is seen in […] syndrome and it’s due to a somatic mutation of the c-fos oncogene.

A

Mc-Cune albright

71
Q

The polyostotic form of fibrous dysplasia is seen in Mc-Cune albright syndrome and it’s due to a somatic mutation of the […] oncogene.

A

c-fos

72
Q

[…] cysts are associated with IGF-1.

A

Aneurysmal bone

73
Q

Aneurysmal bone cysts are associated with […].

A

IGF-1 (Insulin-like Growth Factor 1)

74
Q

[…] of long bones is one of the few bone tumors that involves the lymph nodes.

A

Adamantinomas

75
Q

Adamantinomas of long bones is one of the few bone tumors that involves the […].

A

lymph nodes

76
Q

[…] stain positive for keratin 14 and 19.

A

Adamantinomas

77
Q

Adamantinomas stain positive for keratin […] and […].

A

14,19

78
Q

[…] are commonly seen in tuberculous infectious arthritis of the joints.

A

‘Rice bodies’

79
Q

‘Rice bodies’ are commonly seen in […] infectious arthritis of the joints.

A

tuberculous

80
Q

A […] lesion of the skull is characteristic of multiple myeloma.

A

punctate moth-eaten

81
Q

A punctate moth-eaten lesion of the skull is characteristic of […].

A

multiple myeloma

82
Q

Multiple myelomas are […] on bone scan.

A

cold

83
Q

Ewings sarcoma is identified by […] stain on histological section.

A

PAS (stains the glycogen)

84
Q

[…] cysts present with a pathognomonic ‘fallen leaf’ sign on x-ray in children.

A

Simple bone

85
Q

Simple bone cysts present with a pathognomonic […] sign on x-ray in children.

A

‘fallen leaf’

86
Q

[…] is the formation of bone where it doesn’t belong and it is unknown why this occurs.

A

Myositis ossificans

accident and burn victims tend to develop this

87
Q

A […] tumor is a characteristically painful soft tissue tumor that usually appears as a subungual mass.

A

glomus

88
Q

A glomus tumor is a characteristically painful soft tissue tumor that usually appears as a […] mass.

A

subungual

89
Q

[…] presents as a superficial forearm mass with a storiform pattern and abundant stromal mucin.

A

Nodular fasciitis

90
Q

Nodular fasciitis presents as a superficial forearm mass with a […] pattern and abundant stromal mucin.

A

storiform

91
Q

Nodular fasciitis presents as a superficial forearm mass with a storiform pattern and abundant stromal […].

A

mucin

92
Q

A […] is a benign tumor of middle-aged adults and multiples can be seen in Mazabraud syndrome.

A

myxoma

93
Q

A myxoma is a benign tumor of middle-aged adults and multiples can be seen in […] syndrome.

A

Mazabraud

94
Q

A […] tumor is a deep form of fibromatosis and it stains positive for CD117.

A

desmoid

95
Q

A desmoid tumor is a deep form of fibromatosis and it stains positive for […].

A

CD117

96
Q

[…] tumors are soft tissue tumors associated with Gardner syndrome and APC/B catenin gene mutations.

A

Desmoid

97
Q

Desmoid tumors are soft tissue tumors associated with […] and APC/B catenin gene mutations.

A

Gardner syndrome

98
Q

Desmoid tumors are soft tissue tumors associated with Gardner syndrome and […] gene mutations.

A

APC/B catenin

99
Q

[…] have a herringbone growth pattern and they are S100 negative.

A

Fibrosarcomas

100
Q

Fibrosarcomas have a […] growth pattern and they are S100 negative.

A

herringbone

101
Q

Fibrosarcomas have a herringbone growth pattern and they are S100 […].

A

negative

102
Q

[…] soft tissue tumors stain with factor XIIIa on immunohistochemistry.

A

Fibrohistiocytic lesion

103
Q

Fibrohistiocytic lesion soft tissue tumors stain with […] on immunohistochemistry.

A

factor XIIIa

104
Q

[…] stains positive for CD34 which differentiates it from dermatofibroma.

A

Dermatofibrosarcoma

105
Q

Dermatofibrosarcoma stains positive for […] which differentiates it from dermatofibroma.

A

CD34

106
Q

[…] has a Grenz zone which forms due to sparring of the overlying dermis.

A

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

107
Q

A […] tumor is the melanin pigment form of dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans.

A

bednar

108
Q

A bednar tumor is the melanin pigment form of […].

A

dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

109
Q

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans has a […] which forms due to sparring of the overlying dermis.

A

Grenz zone

110
Q

Dermatofibrosarcoma is associated with […] as well as chronic arsenic exposure.

A

acanthosis nigricans

111
Q

[…] cells are the defining cells for malignant fibrous histiocytoma.

A

Mononuclear

112
Q

Mononuclear cells are the defining cells for […].

A

malignant fibrous histiocytoma

113
Q

[…] are the painful variant of lipomas.

A

Angiomyolipomas

114
Q

Lipomas harden with the application of […].

A

ice

115
Q

[…] small round blue cell tumors have a trilineage differentiation and they are seen intraabdominally in young boys.

A

Desmoplasic

116
Q

Desmoplasic small round blue cell tumors have a trilineage differentiation and they are seen […] in young boys.

A

intraabdominally

117
Q

[…] sarcomas are large tumors that are seen in the popliteal fossa.

A

Synovial

118
Q

Synovial sarcomas are large tumors that are seen in the […].

A

popliteal fossa

119
Q

Synovial sarcomas are keratin and […] positive.

A

EMA

120
Q

[…] crystals can be seen on electron microscopy in young women with alveolar soft part sarcoma.

A

Rhomboid

121
Q

Rhomboid crystals can be seen on electron microscopy in young women with […] sarcoma.

A

alveolar soft part

122
Q

[…] bodies are common to schwannomas.

A

Verocay

123
Q

Verocay bodies are common to […].

A

schwannomas

124
Q

[…] is associated with psammomatous melanotic schwannoma which is a low grade malignancy that can be metastatic.

A

Carney syndrome

125
Q

Carney syndrome is associated with […] schwannoma which is a low grade malignancy that can be metastatic.

A

psammomatous melanotic

126
Q

Granular cell tumors cause a reaction called a […] hyperplasia.

A

pseudoepitheliomatous

127
Q

The […] is a structure that is commonly involved in granular cell tumors.

A

larynx

128
Q

The larynx is a structure that is commonly involved in […] tumors.

A

granular cell

129
Q

[…] typically present with long, serpentine-shaped cells.

A

Neurofibromas

130
Q

Neurofibromas typically present with long, […]-shaped cells.

A

serpentine

131
Q

[…] corpuscles are seen in the diffuse form of neurofibroma, a soft tissue tumor.

A

Wagner-meissner

132
Q

Wagner-meissner corpuscles are seen in the […] form of neurofibroma, a soft tissue tumor.

A

diffuse

133
Q

Wagner-meissner corpuscles are seen in the diffuse form of […], a soft tissue tumor.

A

neurofibroma

134
Q

[…] carcinoma most commonly affects the toes and it is S100 positive.

A

Clear cell

aka malignant melanoma of soft parts

135
Q

Clear cell carcinoma most commonly affects the […] and it is S100 positive.

A

toes

136
Q

Clear cell carcinoma most commonly affects the toes and it is S100 […].

A

positive

137
Q

Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD) and Becker muscular dystrophy (BMD) is due to a defect in the […] gene.

A

Xp21

138
Q

Patients with […] usually due from respiratory complications.

A

DMD

139
Q

Patients with DMD usually due from […].

A

respiratory complications

140
Q

Patients with […] usually die from dilated cardiomyopathy.

A

BMD

141
Q

Patients with BMD usually die from […].

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

142
Q

[…] dystrophies usually affect the proximal musculature of the trunk and limbs and they are due to a defect in the caveolin gene.

A

Limb girdle

143
Q

Limb girdle dystrophies usually affect the […] musculature of the trunk and limbs and they are due to a defect in the caveolin gene.

A

proximal

144
Q

Limb girdle dystrophies usually affect the proximal musculature of the trunk and limbs and they are due to a defect in the […] gene.

A

caveolin

145
Q

[…] dystrophy is associated with the theory of anticipation.

A

Myotonic

146
Q

Myotonic dystrophy is associated with the theory of […].

A

anticipation

147
Q

The […] variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CTG trinucleotide expansion in the DMPK gene.

A

DM1

148
Q

The DM1 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a […] expansion in the DMPK gene.

A

CTG trinucleotide

149
Q

The DM1 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CTG trinucleotide expansion in the […] gene.

A

DMPK

150
Q

The […] variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CCTG expansion of the ZNF9 protein on chromosome 3q21.

A

DM2

151
Q

The DM2 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a […] of the ZNF9 protein on chromosome 3q21.

A

CCTG expansion

152
Q

The DM2 variant of myotonic dystrophy is caused by a CCTG expansion of the […] protein on chromosome 3q21.

A

ZNF9

153
Q

[…] myopathies present with a classic ‘ragged red fiber’ appearance on frozen sections with Gomori stain.

A

Mitochondrial

154
Q

Mitochondrial myopathies present with a classic […] appearance on frozen sections with Gomori stain.

A

‘ragged red fiber’

155
Q

Mitochondrial myopathies present with a classic ‘ragged red fiber’ appearance on frozen sections with […] stain.

A

Gomori

MSS (6 decks)

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