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MSS > 2. Skin and Soft Tissue Infections > Flashcards

2. Skin and Soft Tissue Infections Flashcards

1
Q

____________ is a deep infection caused by the bacteria clostridium perfringens.

A

Gas gangrene

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2
Q

Gas gangrene is a deep infection caused by the bacteria __________.

A

clostridium perfringens

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3
Q

________ is an important toxin released by clostridium perfrigens that causes myonecrosis by damaging the cell membranes.

A

Lecithinase

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4
Q

Lecithinase is an important toxin released by ____________ that causes myonecrosis by damaging the cell membranes.

A

clostridium perfrigens

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5
Q

________ ________ is one of the most common comorbid conditions of septic arthritis.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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6
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis is one of the most common comorbid conditions of ______ _____.

A

Septic arthritis

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7
Q

The virulence factor associated with S. Aureus that allows it to bind to connective tissue and perpetuate septic arthritis is ________ .

A

MSCRAMMs

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8
Q

_____ ______ protein and Type IV collagen receptors are examples of MSCRAMMs.

A

Fibronectin binding

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9
Q

Fibronectin binding protein and ________ _______ receptors are examples of MSCRAMMs.

A

Type IV collagen

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10
Q

Acute bacterial arthritis is usually ________ and the #1 affected joint is the knee.

A

monoarticular

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11
Q

Acute bacterial arthritis is usually monoarticular and the #1 affected joint is the _____.

A

knee

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12
Q

_______ should be treated with oxacillin.

A

MSSA

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13
Q

MSSA should be treated with _______.

A

oxacillin

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14
Q

__________ arthritis should be treated with IV ceftriaxone for at least 48 hours.

A

Gonococcal

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15
Q

Gonococcal arthritis should be treated with IV ______ for at least 48 hours.

A

ceftriaxone

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16
Q

The ________ coinfection that usually occurs with gonococcal arthritis should be treated with oral azithromycin.

A

chlamydia

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17
Q

The chlamydia coinfection that usually occurs with gonococcal arthritis should be treated with oral ________.

A

azithromycin

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18
Q

_______ _______ is an expanding rash that is seen in the early stages of lyme disease and it causes migratory joint pain.

A

Erythema migrans

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19
Q

Erythema migrans is an expanding rash that is seen in the early stages of lyme disease and it causes ______ joint pain.

A

migratory

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20
Q

Erythema migrans is an expanding rash that is seen in the early stages of _____ disease and it causes migratory joint pain.

A

lyme

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21
Q

________ ______ is defined as >1 year of continous arthritis and it does not respond to antibiotics.

A

Chronic arthritis

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22
Q

Chronic arthritis is defined as > __ year of continous arthritis and it does not respond to antibiotics.

A

1

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23
Q

Chronic arthritis is defined as >1 year of continous arthritis and it _______ respond to antibiotics.

A

does not

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24
Q

The autoimmune cause of chronic arthritis may involve the reaction of bacterial ______ protein with human LFA-1 protein.

A

OspA

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25
Q

The autoimmune cause of chronic arthritis may involve the reaction of bacterial OspA protein with human _____ protein.

A

LFA-1

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26
Q

Lyme arthritis is usually diagnosed via _______ with the positive results confirmed by Western blot.

A

serology

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27
Q

______ arthritis is usually diagnosed via serology with the positive results confirmed by Western blot.

A

Lyme

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28
Q

Oral _________ can be given for 10 days and oral amoxicillin is given to children < 8 for the treatment of lyme disease.

A

doxycycline

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29
Q

Oral doxycycline can be given for 10 days and oral ______ is given to children < 8 for the treatment of lyme disease.

A

amoxicillin

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30
Q

______ ______ is characterized by its cigar-shaped budding yeasts.

A

Sporothrix schenckii

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31
Q

Sporothrix schenckii is characterized by its _______ _____ budding yeasts.

A

cigar-shaped

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32
Q

______ _______ is characterized by its broad-based budding yeasts.

A

Blastomyces dermatitidis

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33
Q

Blastomyces dermatitidis is characterized by its _____ _______ budding yeasts.

A

broad-based

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34
Q

________ arthritis is granulomatous inflammation in response to bacteria seeding the joints hematogenously.

A

Mycobacterial

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35
Q

Mycobacterial arthritis is granulomatous inflammation in response to bacteria seeding the joints _______.

A

hematogenously

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36
Q

_______ joint infection is caused by different organisms depending on the time frame post-surgery.

A

Prosthetic

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37
Q

Infection of a prosthetic joint within __ months is usually caused by S. Aureus.

A

3

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38
Q

Infection of a prosthetic joint within 3 months is usually caused by _______.

A

S. Aureus

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39
Q

Infection of a prosthetic joint within __ months is usually caused by S.epidermidis.

A

3-24

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40
Q

Infection of a prosthetic joint withint 3-24 months is usually caused by _________.

A

S.epidermidis

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41
Q

Gram + cocci causing joint infections should be treated with empirical therapy of _______ and rifampin.

A

vancomycin

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42
Q

Gram + cocci causing joint infections should be treated with empirical therapy of vancomycin and _______.

A

rifampin

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43
Q

Septic arthritis due to ____ usually has a neutrophil count of 20,000 neutrophils/uL and 50/50 monocytes may also be involved.

A

TB

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44
Q

Septic arthritis due to TB usually has a neutrophil count of _______ neutrophils/uL and 50/50 monocytes may also be involved.

A

20,000

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45
Q

_______ causes of joint pain are caused by a type III immune hypersensitivity reaction and the pain is due to immune complex deposition.

A

Viral

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46
Q

Viral causes of joint pain are caused by a _______ ____ immune hypersensitivity reaction and the pain is due to immune complex deposition.

A

type III

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47
Q

________ ____ requires the P blood antigen in order to enter and invade respiratory tract epithelial cells.

A

Parvovirus B19

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48
Q

Parvovirus B19 requires the ___ blood antigen in order to enter and invade respiratory tract epithelial cells.

A

P

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49
Q

______________ are polyarthritic diseases that are seronegative for RF and express HLA-B27.

A

Spondyloarthropathies

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50
Q

Spondyloarthropathies are polyarthritic diseases that are seronegative for ____ and express HLA-B27.

A

RF

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51
Q

Spondyloarthropathies are polyarthritic diseases that are seronegative for RF and express _______.

A

HLA-B27

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52
Q

Spondyloarthropathy categories include ________, reactive/reiters, psoriatic, and enteropathic.

A

ankylosing

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53
Q

Spondyloarthropathy categories include ankylosing, _________, psoriatic, and enteropathic.

A

reactive/reiters

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54
Q

Spondyloarthropathy categories include ankylosing, reactive/reiters, ______, and enteropathic.

A

psoriatic

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55
Q

Spondyloarthropathy categories include ankylosing, reactive/reiters, psoriatic, and ________.

A

enteropathic

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56
Q

_______________ spondyloarthropathy is associated with conjunctivitis and genital inflammation.

A

Reactive/reiter’s

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57
Q

Reactive/reiter’s spondyloarthropathy is associated with __________ and genital inflammation.

A

conjunctivitis

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58
Q

Reactive/reiter’s spondyloarthropathy is associated with conjunctivitis and ________ _________.

A

genital inflammation

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59
Q

_________ pneumoniae is a bacteria that is highly associated with ankylosing spondylitis in HLA-B27 positive patients.

A

Klebsiella

60
Q

Klebsiella pneumoniae is a bacteria that is highly associated with ankylosing spondylitis in ________ positive patients.

A

HLA-B27

61
Q

________ _______ presents with severe pain at the site of infection and should be treated with oxacillin, an aminoglycoside, and clindamycin as its cause is usually polymicrobial.

A

Necrotizing fasciitis

62
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis presents with severe pain at the site of infection and should be treated with _______, an aminoglycoside, and clindamycin as its cause is usually polymicrobial.

A

oxacillin

63
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis presents with severe pain at the site of infection and should be treated with oxacillin, ___________, and clindamycin as its cause is usually polymicrobial.

A

an aminoglycoside

64
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis presents with severe pain at the site of infection and should be treated with oxacillin, an aminoglycoside, and _________ as its cause is usually polymicrobial.

A

clindamycin

65
Q

Necrotizing fasciitis is commonly caused by _______ _______ but it can also be caused by the bacteria aeromonas hydrophila.

A

Group A strep

66
Q

_________ _______ is a bacteria that can cause necrotizing fasciitis and it can be treated with fluoroquinolones.

A

Aeromonas hydrophila

67
Q

Aeromonas hydrophila is a bacteria that can cause necrotizing fasciitis and it can be treated with _________.

A

fluoroquinolones

68
Q

_________________ disease is a fecal-oral transmitted disease caused by the enterovirus coxsackie A.

A

Hand, Foot, and Mouth

69
Q

Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease is a _________ transmitted disease caused by the enterovirus coxsackie A.

A

fecal-oral

70
Q

Hand, Foot, and Mouth disease is a fecal-oral transmitted disease caused by the enterovirus _________.

A

coxsackie A

71
Q

________________ disease is also known as a ‘summer rash.’

A

Hand, foot, and mouth

72
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth disease is also known as a ___________.

A

‘summer rash’

73
Q

__________________ disease presents with ulcers on the posterior part of the mouth and a maculopapular rash on the hands and feet.

A

Hand, foot, and mouth

74
Q

Hand, foot, and mouth disease presents with ulcers on the __________ part of the mouth and a maculopapular rash on the hands and feet.

A

posterior

75
Q

One of the worrisome complications of ________________ is encephalitis.

A

herpes simplex virus (HSV)

76
Q

One of the worrisome complications of herpes simplex virus (HSV) is ___________.

A

encephalitis

77
Q

_____________ is prevented with the first vaccine at 12-15 months and the second vaccine at 4 years old.

A

Varicella Zoster

78
Q

Varicella Zoster is prevented with the first vaccine at ______ months and the second vaccine at 4 years old.

A

12-15

79
Q

Varicella Zoster is prevented with the first vaccine at 12-15 months and the second vaccine at ___ years old.

A

4

80
Q

Glomerulonephritis is a complication of a skin infection with __________ ___________.

A

streptococcus pyogenes

81
Q

___________ is a complication of a skin infection with streptococcus pyogenes.

A

Glomerulonephritis

82
Q

________ ______ is a complication of a throat infection with streptococcus pyogenes.

A

Rheumatic fever

83
Q

Rheumatic fever is a complication of a throat infection with _____________ _________.

A

streptococcus pyogenes

84
Q

Scarlet fever is caused by __________ _______ produced by streptococcus pyogenes.

A

pyogenic exotoxin A

85
Q

______ _______ is caused by pyogenic exotoxin A produced by streptococcus pyogenes.

A

Scarlet fever

86
Q

Scalded skin syndrome is caused by the _______toxin produced by staphylococcus aureus.

A

exfoliative

87
Q

Exfoliative toxin produced by staphylococcous aureus attacks the _________ protein.

A

desmoglein

88
Q

________ is the protein that connects the stratum spinosum and stratum granulosum layers of the epidermis.

A

Desmoglein

89
Q

________ _________ ________ is caused by the exfoliative toxin produced by staphylococcus aureus.

A

Scalded skin syndrome

90
Q

Desmoglein is the protein that connects the stratum spinosim and stratum ________ layers of the epidermis.

A

granulosum

91
Q

______ ______ is the culprit for ringworm, or erythmatous rings with a central clearing.

A

Tinea corporis

92
Q

Tinea corporis is the culprit for _______, or erythmatous rings with a central clearing.

A

ringworm

93
Q

The treatment for scabies includes ______, malathion, and lindane.

A

permethrin

94
Q

The treatment for scabies includes permethrin, ______, and lindane.

A

malathion

95
Q

The treatment for scabies includes permethrin, malathion, and _______.

A

lindane

96
Q

Sporothrix schenckii can be grown on _______ agar.

A

Sabouraud

97
Q

The drug of choice for the treatment of _________ is sodium stibogluconate.

A

Leishmaniasis

98
Q

The drug of choice for the treatment of Leishmaniasis is ________ _________.

A

sodium stibogluconate

99
Q

_________ is transmitted by sandflies that inject promastigotes into the skin.

A

Leishmaniasis

100
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by ___________ that inject promastigotes into the skin.

A

sandflies

101
Q

Leishmaniasis is transmitted by sandflies that inject __________ into the skin.

A

promastigotes

102
Q

__________ is diagnosed by the presence of macrophages containing amastigotes.

A

Leishmaniasis

103
Q

Leishmaniasis is diagnosed by the presence of macrophages containing _________.

A

amastigotes

104
Q

While relatively harmless in children, ________ can cause aplastic crisis in immunocompromised patients.

A

parvovirus B19

105
Q

While relatively harmless in children, parvovirus B19 can cause ________ _______ in immunocompromised patients.

A

aplastic crisis

106
Q

________ _____ is the clinical name for infection with parvovirus B19.

A

Erythema infectiosum

107
Q

Erythema infectiosum is the clinical name for infection with ________ _____.

A

parvovirus B19

108
Q

________ is the only single stranded DNA virus.

A

Parvovirus

109
Q

Parvovirus is the only _____ stranded DNA virus.

A

single

110
Q

Rubella belongs to the family _______.

A

togaviridae

111
Q

Measles belongs to the family _________.

A

paramyxovirus

112
Q

_______ has a characteristic maculopapular rash that starts at the head/neck and spreads downward.

A

Measles

113
Q

One of the biggest complications of _______ is the development of subacute pansclerosing encephalitis.

A

measles

114
Q

_________ _______ _______ fever presents with a rash that characteristically starts at the wrists and ankle, and spreads to the palms and soles.

A

Rocky mountain spotted

115
Q

_________ ________ is a roundworm that classically causes elephantiasis.

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

116
Q

Wuchereria bancrofti is a roundworm that classically causes __________.

A

elephantiasis

117
Q

________________ causes a painful blister that usually develops on the lower limbs.

A

Guinea-worm disease (Dracunliasis)

118
Q

Guinea-worm disease (Dracunliasis) causes a painful blister that usually develops on the -_______ limbs.

A

lower

119
Q

_________ is the fungus that is the most common cause of intertrigo infections.

A

Candida

120
Q

Candida is the fungus that is the most common cause of _________ infections.

A

intertrigo

121
Q

Clindamycin, Tetracycline, and TMP/SMX are (bacteriocidal/bacteriostatic?) drugs.

A

bacteriostatic

122
Q

Azoles work by inhibiting __________ which converts lanosterol to ergosterol.

A

cytochrome P450

123
Q

Amphotericin B works by binding to _________ and forming pores in the fungal membrane.

A

ergosterol

124
Q

____________ works by binding to ergosterol and forming pores in the fungal membrane.

A

Amphotericin B

125
Q

Human bites should always be treated with _____________ as these bites almost always cause infection.

A

amoxicillin/clavulanate

126
Q

_______ bites should always be treated with amoxicillin/clavulanate as these bites almost always cause infection.

A

Human

127
Q

TMP/SMX should be added to the treatment of _______ that has gone systemic.

A

cellulitis

128
Q

_________ should be added to the treatment of cellulitis that has gone systemic.

A

TMP/SMX

129
Q

_______ organisms are a group of gram negative bacteria that are the unusual causes of infective endocarditis.

A

HACEK

130
Q

HACEK organisms are a group of gram _______ bacteria that are the unusual causes of infective endocarditis.

A

negative

131
Q

HACEK organisms are a group of gram negative bacteria that are the unusual causes of ______ _______.

A

infective endocarditis

132
Q

_________ _______ is a special cause of cellulitis in those that have been immersed in fresh water.

A

Edwardsiella tarda

133
Q

Edwardsiella tarda is a special cause of cellulitis in those that have been immersed in _____ water.

A

fresh

134
Q

_________ is a gram negative organism that belongs to the HACEK group and it is found in normal human oral flora.

A

Eikenella

135
Q

Eikenella is a gram negative organism that belongs to the HACEK group and it is found in normal human ______ ______.

A

oral flora

136
Q

The________ region is a common site of cellulitis in children.

A

periorbital

137
Q

The periorbital region is a common site of _______ in children.

A

cellulitis

138
Q

Cellulitis usually presents in the ______ limbs and diabetic and obese patients are at highest risk.

A

lower

139
Q

Cellulitis usually presents in the lower limbs and ________ and obese patients are at highest risk.

A

diabetic

140
Q

________ is more superficial and presents with markedly raised areas while cellulitis is more deep.

A

Erysipelas

141
Q

Erysipelas is more superficial and presents with markedly raised areas while _______ is more deep.

A

cellulitis

142
Q

________ presents with vesicles that break to form characterisitic ‘honey-crusted’ lesions.

A

Impetigo

143
Q

Impetigo presents with vesicles that break to form characterisitic _________ lesions.

A

‘honey-crusted’

144
Q

Impetigo is usually caused by _______ organisms.

A

streptococcal

145
Q

_______ is an ulcerating pyoderma caused by GAS.

A

Ecthyma

146
Q

Ecthyma is an ulcerating pyoderma caused by ____.

A

GAS

147
Q

Cellulitis usually presents in the lower limbs and diabetic and ________ patients are at highest risk.

A

obese

MSS (6 decks)

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