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MSS > 1. Anemias and WBC Disorders > Flashcards

1. Anemias and WBC Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Formula for the corrected reticulocyte count (CRC) is _________.

A

(% observed reticulocyte)(patient hct) / 45

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2
Q

Formula for the reticulocute production index (RPI) is _________.

A

CRC * (1/CF)

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3
Q

An RPI of < ___ indicates failure of the bone marrow to produce red blood cells.

A

2

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4
Q

________ must be specifically stained for their RNA in order to actually see them on a blood smear.

A

Reticulocytes

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5
Q

The _______ ________ _____ count is the laboratory test that is done to determine bone marrow production.

A

Corrected reticulocyte count

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6
Q

_____ cells are usually an artifact on a blood smear.

A

Burr

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7
Q

_______ ______ are multiple blue dots seen in a red blood cell and they are associated with lead poisoning.

A

Basophilic stippling

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8
Q

Basophilic stippling are multiple blue dots seen in a red blood cell and they are associated with _______ ________.

A

Lead poisoning

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9
Q

_____ ____ in a red blood cell is associated with a post-splenectomy.

A

Cabot’s ring

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10
Q

Cabot’s ring in a red blood cell is associated with a ___________.

A

Post-splenectomy

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11
Q

______ bodies are associated with paraproteinemias due to neoplastic change in white blood cells.

A

Rouleaux

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12
Q

Acanthocytes or _____ cells are associated with liver disease.

A

Spur

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13
Q

_________ is a red blood cell morphology associated with liver disease.

A

Acanthocytes

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14
Q

_______ disease is most associated with the acanthocyte (spur) red blood cell morphology.

A

Liver

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15
Q

A smooth tongue is a physical sign seen in ______ _____ ______ anemia.

A

Severe Fe deficiency

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16
Q

The _______ _____ reflex is diminished in patients with hypothyroidism.

A

Achilles tendon

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17
Q

Free erythrocyte _______ is a good way to distinguish between Fe deficiency and thalassemia minor.

A

Protoporphyrin

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18
Q

Free erythrocyte protoporphyrin is a good way to distinguish between Fe deficiency and ________ ______.`

A

Thalassemia minor

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19
Q

In anemia of chronic disease, the bone marrow storage iron is (increased/decreased?).

A

Increased

Fe is being made and there’s just an interference in it being absorbed so it’s building up in the bone marrow.

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20
Q

Microcytosis and a High RDW is a characterisitic pattern of ______ _______.

A

Fe deficiency

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21
Q

_______ and a High RDW is a characteristic pattern of Fe deficiency.

A

Microcytosis

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22
Q

Normocytosis and a normal RDW is a characteristic pattern of _____________.

A

Anemia of chronic disease

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23
Q

Normocytosis and a _______ RDW is a characteristic pattern of anemia of chronic disease.

A

Normal

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24
Q

Microcytosis and a normal RDW is characteristic of __________.

A

Thalassemia

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25
Q

Microcytosis and a _______ RDW is characteristic of thalassemia.

A

Normal

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26
Q

Aplastic anemia presents with a ______ and a normal RDW.

A

Macrocytosis

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27
Q

______ anemia presents with a macrocytosis and a normal RDW.

A

Aplastic

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28
Q

Hemolysis or RBC breakdown requires a sweep of studies and laboratory tests including haptoglobin, ______, and LDH.

A

Bilirubin

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29
Q

Hemolysis or RBC breakdown requires a sweep of studies and laboratory tests including haptoglobin, bilirubin, and _____.

A

LDH

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30
Q

_______ ______ _____ is a value that is high in Fe deficiency because tissues are looking for it to take it in.

A

Soluble transferrin receptors

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31
Q

On hemoglobin electrophoresis for Sickle cell disease, Hgb __ will not be present.

A

A

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32
Q

On hemoglobin electrophoresis for _____ ____ disease, HgbA will not be present.

A

Sickle cell

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33
Q

_____ _____ and SLE are two chronic inflammatory diseases associated with anemia of chronic disease.

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

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34
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis and ____ are two chronic inflammatory diseases associated with anemia of chronic disease.

A

SLE

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35
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are two chronic inflammatory diseases associated with ______ _____ ______.

A

Anemia of Chronic Disease

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36
Q

A positive ______ test is a diagnosis of autoimmune hemolytic anemia.

A

Coomb’s

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37
Q

A positive Coomb’s test is a diagnosis of _____ ______ anemia.

A

Autoimmune hemolytic

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38
Q

Macrocytic anemia without a proper upregulation of the ________ response means that ancillary tests should be ordered.

A

reticulocyte

(do a thyroid function test, cytogenetic analysis w/ Fe stores analysis)

(drug test, malabsorption studies, Schilling test)

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39
Q

When an anemia is both normocytic and normochromic and there is no reticulocyte response, you should suspect _______.

A

malignancy

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40
Q

An ______ _______ test should be done when spherocytes are seen on a blood smear.

A

osmotic fragility

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41
Q

An osmotic fragility test should be done when ________are seen on a blood smear.

A

spherocytes

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42
Q

Hemoglobin H disease can be stained for with _____ ______ _____` stain which represents unstable Hgb.

A

brilliant cresyl blue

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43
Q

________ ___ disease can be stained for with brilliant cresyl blue stain which represents unstable Hgb.

A

Hemoglobin H

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44
Q

_________ disease is mental retardation with an accompanying anemia.

A

Fanconi’s

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45
Q

The presence of _____ cells and rouleaux cells indicate that you should examine the bone marrow.

A

teardrop

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46
Q

The presence of teardrop cells and _______ cells indicate that you should examine the bone marrow.

A

rouleaux

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47
Q

A decrease in serum ______ is the earliest indication of iron deficiency when inflammation is absent.

A

ferritin

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48
Q

_________ is an Fe overload diasease wherein serum Fe is incredibly high.

A

Hemocromatosis

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49
Q

Hemocromatosis is an Fe overload diasease wherein serum _____ is incredibly high.

A

Fe

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50
Q

What are the normal blood cell counts for red blood cells, hemoglobin, and hematocrit, in that order?

A

5-15-45

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51
Q

[…] is the average amount of hemoglobin in a given red blood cell.

A

Mean cell hemoglobin (MCH)

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52
Q

[…] is the average amount of hemoglobin in a given volume of blood.

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration (MCHC)

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53
Q

An MCHC < […] is indicative of a hypochromic condition.

A

32

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54
Q

An MCHC < 32 is indicative of a […] condition.

A

hypochromic

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55
Q

The formula for MCV is […].

A

10(Hct/RBC)

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56
Q

The normal range for the […] is 10.2 - 14.5 %.

A

RDW

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57
Q

The normal range for the RDW is […] %.

A

10.2 - 14.5

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58
Q

[…] anemia has characteristic oval-shaped cells.

A

Megaloblastic

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59
Q

Megaloblastic anemia has characteristic […]-shaped cells.

A

oval

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60
Q

[…] anemia has characterisitic round-shaped cells.

A

Non-megaloblastic

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61
Q

Non-megaloblastic anemia has characterisitic […]-shaped cells.

A

round

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62
Q

An […] reticulocyte count means that the bone marrow is producing a lot of blood cells so hemolysis is happening and it’s important to know if it is intravascular or extravascular.

A

elevated

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63
Q

An elevated reticulocyte count means that the bone marrow is producing a lot of blood cells so hemolysis is happening and it’s important to know if it is […] or […].

A

intravascular, extravascular

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64
Q

Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria is a differential for […] hemolysis in a normocytic anemia.

A

intrinsic

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65
Q

Paroxysmal noctural hemoglobinuria is a differential for intrinsic hemolysis in a […] anemia.

A

normocytic

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66
Q

A chronic blood loss of >[…] week is indicative of an extravascular hemolysis.

A

1

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67
Q

A chronic blood loss of >1 week is indicative of an […] hemolysis.

A

extravascular

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68
Q

Malaria is a cause of […] hemolysis in normocytic anemia.

A

extravascular

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69
Q

The major symptom in […] hemolysis is hemoglobinuria.

A

intravascular

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70
Q

The major symptom in intravascular hemolysis is […].

A

hemoglobinuria

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71
Q

Aside from Fe deficiency, […] anemia can also be caused by defects in hemoglobin synthesis known as thalassemia.

A

microcytic

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72
Q

Aside from Fe deficiency, microcytic anemia can also be caused by defects in hemoglobin synthesis known as […].

A

thalassemia

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73
Q

Serum levels of Fe are proportional to storage Fe in the bone marrow at a value of […].

A

1:8

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74
Q

Excess Fe storage in the bone marrow is a cause of […] anemia.

A

sideroblastic

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75
Q

A bone marrow biopsy is not helpful in diagnosing […] because it is a peripheral smear diagnosis.

A

chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

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76
Q

A […] is not helpful in diagnosing chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) because it is a peripheral smear diagnosis.

A

bone marrow biopsy

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77
Q

Bone marrow biopsies are not helpful in diagnosing hemolytic anemias without evidence of […] or […].

A

leukemia or lymphoma

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78
Q

[…] are not helpful in diagnosing hemolytic anemias without evidence of leukemia or lymphoma.

A

Bone marrow biopsies

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79
Q

Bone marrow biopsies can be used to evaluate bone metastasis in certain malignancies such as […].

A

oat cell carcinomas

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80
Q

Bone marrow biopsies can be used to evaluate bone […] in certain malignancies such as oat cell carcinomas.

A

metastasis

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81
Q

[…] or unexplained cytopenia are indications for a bone marrow biopsy.

A

FUO

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82
Q

FUO or unexplained […] are indications for a bone marrow biopsy.

A

cytopenia

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83
Q

The […] is the preferred site for a bone biopsy.

A

PSIS

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84
Q

The normal value for the M/E ratio is […].

A

3:1

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85
Q

An […] M/E ratio is indicative of either CML, and infection, or erythroid hypoplasia.

A

elevated

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86
Q

An elevated M/E ratio is indicative of either […], an infection, or erythroid hypoplasia.

A

CML

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87
Q

An elevated M/E ratio is indicative of either CML, an […], or erythroid hypoplasia.

A

infection

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88
Q

In a bone marrow biopsy, most hematopoietic elements can be found near the […] save for the lymphoid aggregates.

A

bony spicules

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89
Q

In a bone marrow biopsy, most hematopoietic elements can be found near the bony spicules save for the […].

A

lymphoid aggregates

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90
Q

[…] are the 30-40% of normoblasts that contain ferritin granules.

A

Sideroblasts

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91
Q

Sideroblasts are the […]% of normoblasts that contain ferritin granules.

A

30-40

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92
Q

More than […] ferritin granules in a sideroblast is indicative of a malignancy.

A

1-2

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93
Q

[…] hypertension is one of the non-specific symptoms associated with anemia.

A

Postural

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94
Q

Postural hypertension is one of the non-specific symptoms associated with […].

A

anemia

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95
Q

Anemia presents with a […]-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve leading to increased 2,3-DPG.

A

right

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96
Q

Anemia presents with a right-shift in the oxygen dissociation curve leading to [increased/decreased] 2,3-DPG.

A

increased

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97
Q

[…] anemia is a secondary anemia due to chronic atrophic gastritis leading to lack of IF.

A

Pernicious

98
Q

Pernicious anemia is a secondary anemia due to […] leading to lack of IF.

A

chronic atrophic gastritis

99
Q

[…], and parietal canalicular antibodies are the three antibodies that are seen in pernicious anemia.

A

IF blocking/IF binding

100
Q

IF blocking/IF binding, and […] antibodies are the three antibodies that are seen in pernicious anemia.

A

parietal canalicular

101
Q

IF blocking/IF binding, and parietal canalicular antibodies are the three antibodies that are seen in […] anemia.

A

pernicious

102
Q

[…] syndrome presents with spoon-shaped nails, esophageal webs, pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an atrophic tongue.

A

Plummer vinson

103
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome presents with […] nails, esophageal webs, pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an atrophic tongue.

A

spoon-shaped

104
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome presents with spoon-shaped nails, […] , pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an atrophic tongue.

A

esophageal webs

105
Q

Plummer vinson syndrome presents with spoon-shaped nails, esophageal webs, pale skin/mucous membranes, dysphagia, and an […].

A

atrophic tongue

106
Q

[…] anemias present with hypersegmented neutrophils on the peripheral blood smear.

A

Macrocytic

107
Q

Macrocytic anemias present with […] neutrophils on the peripheral blood smear.

A

hypersegmented

108
Q

The neurological problems in vitamin B12 deficiency can be attributed to either increases in the enzyme […] or in propionate.

A

methylmalonate

109
Q

The neurological problems in vitamin B12 deficiency can be attributed to either increases in the enzyme methylmalonate or in […].

A

propionate

110
Q

[…] bodies are see in the spleen in patients with sickle cell disease.

A

Gandy-gamna

111
Q

Gandy-gamna bodies are see in the […] in patients with sickle cell disease.

A

spleen

112
Q

Gandy-gamna bodies are see in the spleen in patients with […] disease.

A

sickle cell

113
Q

[…] anemia is due to red blood cell damage caused by abnormally narrow blood vessels.

A

Microangiopathic hemolytic

114
Q

[…] is caused by a deficit in the PIG-A protein.

A

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

115
Q

Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is caused by a deficit in the […] protein.

A

PIG-A

116
Q

[…] anemia is a pure red cell aplasia.

A

Diamond blackfan

117
Q

Diamond blackfan anemia is a pure […] aplasia.

A

red cell

118
Q

Hypersegmented PMNs are characterized as having greater than […] segments.

A

5-7

119
Q

[…] anemia presents with an increase in the LDH enzyme due to the intramedullary destruction of precursor cells.

A

Megaloblastic

120
Q

Megaloblastic anemia presents with an increase in the […] enzyme due to the intramedullary destruction of precursor cells.

A

LDH

121
Q

[…] and OCPs are two medications that inhibit the absorption of vitamin B12.

A

Diphenylhydantoin

122
Q

Diphenylhydantoin and […] are two medications that inhibit the absorption of vitamin B12.

A

OCPs

123
Q

[…] hemolysis is usually hereditary while […] hemolysis is always acquired.

A

Intracorpuscular, extracorpuscular

124
Q

[…] hemoglobinuria is caused by a defect in the C5-C9 complement proteins.

A

Paroxysmal cold

125
Q

Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria is caused by a defect in the […] complement proteins.

A

C5-C9

126
Q

Defected […] antibodies can be a cause of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria.

A

Donath-Landsteiner

127
Q

Defected Donath-Landsteiner antibodies can be a cause of […].

A

paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

128
Q

[…] AIHA is induced by IgG which binds to the Fc receptors on splenic macrophages causing spherocytosis.

A

Warm antibody

129
Q

Warm antibody AIHA is induced by […] which binds to the Fc receptors on splenic macrophages causing spherocytosis.

A

IgG

130
Q

Warm antibody AIHA is induced by IgG which binds to the Fc receptors on splenic macrophages causing […].

A

spherocytosis

131
Q

[…] AIHA is induced by IgM which further produces anti-IgI and anti-Igi.

A

Cold antibody

132
Q

Cold antibody AIHA is induced by […] which further produces anti-IgI and anti-Igi.

A

IgM

133
Q

[…] in cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-mycoplasma infection.

A

anti-I

134
Q

anti-I in cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-[…] infection.

A

mycoplasma

135
Q

[…] cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-mononucleosis infection.

A

anti-i

136
Q

anti-i cold antibody AIHA usually follows a post-[…] infection.

A

mononucleosis

137
Q

Hereditary […] is caused by a defect in protein 4.1 which prevents spectrin from binding to actin.

A

spherocytosis

138
Q

Hereditary spherocytosis is caused by a defect in […] which prevents spectrin from binding to actin.

A

protein 4.1

139
Q

A high MCHC > […] is characterisitic of hereditary spherocytosis and requires a splenectomy.

A

36

140
Q

A high MCHC > 36 is characterisitic of hereditary […] and requires a splenectomy.

A

spherocytosis

141
Q

[…] globin genes are encoded on chromosome 16 and there are 4 of them.

A

alpha

142
Q

alpha globin genes are encoded on chromosome […] and there are 4 of them.

A

16

143
Q

A knockout of […] alpha genes leads to a patient with thalassemia trait.

A

2

144
Q

A knockout of 2 alpha genes leads to a patient with […].

A

thalassemia trait

145
Q

[…] disease is caused by a knockout of 3 alpha genes leading to the formation of beta blobin tetramers.

A

Hemoglobin H

146
Q

Hemoglobin H disease is caused by a knockout of […] alpha genes leading to the formation of beta globin tetramers.

A

3

147
Q

Hemoglobin H disease is caused by a knockout of 3 alpha genes leading to the formation of […].

A

beta globin tetramers

148
Q

alpha thalassemia trait can either be cis- as seen in […] or trans- as seen in […].

A

asians, africans

149
Q

[…] is caused by splicing mutations in the genes of the same name located on chromosome 11.

A

Beta thalassemia

150
Q

Beta thalassemia is caused by splicing mutations in the genes of the same name located on chromosome […].

A

11

151
Q

Knockout of both beta genes is known as […] or Cooley’s anemia.

A

beta thalassemia major

152
Q

Knockout of both beta genes is known as beta thalassemia major or […].

A

Cooley’s anemia

153
Q

In beta thalassemia major, patients produce hemoglobin types […] and […].

A

F, A2

since there’s no beta anymore

154
Q

[…] presents with a ‘crew cut’ appearance of the skull on x-ray.

A

Cooley’s anemia

155
Q

Cooley’s anemia presents with a […] appearance of the skull on x-ray.

A

‘crew cut’

156
Q

White blood cell counts are based on the […] pool granulocyte pool.

A

circulating

157
Q

The normal range for the WBC count is […]/uL.

A

4.5-11 *10e3

158
Q

[…] is a marker for CALLA as well as for ovarian stroma.

A

CD10

159
Q

CD10 is a marker for […] as well as for ovarian stroma.

A

CALLA

160
Q

CD10 is a marker for CALLA as well as for […].

A

ovarian stroma

161
Q

CD45 is a […] marker.

A

leukocyte

162
Q

The […] pattern of lymph node hyperplasia involves all three cell types (B cells, T cells, histiocytes) and is associated with severe viral infections.

A

diffuse

163
Q

The diffuse pattern of lymph node hyperplasia involves all three cell types (B cells, T cells, histiocytes) and is associated with severe […] infections.

A

viral

164
Q

[…] disease is the forme fruste for SLE.

A

Kikuchi’s

165
Q

[…] or azurophilic granules contain bacteria permeability increasing (BPI) enzymes and myelperoxidase, amother other enzymes.

A

Primary

166
Q

Primary or azurophilic granules contain […] enzymes and myelperoxidase, among other other enzymes.

A

bacteria permeability increasing (BPI)

167
Q

Primary or azurophilic granules contain bacteria permeability increasing (BPI) enzymes and […], among other other enzymes.

A

myeloperoxidase

168
Q

The […] pattern of lymph node hyperplasia is seen in chronic diseases and involves B cells and histiocytes.

A

mixed

169
Q

The mixed pattern of lymph node hyperplasia is seen in […] diseases and involves B cells and histiocytes.

A

chronic

170
Q

[…] have a characteristic crystalline core seen on electron microscopy called major basic protein (MBP).

A

Eosinophils

171
Q

Eosinophils have a characteristic crystalline core seen on electron microscopy called […].

A

major basic protein (MBP)

172
Q

[…] are seen in the eosinophils of patients with asthma.

A

Charcot-Leyden crystals

173
Q

Charcot-Leyden crystals are seen in the eosinophils of patients with […].

A

asthma

174
Q

[…] is a benign defect of WBCs where the PMNs are bilobed but otherwise function normally.

A

Pelget Huet anomaly

175
Q

Pelget Huet anomaly is a benign defect of WBCs where the PMNs are […] but otherwise function normally.

A

bilobed

176
Q

[…] is caused by a defect in mucopolysaccharides and it presents as gargoylism in affected patients.

A

Alder-Reilly anomaly

177
Q

Alder-Reilly anomaly is caused by a defect in […] and it presents as gargoylism in affected patients.

A

mucopolysaccharides

178
Q

Alder-Reilly anomaly is caused by a defect in mucopolysaccharides and it presents as […] in affected patients.

A

gargoylism

179
Q

[…] are remnants of rER from earlier maturation stages that can be seen in the case of toxic granulation.

A

Dohle bodies

180
Q

Dohle bodies are remnants of rER from earlier maturation stages that can be seen in the case of […].

A

toxic granulation

181
Q

[…] is a disease confined to the lymph nodes while […] is a disease that begins in the blood.

A

Lymphoma, leukemia

182
Q

[…] is a lung disease associated with Beer-Beck granules.

A

Histiocytosis X

183
Q

Histiocytosis X is a lung disease associated with […] granules.

A

Beer-Beck

184
Q

[…] leukemia is associated with hypersensitivity to GM-CSF due to a monosomy on chromosome 7.

A

Juvenile myelomonocytic

185
Q

Juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia is associated with hypersensitivity to GM-CSF due to a monosomy on chromosome […].

A

7

186
Q

[…] is caused by stem cell disorders with peripheral blood cytopenia and hematopoietic dysplasia.

A

Myelodysplastic syndrome

187
Q

1/3rd of patients with myelodysplasic syndrome acquire refractory […] which presents with <5% blasts.

A

AML

188
Q

1/3rd of patients with myelodysplasic syndrome acquire refractory AML which presents with

A

5

189
Q

Myelodysplastic syndrome with an isolated […] abnormality has the best prognosis of all the chromosomal abnormalities.

A

del 5q

190
Q

[…] present in children and are usually of the B cell category.

A

Acute lymphoblastic leukemias

191
Q

[…] leukemias are caused by an arrestation of colonal cells in early stages of differentiation in chronic leukemias, cells can still differentiate.

A

Acute

192
Q

Acute leukemias are caused by an arrestation of colonal cells in early stages of differentiation in […] leukemias, cells can still differentiate.

A

chronic

193
Q

[…] presents in adults and has characteristic auer rods on histological section.

A

Acute myelocytic leukemia

194
Q

Acute myelocytic leukemia presents in adults and has characteristic […] on histological section.

A

auer rods

195
Q

[…] is a genetic variation of acute myelocytic leukemia that an ve treated with trans-retinoic acid.

A

AML(APL) t(15;17)(q22;11-12)

196
Q

AML(APL) t(15;17)(q22;11-12) is a genetic variation of acute myelocytic leukemia that an ve treated with […].

A

trans-retinoic acid

197
Q

[…] with a t(8;21) translocation or an abnormality on chromosome 16 has a good prognosis.

A

Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML)

198
Q

Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) with a […] translocation or an abnormality on chromosome 16 has a good prognosis.

A

t(8;21)

199
Q

Acute myelocytic leukemia (AML) with a t(8;21) translocation or an abnormality on chromosome […] has a good prognosis.

A

16

200
Q

[…] is associated with the ZAP-70 protein.

A

B cell prolymphocytic NHL

201
Q

B cell prolymphocytic NHL is associated with the […] protein.

A

ZAP-70

202
Q

[…] NHL is CD5 negative.

A

Lymphoplasmacytic

203
Q

Lymphoplasmacytic NHL is […] negative.

A

CD5

204
Q

[…] NHL is associated with hepatitis C viral infection.

A

Splenic marginal zone

205
Q

Splenic marginal zone NHL is associated with […] viral infection.

A

hepatitis C

206
Q

[…] leukemia is positive for TRAP (tartrate resistance acid phosphatase).

A

Hairy cell

207
Q

[…] leukemia will present with a ‘dry tap’ on bone marrow biopsy.

A

Hairy cell

208
Q

Hairy cell leukemia is positive for […].

A

TRAP (tartrate resistance acid phosphatase)

209
Q

Hairy cell leukemia will present with a […] on bone marrow biopsy.

A

‘dry tap’

210
Q

[…] is positive for the Tdt enzyme.

A

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL)

211
Q

Acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL) is positive for the […] enzyme.

A

Tdt

212
Q

An important […] NHL phenotype is the formation of IgH on 14q32.

A

plasma cell myeloma

213
Q

An important plasma cell myeloma NHL phenotype is the formation of […] on 14q32.

A

IgH

214
Q

An important plasma cell myeloma NHL phenotype is the formation of IgH on […].

A

14q32

215
Q

[…] NHL is CD20 positive and CALLA negative.

A

Marginal zone lymphoma (MALT)

216
Q

Marginal zone lymphoma (MALT) NHL is CD20 […] and CALLA […].

A

positive, negative

217
Q

[…] has a “starry sky” pattern on histology and its associated with the c-myc protein.

A

Burkitt’s lymphoma

218
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma has a […] pattern on histology and its associated with the c-myc protein.

A

“starry sky”

219
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma has a “starry sky” pattern on histology and its associated with the […] protein.

A

c-myc

220
Q

[…] is always negative in Burkitt’s lymphoma.

A

Bcl-2

221
Q

Bcl-2 is always […] in Burkitt’s lymphoma.

A

negative

222
Q

[…] neoplasms are associated with Sezary syndrome in adults.

A

Mature T cell/NK

223
Q

Mature T cell/NK neoplasms are associated with […] in adults.

A

Sezary syndrome`

224
Q

[…] is associated with punched-out lytic lesions on xray and Bence-Jones proteins in the urine.

A

Plasma cell myeloma

225
Q

Plasma cell myeloma is associated with […] lesions on xray and Bence-Jones proteins in the urine.

A

punched-out lytic

226
Q

Plasma cell myeloma is associated with punched-out lytic lesions on xray and […] proteins in the urine.

A

Bence-Jones

227
Q

The characteristic cell of […] is Reed–Sternberg cells.

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

228
Q

The characteristic cell of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is […] cells.

A

Reed–Sternberg

229
Q

[…] are tumors of thymic epithelial cells.

A

Thymomas

230
Q

[…] is associated with the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene which has a t(9;22)(q34:11.2) translocation

A

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)

231
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is associated with the […] fusion gene which has a t(9;22)(q34:11.2) translocation

A

BCR-ABL1

232
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) is associated with the BCR-ABL1 fusion gene which has a […] translocation

A

t(9;22)(q34:11.2)

233
Q

[…] can progress to diffuse large B cell lymphoma which is known as Richter’s transformation syndrome.

A

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

234
Q

Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) can progress to diffuse large B cell lymphoma which is known as […] syndrome.

A

Richter’s transformation

235
Q

[…] syndrome is a t(11;14) translocation.

A

Richter’s transformation

236
Q

Richter’s transformation syndrome is a […] translocation.

A

t(11;14)

237
Q

[…] has characteristic smudge cells on histology.

A

CLL/SLL

238
Q

CLL/SLL has characteristic […] cells on histology.

A

smudge

239
Q

Langerhan’s cell histiocytosis is […] positive.

A

CD1a

240
Q

[…] lesions are only seen in MZL/MALT lymphomas.

A

Lymphoepithelial

241
Q

Lymphoepithelial lesions are only seen in […] lymphomas.

A

MZL/MALT

242
Q

[…] is the most common type of Hodgkin’s lymphoma.

A

Nodular sclerosis

MSS (6 decks)

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