5 Flashcards

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1
Q

myasthenia gravis pathophysiology

A

Acetylcholine receptor antibodies –> weaknesswh

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2
Q

What chromosome is the mutation in Huntington’s?

A

4

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3
Q

where is the atrophy in Huntington’s?

A

caudate and cerebral atrophy

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4
Q

Tobacco is an ____ (inducer or inhibitor) of CYP ____

A

inducer of CYP 1A2

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5
Q

Grapefruit juice is an ____ (inducer or inhibitor) of CYP ____

A

inhibitor of CYP 1A2/3A4

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6
Q

Fluvoxamine juice is an ____ (inducer or inhibitor) of CYP’s ____

A

inhibitor of CYP 1A2/2C19/3A4

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7
Q

order of top 5 solid tumors that metastasize to the brain

A
  1. lung
  2. breast
  3. melanoma
  4. GI
  5. kidney
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8
Q

what age do people learn to think abstractly

A

adolescence

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9
Q

what percent of the general population has a diagnosable personality disorder

A

10-15%

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10
Q

2 types of diseases that give ring enhancing lesions on brain imaging

A

toxoplasmosis and TB

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11
Q

what’s more affected with MCA stroke - broca or wernicke’s aphasias?

A

Broca

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12
Q

Lower extremities control is in which artery distribution

A

anterior cerebral artery

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13
Q

alexia without agraphia is a stroke in which artery distribution

A

posterior cerebral artery

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14
Q

what type of variables do each of these tests use (binary vs continuous): x squared, t test, ANOVA, correlation, regression analysis

A

Xsquared - 1 binary predictor, 1 binary outcome

t test - one binary predictor, 1 continuous outcome

ANOVA - 2 or more binary predictors, 1 continuous outcome

Correlation - 1 continuous predictor, 1 continuous outcome

Regression analysis - 2 or more continuous predictors, 1 continuous outcome

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15
Q

which childhood disorder is this - pectus excvatum, ocular lens dislocation, Marfans habitus, mental retardation, scoliosis, spasticity, seizures, high risk of stroke

A

homocystinuria

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16
Q

what is this childhood disorder - normal first 6 months, then becomes blind, deaf, unable to swallow, and eventually paralysis and death by age 4

A

Tay Sachs

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17
Q

Niemann-Pick disease is mutation in which enzyme

A

sphingomyelinase

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18
Q

Niemann-Pick symptoms

A

hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, ataxia, dysarthria, dysphagia, supranuclear gaze palsy

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19
Q

amylase is test for

A

pancreatitis

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20
Q

William syndrome is deletion on which chromosome

A

7

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21
Q

is Marfan’s associated with mental retardation or autism, both, or neither?

A

Neither

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22
Q

what bleed causes brief loss of consciousness, followed by lucid period and then further deterioration

A

epidural hematoma

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23
Q

which artery torn in epidural hematoma

A

middle meningeal artery

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24
Q

Bupropion is an ______ (inhibitor or inducer) of ______ and a substrate of ______

A

inhibitor of CYP 2D6

substrate of 2B6

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25
Q

how do men and women metabolize alcohol differently?

A

women have less alcohol dehydrogenase in their gut so men metabolize more and women absorb more

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26
Q

“worst headache of my life” is problem where and from what

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage - from intracranial aneurysm or AVM of one of arteria that form Circle of Willis

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27
Q

1st neuropsychiatric symptom of Huntington’s is usually

A

depression

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28
Q

can you have bradykinesia in Huntington’s?

A

yes

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29
Q

what can be precipitated by chiropractic adjustments?

A

vertebral artery dissections

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30
Q

FDA treatment for postherpetic neuralgia

A

gabapentin

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31
Q

carbon monoxide poisoning affects which brain areas

A

cerebral cortex, hippocampus, cerebellar cortex, basal ganglia

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32
Q

Stiff person syndrome

A

persistent limb rigidity and spasms from autoantibodies against glutamic acid decarboxylase

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33
Q

cataplexy vs catalepsy

A

cataplexy - loss of muscle tone with strong emotions (narcolepsy)

catalepsy - posturing (catatonia)

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34
Q

mirtazapine MOA

A

5HT3 and alpha2 antagonism

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35
Q

what personality trait increases risk of cardiac disease in men

A

hostility

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36
Q

Prader Willi triad

A

hyperphagia, hypomentia, hypogonadism

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37
Q

Angleman’s syndrome

A

severe intellectual disability, microcephalous, laughter, seizures. rigidity, jerky movements

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38
Q

what is this - rapidly progressing dementia, exaggerated startle response, myoclonus

A

CJD

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39
Q

what is most common complication of pseudotumor cerebri

A

visual impairment from papilledema

40
Q

does men’s sexual desire change as they get older?

A

no

41
Q

infantile secure attachment associated with what outcome

A

emotional and social competence

42
Q

Kohut’s “bipolar self” composed of 2 systems of narcissistic perfection which are…

A

1) system of ambitions - the narcissistic self
2) system of ideals - idealized parental imago

43
Q

brain areas for episodic memory

A

medial temporal lobe
anterior thalamic nuclei
mammillary bodies
fornix
prefrontal cortex

44
Q

what does episodic memory remember

A

explicit, declarative awareness - eg. what you ate for a meal earlier that day, where you went on last vacation

45
Q

brain areas of semantic memory

A

inferolateral temporal lobes

46
Q

brain areas of procedural memory

A

basal ganglia, cerebellum, supplementary motor area

47
Q

Area for TMS for depression

A

left dorsolateral prefrontal cortex

48
Q

NeuroStar TMS can be indicated after youve failed how many trials of antidepressants?

A

one

49
Q

how do atypical antipsychotics produce less EPS compared to first gen?

A

rapid dissociation from D2 receptors - low affinities and bind loosely and rapidly released

50
Q

conversion disorder rates highest among which populations?

A

rural population
little education
low intelligence
low SES
military peeps with combat history

51
Q

MDMA MOA

A

block reuptake of serotonin
induce massive release of serotonin from neurons

52
Q

what damage does MDMA cause

A

damage to serotonergic nerve terminals
decreases in serotonin transporter binding

53
Q

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI) has three validity scales which are…

A

lie scale (L)
infrequency scale (F)
suppressor scale (K)

54
Q

infrequency scale of MMPI useful at identifying

A

malingering, illiteracy, confusion, psychosis, panic

55
Q

lie scale of MMPI useful at identifying

A

test if patient is being honest in answering questions

56
Q

suppressor scale of MMPI useful at doing what

A

decreasing false positives and false negatives

57
Q

T3 (triiodothyronine) should not be taken in which patients

A

patients with cardiac dz/acute MI/angina/HTN
thyrotoxicosis
adrenal insufficiency

58
Q

T3 (triiodothyronine) drug interactions to watch out for

A

potentiate effects of warfarin
decrease insulin
decrease digitalis
watch thyroid levels if coadministered with SSRIs, TCAs, lithium, carbamazepine

59
Q

does eszopiclone lead to dependence?

A

no

60
Q

side effects of eszopiclone

A

hallucinations, sleep walking

61
Q

how long after patient stopped drinking does GGT return to normal?

A

8 weeks

62
Q

primary vs secondary vs tertiary causes of adrenal insufficiency areas

A

primary - adrenals
secondary - pituitary
tertiary - hypothalamus

63
Q

psychiatric symptoms of adrenal insufficiency

A

depression, apathy, irritability, psychosis, delirium

64
Q

what happens to concentrations of depakote and lamotrigine when taken together?

A

lamotrigine levels increase
depakote levels decrease

65
Q

what happens to concentrations of carbamazepine and lamotrigine when taken together?

A

lamotrigine levels decrease

66
Q

what happens to concentrations of carbamazepine and depakote when taken together?

A

carbamazepine levels increase

67
Q

cerebellum forms at what age

A

1 year

68
Q

myelnation of peripheral nerves completes at what age

A

2 years

69
Q

fine pincer grasp develops around

A

9-12 months

70
Q

ability to sit without support occurs at

A

6 months

71
Q

clonazepam is slowly or rapidly absorbed?

A

rapidly

72
Q

diazepam is slowly or rapidly absorbed?

A

rapidly

73
Q

sex differences in rates of OCD?

A

equal among men and women

74
Q

how long should IV/IM thiamine + dextrose be given in alcohol withdrawal?

A

3 days

75
Q

elderly person on carbamazepine gets delirious. what happened?

A

hyponatremia from vasopressin effect

76
Q

most antipsychotics metabolized through the liver except which one?

A

paliperidone

77
Q

what type of validity is this - diagnosis based on general consensus among experienced clinicians?

A

face validity

78
Q

what type of validity is this - diagnosis based on characteristic features that distinguish it from other disorders

A

descriptive validity

79
Q

what type of validity is this - diagnosis will allow clinicians to accurately predict treatment response and clinical course

A

predictive validity

80
Q

what type of validity is this - diagnosis based on an understanding of the underlying validity

A

construct validity

81
Q

desvenlafaxine renally or hepatically excreted?

A

renally

82
Q

Does desvenlafaxine also cause HTN like venlafaxine?

A

yes

83
Q

blood levels of lithium at each level of toxicity (mild/moderate/severe)

A

mild: 1.5-2 mEq/L
moderate: 2-2.5
severe: >2.5

84
Q

atomoxetine takes up to how many weeks to feel full effect?

A

10 weeks

85
Q

Does duloxetine cause HTN like venlafaxine?

A

no

86
Q

can patients on MAOIs consume vodka?

A

yes - small amounts of clear alcohol

but no rap beer, red wine, some white wines, and sherry

87
Q

can patients on MAOIs consume smoked fish and caviar?

A

no

88
Q

which drug of abuse causes perioral rash?

A

inhalants

89
Q

REM latency increased or decreased in narcolepsy?

A

decreased

90
Q

is risk of agranulocytosis in clozapine users dose related?

A

no

91
Q

is risk of seizures in clozapine users dose related?

A

yes

92
Q

are schizophrenic patients more likely to commit homicide?

A

no

93
Q

most common form of dementia

A

Alzheimer’s (50-60% of dementias)

94
Q

prevalence of Alzheimer’s in patients over 85

A

20-40%

95
Q

does mirtazapine block serotonin or NE reuptake?

A

no