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Allegiant A320 Exam Guide > 4. Flight Preparation/Planning Dispatch Release > Flashcards

4. Flight Preparation/Planning Dispatch Release Flashcards

1
Q

What aircraft is listed on the release?

A

N246NV

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2
Q

What cost index will you use for this flight?

A

CI025

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3
Q

What is cost index?

A

Cost index = 0 corresponds to maximum range and cost index = 999 corresponds to
minimum time. Cost index is determined by the company and considers the
relationship between time and fuel related cost to minimize the trip cost.

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4
Q

What is total trip distance?

A

232 NM

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5
Q

What is the average wind component for this flight?

A

AVG W/C M020 (20 knot headwind)

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6
Q

Explain NAM 0238.

A

Equivalent distance considering average wind component

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7
Q

What is the scheduled departure time?

A

2330Z

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8
Q

What is the planned TAS?

A

411 KTS

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9
Q

What is the filed altitude? Is there a step climb?

A

FL200, no step climb

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10
Q

What is enroute flight time?

A

44 MIN

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11
Q

What is your planned groundspeed at RBV?

A

387 KTS

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12
Q

What is the distance between RBV and HIKES? How long to fly this segment?

A

o ZD = 53 NM

o ZT = 08 MIN

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13
Q

What is the cumulative distance at HIKES? How long since takeoff?

A

o CD = 0100 NM

o CT = 00/18 (HR/MN)

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14
Q

What is the distance remaining at HIKES? How long until touchdown?

A

o DR = 0132 NM

o TR = 00/26 (HR/MN)

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15
Q

What is the planned fuel burn from RBV to HIKES?

A

ZF = 00843 LBS

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16
Q

What is the minimum required fuel at HIKES?

A

o 006521 LBS
o This is based on aircraft landing with company preferred fuel at the destination. If
fuel value at waypoint is below this number shown, review reserve and/or
alternate fuel.

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17
Q

What is planned fuel flow at HIKES?

A

o FF/E = 3126/HR (per engine) OR 6,252/HR (both engines)

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18
Q

When is an RVSM check required? Fuel Check?

A

o Per SOP enroute: RVSM and fuel awareness checks are required hourly.
o In addition to the hourly RVSM check, an altimeter check is required prior to
entering RVSM airspace. This is accomplished at transition altitude.

19
Q 
Reference the (STRUC LIMIT) weights on the release. It is the Captain’s responsibility to
ensure these numbers are correct. Where is this information found?
A

The adjusted BOW and cabin configuration report is located on the inside cover of
the maintenance can.

20
Q

When do we use summer weights? Winter weights?

A

o Summer weights (MAY 1/OCT 31) 190LBS
o Winter weights (NOV 1/APR 30) 195LBS
o Passenger weights include an allowance for 16LBS of carry‐on bags.

21
Q

What is the engine type for this aircraft?

A

CFM56‐5B4P

22
Q

How do you determine that the attached TLR is valid?

A

o POAT: Takeoff report is valid when actual OAT is no less than POAT ‐ 10°C.
Example TLR valid from 12°C to a POAT of 22°C.
o PQNH: Takeoff report is valid when actual QNH is no less than 0.10 below PQNH.
Example TLR valid at 29.78 and higher. Actual QNH may be above PQNH, but
additional uplift capability may be gained by using an actual QNH that is higher
than PQNH.

23
Q

Where do we reference the engine failure takeoff procedure?

A

In the “Special Eng Fail Takeoff Procedures” section

24
Q

If a turn/heading is denoted in the takeoff data section of the TLR when would you be
required to start the turn if you lost an engine prior to EO acceleration?

A

Standard procedure turns are commenced at 1,000’ AFE, in IMC/VMC conditions.

25
Q

Where do you find “special” engine failure procedures?

A

o Special engine failure procedures are listed after the runway info section.
o Complex‐special procedures are indexed in the company tab on JEPP FD‐PRO or
A‐320 ADPH.
o Simple‐special or complex‐special procedures are required when standard
procedures cannot be used due to obstacle requirements.

26
Q

Do we have to comply with simple‐special procedures? Complex‐special procedures?

A

o Simple‐special: in IMC, until 3,000’ AFE unless assigned a radar vector at a lower
altitude
o Simple‐special: in VMC, until 1,000’ AFE
o Complex‐special: mandatory in IMC and VMC

27
Q

What is the flap setting for a departure from RWY 31L at the planned takeoff weight?

A

Flaps 1

28
Q

ACARS is deferred. If you are issued a runway change can the TLR be used to make the
runway change?

A

Yes (assumes a valid TLR)

29
Q

We are issued a runway change and runway 4R is assigned (calm wind). At a weight of
145.0 what data would be inserted into the MCDU PERF page?

A

o Flaps are set at 3 and flaps 3 is inserted into MCDU PERF page.
o New speeds: 134/134/138
o Flex Temp 57
o Bleeds ON

30
Q

What is TREF?

A

o Lowest assumed temperature for which reduced thrust is allowed
o It is a requirement to reference TREF after any adjustments are made

31
Q

Does performance support a takeoff on runway 13R with a 10kt tailwind?

A

Yes

32
Q

What is the length of runway 19R at IAD?

A

9,400 ft

33
Q

What is the MRLW for RWY 19R with a temperature of 22C? Flaps 3/Full? What is the
limiting factor?

A

o 191.6/189.7

o Climb

34
Q

Minimum landing distance is determined by assessed runway conditions. How is this
information distributed?

A

FICON NOTAM

35
Q

What information is included in the FICON NOTAM?

A

Runway condition code (RCC), contaminant type, depth, and percentage of
coverage

36
Q

How is coverage reported?

A

Provided in 1/3 runway intervals when the runway is more than 25%
contamination level

37
Q

Based on FICON NOTAM DATA how do we determine the impact the conditions will have
on our landing performance?

A

o Reference the runway condition assessment matrix
o Refer to RCAM minimum landing distance in the TLR for planning prior to
departure.
o Enter the field condition and expected braking action into the ATSU or use Inflight
Performance in the QRH when enroute

38
Q

During pre‐flight planning we determine that upon arrival at IAD the expected RCC
values for runway 19R will be 5/6/6 based on the FICON NOTAM. What is the minimum
landing distance required for our planned weight?

A

Use the lowest value (5/good): 5912

39
Q

What is minimum landing distance?

A

Landing distance including a 15% safety margin and an air‐run from a 50’ threshold
crossing height.

40
Q

What landing requirements must be met in order dispatch?

A

o Must be able to land and stop within 60% of the effective length of the runway to
be used.
o An additional 15% is added for a wet runway.

41
Q

It is possible to meet dispatch requirements yet have a minimum landing distance
(based on expected braking action) greater than the landing distance available. Can you
depart?

A

o Dispatch is permitted if:
- There is reasonable expectation that the braking action will improve to the
point that the minimum landing distance required will be less than the landing
distance available at ETA
- The PIC and dispatcher conduct a briefing and agree what braking action will be
required before landing
- A performance alternate is added to the dispatch release

42
Q

What is the requirement to list an airport as a performance alternate?

A

Minimum landing distance must be less than the landing distance available

43
Q

Can we reference the RCAM MIN‐LDG dist in the TLR to determine landing distance?

A

No, it is for planning purposes only.

44
Q

How do we determine minimum landing distance once airborne?

A

o Obtain up to date FICON NOTAM information on ATIS
o With ATSU: Enter field condition, expected braking action, and select thrustreverser
option to obtain minimum required landing distance
o Min required dist on LDG data report includes 15% safety margin and an air run
from 50’ above threshold
o Without ATSU: Use QRH to determine minimum landing distance. Corrected QRH
landing data includes an air‐run but does not include the 15% safety margin. The
15% safety margin must be added

Allegiant A320 Exam Guide (46 decks)

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