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4 Flashcards

1
Q

An autosomal dominant trait where there is 50% penetrance will show about __ of the offspring arising with the similar trait.

A

25%

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2
Q

What are the basic processes underlying all cellular and tissue changes in a disease state?

A

Cellular injury

Inflammation

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3
Q

What does the enzyme superoxidase dismutase enable organisms to do?

A

Protect cells against oxygen free radicals

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4
Q

What substance has the best anti-halitosis effects?

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds, they’re used in many mouth washes for its antiseptic properties.

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5
Q

The fast emergence of new strains of HIV is attributed to what?

A

Frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase. It’s an RNA based retrovirus that used reverse transcriptase to create DNA from RNA. Reverse transcriptase is error-prone and creates many mutations, one of which may cause the virus to be resistant to certain drugs.

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6
Q

What are the two spore forming bacteria you need to know for the boards?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium, spore producing classes of Firmicutes. They are gram +.

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7
Q

Endotoxins are released from where?

A

The outer membrane of gram - bacteria.

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8
Q

What are the features of endotoxin?

A

ENDOTOXIN

  • Endothelial cells
  • Negative (gram -)
  • DIC/Death
  • Outer membrane
  • TNF
  • O - antigen
  • X - trembly heat stable
  • IL - 1
  • Nitric oxide/ Neutrophil chemotaxis

Bind to TLRs, turning on a potentially dangerous cytokine response.

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9
Q

How is penicillin resistance in Neisseria gonnorrhoaeae possible?

A

The production of a plasmid-encoded B-lactamase.

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10
Q

Give an example of an endogenous bacterial infection?

A

Actinomycosis

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11
Q

Instruments that comes in contact with mucous membranes automatically require what after each use?

A

High Level Disinfection

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12
Q

Low level disinfectants are appropriate for what?

A

Noncritical items - stethoscopes, BP cuffs etc.

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13
Q

What can be use as an immersion sterilant?

A

Glutaraldehydes

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14
Q

Oral streptococci are usually what?

A

Alpha-hemolytic (strep. viridans is an example)

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15
Q

The bacterial cell wall component peptidoglycan contains what?

A

N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid

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16
Q

What does an ELISA test bind to when testing a HEP B vaccine?

A

Anti-HBV antibodies

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17
Q

What is a latent infection?

A

One that is hiding waiting for an opportune moment to reemerge.

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18
Q

What is a chronic carrier state?

A

When a host is unaffected by a pathogen but the pathogen grows and is usually able to be spread to others.

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19
Q

Tell me about chlorhexidine.

A

It’s an antiseptic useful against both gram + and gram - bacteria. It is bactericidal and bacteriostatic. It’s the most effective oral antimicrobial because it sticks to the teeth, working long term.

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20
Q

Tell me about triclosan.

A

Has long term action like chlorhexidine, but a bit shorter. Reduces gingivitis, and is antimicrobial during hand washing.

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21
Q

Tell me about sodium lauryl sulfate.

A

Foaming agent in toothpastes. Antimicrobial with the residual long term effects of chlorhexidine and triclosan. May cause gingival sloughing.

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22
Q

Tell me about phenolic and quaternary ammonium compounds.

A

Antimicrobial and anti gingivitis agents. No long term action. Used in mouthwashes.

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23
Q

Tell me about Gram - bacteria.

A
  • Stain red/pink
  • Have a thin peptidoglycan layer
  • Have a periplasmic space. This is the space between the outer and inner cell membranes
  • Contain endotoxin (LPS/LOS) in their outer membrane
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24
Q

Tell me about Gram + bacteria.

A
  • Stain purple/blue
  • Have a thick peptidoglycan layer
  • Lack a periplasmic space
  • Contain teichoic/lipotechoic acids in their cell wall

Gram positive = P’s Purple Peptidoglycan (thick) Positive

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25
Q

Is picornavirus capable of causing cell transformation?

A

No.

26
Q

How do you process semi-critical items?

A

Sterilize or high level disinfectant. (Used in mouth but don’t penetrate the tissues).

27
Q

Tell me about fungi.

A
  • Granuloma formation is a common response by our bodies to fungal infection.
  • Most are aerobic and are adaptable to many environments
  • The majority of fungal pathogens are opportunistic.
28
Q

What two items mix together in an agglutination reaction to determine the serotype of a patient’s infectious agent (used in outbreaks of food-borne disease)?

A
  • Isolated colonies cultured from the patient’s stool specimen.
  • Purified antibodies elicited in animals against specific O-antigens.
29
Q

What streptococcal virulence factor works as a super antigen mediating a host of cytokine-induced effects that can lead to life-threatening disease?

A

Pyrogenic exotoxin, an extracellular toxin secreted by strep. pyogenes and is carried in the bloodstream to other parts of the body.

30
Q

Reverse transcription is what?

A
  • It enables the formation of DNA from an RNA template.
  • It includes a RNA dependent DNA polymerase.
  • Retroviruses use this process and have a single positive RNA in their genome. They use their own RNA dependent DNA polymerase.
31
Q

Tell me about exotoxins.

A

Highly variable.

Don’t bind to TLRs.

32
Q

Epidemic

A

An infection of an unusually large number of individuals in a population at a given time.

33
Q

Pandemic

A

A worldwide infection, often highly contagious. Think of it as a worldwide epidemic.

34
Q

Endemic

A

An infection persistently found at low levels in a specific population.

35
Q

Name an intracellular fungal infection.

A

Histoplasma capsulate (respiratory)

36
Q

What is LPS composed of?

A
  • Lipid A - anchors LPS into position in the bacterial membrane, when it’s detected by the body it causes a potent immune response.
  • O antigen - A repetitive glycan polymer that comprises the outermost part of LPS
  • Oligosaccharide core - An oligosaccharide attached to lipid A.
37
Q

Where do you find large amounts of calcium dipicolinate?

A

In spores. 20% of the dry weight, located in core, stabilizes DNA

38
Q

Tell me about biofilms.

A
  • Bacteria express their genetics differently when in a biofilm
  • Bacteria in a biofilm are better able to resist chemical attack
  • Bacteria in a biofilm are more resistant to our immune response
39
Q

Hybrid virus vaccines that will invade tissue cells and replicate are desirable because . . .

A

They elicit CD8 memory cells capable of recognizing viral peptides displayed on MHC I proteins.

40
Q

What is MHC II recognized by?

A

CD4 cells

41
Q

What are nosocomial infections?

A

They are acquired in a hospital. Many are resistant to antibiotics. Notable types are:

Staph. aureus
MRSA
VRE
Tuberculosis
E. coli
Legionnaire's disease
Candida Albicans
Pseudomonas aeruginosa
UTIs
Hepatitis
Aspergillus
Clostridium difficile
42
Q

Tell me about Herpes zoster.

A
  • Occurs with latent VZV infection
  • Is limited on one side of the body
  • May spread from one or more ganglia and infect the corresponding dermatomes causing a painful rash
  • Usually clears up in 2 to 4 weeks
  • Rarely returns
43
Q

What are plasmids?

A

Plasmids are small, circular, double-stranded DNA which emerge from any bacterial strains.

Plasmids often carry antibiotics resistance genes that can be spread to other organisms, thereby preventing the efficacy of some treatments.

44
Q

What are labile cells?

A

They regenerate constantly, they include epithelial cells (skin), mucosal cells, oral cavity, vagina, and hematopoietic cells

45
Q

What are stable cells?

A

They do not regenerate without an irritating factor. They include vascular endothelium , smooth muscle, and the liver/pancreas/kidney.

46
Q

What are permanent cells?

A

They do not replicate. They include skeletal muscles, the heart, and neurons.

47
Q

What is herd immunity?

A

When enough of the pop. has elicited memory cells.

48
Q

What bacteria cause the majority of human diseases?

A

Gram +

49
Q

What process does corynebacterium diptheriae need to produce exotoxins?

A

Lysogenic conversion. by a beta phage. The toxin gene is encoded by a bacteriophage.

50
Q

What is transformation?

A

A genetic exchange between the strains of bacteria by the transfer or incorporation of free DNA from another ruptured bacterial cell.

51
Q

Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is indicative of what?

A

Viral Pneumonia

52
Q

What abx and toxins inhibit translation?

A 
Aminoglycoside abx (like streptomycin)
Diphtheria toxin
53
Q

What is the problem with TB today?

A

Abe therapy often has to continue for months or years in order to effect a cure

54
Q

How does Hep B work?

A

It releases massive quantities of decoy structures composed of viral surface antigens that tie up antibodies, preventing effective neutralization of infectious DNA particles.

55
Q

Where is strep progenes’s normal reservoir?

A

Human upper respiratory tract

56
Q

What pathogens cause meningitis?

A

Neisseria meningitis
Strep. pneumoniae
coxsackievirus
echovirus

57
Q

What causes croup?

A

Parainfluenza viruses and C. diptheria bacteria

58
Q

What does elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus indicate?

A

Hyperparathyroidism

59
Q

What do you treat R. rickettsii with?

A

Doxycycline (tick bite)

60
Q

What does West Nile virus cause?

A

Encephalitis in the elderly

61
Q

What kind of virus might cause an outbreak of acute reparatory disease in a population of military recruits?

A

Adenovirus.

62
Q

Is viral meningitis serious?

A

No.

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