4 Flashcards

1
Q

An autosomal dominant trait where there is 50% penetrance will show about __ of the offspring arising with the similar trait.

A

25%

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2
Q

What are the basic processes underlying all cellular and tissue changes in a disease state?

A

Cellular injury

Inflammation

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3
Q

What does the enzyme superoxidase dismutase enable organisms to do?

A

Protect cells against oxygen free radicals

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4
Q

What substance has the best anti-halitosis effects?

A

Quaternary ammonium compounds, they’re used in many mouth washes for its antiseptic properties.

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5
Q

The fast emergence of new strains of HIV is attributed to what?

A

Frequent errors introduced by viral reverse transcriptase. It’s an RNA based retrovirus that used reverse transcriptase to create DNA from RNA. Reverse transcriptase is error-prone and creates many mutations, one of which may cause the virus to be resistant to certain drugs.

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6
Q

What are the two spore forming bacteria you need to know for the boards?

A

Bacillus and Clostridium, spore producing classes of Firmicutes. They are gram +.

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7
Q

Endotoxins are released from where?

A

The outer membrane of gram - bacteria.

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8
Q

What are the features of endotoxin?

A

ENDOTOXIN

  • Endothelial cells
  • Negative (gram -)
  • DIC/Death
  • Outer membrane
  • TNF
  • O - antigen
  • X - trembly heat stable
  • IL - 1
  • Nitric oxide/ Neutrophil chemotaxis

Bind to TLRs, turning on a potentially dangerous cytokine response.

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9
Q

How is penicillin resistance in Neisseria gonnorrhoaeae possible?

A

The production of a plasmid-encoded B-lactamase.

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10
Q

Give an example of an endogenous bacterial infection?

A

Actinomycosis

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11
Q

Instruments that comes in contact with mucous membranes automatically require what after each use?

A

High Level Disinfection

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12
Q

Low level disinfectants are appropriate for what?

A

Noncritical items - stethoscopes, BP cuffs etc.

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13
Q

What can be use as an immersion sterilant?

A

Glutaraldehydes

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14
Q

Oral streptococci are usually what?

A

Alpha-hemolytic (strep. viridans is an example)

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15
Q

The bacterial cell wall component peptidoglycan contains what?

A

N-acetylglucosamine and N-acetylmuramic acid

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16
Q

What does an ELISA test bind to when testing a HEP B vaccine?

A

Anti-HBV antibodies

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17
Q

What is a latent infection?

A

One that is hiding waiting for an opportune moment to reemerge.

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18
Q

What is a chronic carrier state?

A

When a host is unaffected by a pathogen but the pathogen grows and is usually able to be spread to others.

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19
Q

Tell me about chlorhexidine.

A

It’s an antiseptic useful against both gram + and gram - bacteria. It is bactericidal and bacteriostatic. It’s the most effective oral antimicrobial because it sticks to the teeth, working long term.

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20
Q

Tell me about triclosan.

A

Has long term action like chlorhexidine, but a bit shorter. Reduces gingivitis, and is antimicrobial during hand washing.

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21
Q

Tell me about sodium lauryl sulfate.

A

Foaming agent in toothpastes. Antimicrobial with the residual long term effects of chlorhexidine and triclosan. May cause gingival sloughing.

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22
Q

Tell me about phenolic and quaternary ammonium compounds.

A

Antimicrobial and anti gingivitis agents. No long term action. Used in mouthwashes.

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23
Q

Tell me about Gram - bacteria.

A
  • Stain red/pink
  • Have a thin peptidoglycan layer
  • Have a periplasmic space. This is the space between the outer and inner cell membranes
  • Contain endotoxin (LPS/LOS) in their outer membrane
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24
Q

Tell me about Gram + bacteria.

A
  • Stain purple/blue
  • Have a thick peptidoglycan layer
  • Lack a periplasmic space
  • Contain teichoic/lipotechoic acids in their cell wall

Gram positive = P’s Purple Peptidoglycan (thick) Positive

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25
Is picornavirus capable of causing cell transformation?
No.
26
How do you process semi-critical items?
Sterilize or high level disinfectant. (Used in mouth but don't penetrate the tissues).
27
Tell me about fungi.
- Granuloma formation is a common response by our bodies to fungal infection. - Most are aerobic and are adaptable to many environments - The majority of fungal pathogens are opportunistic.
28
What two items mix together in an agglutination reaction to determine the serotype of a patient's infectious agent (used in outbreaks of food-borne disease)?
- Isolated colonies cultured from the patient's stool specimen. - Purified antibodies elicited in animals against specific O-antigens.
29
What streptococcal virulence factor works as a super antigen mediating a host of cytokine-induced effects that can lead to life-threatening disease?
Pyrogenic exotoxin, an extracellular toxin secreted by strep. pyogenes and is carried in the bloodstream to other parts of the body.
30
Reverse transcription is what?
- It enables the formation of DNA from an RNA template. - It includes a RNA dependent DNA polymerase. - Retroviruses use this process and have a single positive RNA in their genome. They use their own RNA dependent DNA polymerase.
31
Tell me about exotoxins.
Highly variable. | Don't bind to TLRs.
32
Epidemic
An infection of an unusually large number of individuals in a population at a given time.
33
Pandemic
A worldwide infection, often highly contagious. Think of it as a worldwide epidemic.
34
Endemic
An infection persistently found at low levels in a specific population.
35
Name an intracellular fungal infection.
Histoplasma capsulate (respiratory)
36
What is LPS composed of?
- Lipid A - anchors LPS into position in the bacterial membrane, when it's detected by the body it causes a potent immune response. - O antigen - A repetitive glycan polymer that comprises the outermost part of LPS - Oligosaccharide core - An oligosaccharide attached to lipid A.
37
Where do you find large amounts of calcium dipicolinate?
In spores. 20% of the dry weight, located in core, stabilizes DNA
38
Tell me about biofilms.
- Bacteria express their genetics differently when in a biofilm - Bacteria in a biofilm are better able to resist chemical attack - Bacteria in a biofilm are more resistant to our immune response
39
Hybrid virus vaccines that will invade tissue cells and replicate are desirable because . . .
They elicit CD8 memory cells capable of recognizing viral peptides displayed on MHC I proteins.
40
What is MHC II recognized by?
CD4 cells
41
What are nosocomial infections?
They are acquired in a hospital. Many are resistant to antibiotics. Notable types are: ``` Staph. aureus MRSA VRE Tuberculosis E. coli Legionnaire's disease Candida Albicans Pseudomonas aeruginosa UTIs Hepatitis Aspergillus Clostridium difficile ```
42
Tell me about Herpes zoster.
- Occurs with latent VZV infection - Is limited on one side of the body - May spread from one or more ganglia and infect the corresponding dermatomes causing a painful rash - Usually clears up in 2 to 4 weeks - Rarely returns
43
What are plasmids?
Plasmids are small, circular, double-stranded DNA which emerge from any bacterial strains. Plasmids often carry antibiotics resistance genes that can be spread to other organisms, thereby preventing the efficacy of some treatments.
44
What are labile cells?
They regenerate constantly, they include epithelial cells (skin), mucosal cells, oral cavity, vagina, and hematopoietic cells
45
What are stable cells?
They do not regenerate without an irritating factor. They include vascular endothelium , smooth muscle, and the liver/pancreas/kidney.
46
What are permanent cells?
They do not replicate. They include skeletal muscles, the heart, and neurons.
47
What is herd immunity?
When enough of the pop. has elicited memory cells.
48
What bacteria cause the majority of human diseases?
Gram +
49
What process does corynebacterium diptheriae need to produce exotoxins?
Lysogenic conversion. by a beta phage. The toxin gene is encoded by a bacteriophage.
50
What is transformation?
A genetic exchange between the strains of bacteria by the transfer or incorporation of free DNA from another ruptured bacterial cell.
51
Interstitial pulmonary inflammation is indicative of what?
Viral Pneumonia
52
What abx and toxins inhibit translation?
``` Aminoglycoside abx (like streptomycin) Diphtheria toxin ```
53
What is the problem with TB today?
Abe therapy often has to continue for months or years in order to effect a cure
54
How does Hep B work?
It releases massive quantities of decoy structures composed of viral surface antigens that tie up antibodies, preventing effective neutralization of infectious DNA particles.
55
Where is strep progenes's normal reservoir?
Human upper respiratory tract
56
What pathogens cause meningitis?
Neisseria meningitis Strep. pneumoniae coxsackievirus echovirus
57
What causes croup?
Parainfluenza viruses and C. diptheria bacteria
58
What does elevated serum calcium and decreased serum phosphorus indicate?
Hyperparathyroidism
59
What do you treat R. rickettsii with?
Doxycycline (tick bite)
60
What does West Nile virus cause?
Encephalitis in the elderly
61
What kind of virus might cause an outbreak of acute reparatory disease in a population of military recruits?
Adenovirus.
62
Is viral meningitis serious?
No.