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Question 1

After calling “STOP”, what are the next actions in event of an RTO?

◦ A. THR IDLE : Select G.D. SPOILERS FULL : REV MAX.
◦ B. REV MAX : foot braking max. pedal deflection.
◦ C. REV MAX : if all DECEL lights not illuminated, foot braking max.
◦ D. REVERSE THR. MAX : if brake response not appropriate for runway conditions, FULL MAN
braking applied and maintained.

Answer 1

D. REVERSE THR. MAX : if brake response not appropriate for runway conditions, FULL MAN
braking applied and maintained.

Question 2

When airborne, what are the initial actions after selecting TOGA following a “WINDSHEAR” warning?

◦ A. Follow FD pitch demand.
◦ B. Sidestick fully aft : raise gear, (if down).
◦ C. Follow FD and raise Slats / Flaps if above S speed / F speed respectfully.
◦ D. Sidestick fully aft : maintain config. until clear of windshear

Answer 2

A. Follow FD pitch demand.

Question 3

What are the lowest minima for a CAT II Auto-land?

A. DH 100 ft & RVR 500 m.
B. DH 121 ft & RVR 400 m.
C. DH 141 ft & RVR 450 m.
D. DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m

Answer 3

D. DH 100 ft & RVR 300 m

Question 4

What are the minimum visual refs required at DH for CAT IIIa approach?

◦ A. Five consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights.
◦ B. Three consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights.
◦ C. Any combination of two centre line / runway edge / TDZ lights.
◦ D. One centre line or touch down zone light.

Answer 4

B. Three consecutive centre line lights or TDZ lights.

Question 5

After clearing the runway, you are clear of the “sensitive” area when :

◦ A. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become green only.
◦ B. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become blue.
◦ C. You pass a red stop bar.
◦ D. You pass the normal holding point.

Answer 5

A. The green / yellow alternating centreline lights become green only.

Question 6

What is the optimum flap setting to use for landing?

◦ A. Maximum - in order to reduce the approach speed.
◦ B. Maximum - in order to increase the visual segment.
◦ C. Minimum - in order to increase the visual segment.
◦ D. Minimum - in order to improve forward vision.

Answer 6

B. Maximum - in order to increase the visual segment.

Question 7

During taxi you observe flashing yellow lights each side of the taxiway.

◦ A. You are about to enter an active runway.
◦ B. You must stop and ask ATC for instructions.
◦ C. You are approaching a taxiway intersection.
◦ D. You have reached the CAT III Holding Point.

Answer 7

A. You are about to enter an active runway.

Question 8

You commence an approach with RVR above minima and inside the FAF/OM ATC report an RVR below
minima. What is the correct action?

◦ A. Make an immediate Go-around.
◦ B. Continue to descend to Alert Height.
◦ C. Continue to CAT I DH and then decide whether to go-around.
◦ D. Continue to DH and go-around if visual reference is not established

Answer 8

D. Continue to DH and go-around if visual reference is not established

Question 9

Runway centre lighting is …

◦ A. White until 900m remaining, red and white until 300m and then red.
◦ B. White for the first 900m, red and white until 600m remains, then red.
◦ C. White until 300m remains, then red.
◦ D. White until 900m remains, then red and white until the runway ends.

Answer 9

A. White until 900m remaining, red and white until 300m and then red.

Question 10

In a fail-operational flight control system, following a failure of any component on final approach, which is
true?

◦ A. An immediate go-around must be executed.
◦ B. The crew should reset the DH to 100feet above the normal DH.
◦ C. Below alert altitude a manual lading can be executed (if visual).
◦ D. Below alert height, the aircraft will execute an auto-land.

Answer 10

D. Below alert height, the aircraft will execute an auto-land.

Question 11

What are the authorised lowest minima for a CAT IIIa Approach?

◦ A. DH 100 ft & RVR 200m.
◦ B. DH 100 ft & RVR 100m.
◦ C. DH 50 ft & RVR 200m.
◦ D. DH 50 ft & RVR 100m.

Answer 11

C. DH 50 ft & RVR 200m.

Question 12

. For CAT III operations with no DH what are the minimum visual references?

◦ A. At least one centre line and one edge light each side should be visible.
◦ B. There is no requirement for visual contact with the runway.
◦ C. Either three centre line lights (assuming 15m spacing).
◦ D. Two centre line lights (assuming 30m spacing).

Answer 12

B. There is no requirement for visual contact with the runway.

Question 13

TDZ RVR not available, but crew assessment is. When is take-off allowed?

◦ A. Take-off is not allowed.
◦ B. Take-off is allowed only if the Mid Point RVR is in limits.
◦ C. Take-off is allowed if the Mid Point RVR or Stop End RVR is in limits.
◦ D. When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR’s are in limits.

Answer 13

D. When Mid Point and the Stop End RVR’s are in limits.

Question 14

How is the optimum touchdown point marked on the runway?

◦ A. Red barrettes.
◦ B. Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface.
◦ C. Yellow edge lights.
◦ D. Green centreline lights.

Answer 14

B. Large white painted rectangles on the runway surface.

Question 15

What are the restrictions on ATC reports to an aircraft on finals?

◦ A. Inside the O.M. - radio silence.
◦ B. Inside the O.M. - RVR reports only.
◦ C. Less than 3nm to touchdown - ILS failures only.
◦ D. Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence.

Answer 15

D. Less than 1nm to touchdown - radio silence.

Question 16

Clearing the runway, you are clear of the “obstacle-free” zone when …

◦ A. You pass the normal holding point.
◦ B. You pass a double yellow bar on the taxiway.
◦ C. You pass a special notice identifying the edge of the obstacle-free zone.
◦ D. You pass yellow flashing lights (each side of the taxiway).

Answer 16

A. You pass the normal holding point.

Question 17

The weather is above CAT I limits, but ATC report LVP’s are in force. Which of the following statements is
true?

◦ A. You may carry out a CAT I approach unrestricted.
◦ B. You must follow Low Visibility Procedures.
◦ C. You may carry out a CAT I approach if you advise ATC.
◦ D. You may carry out a CAT I approach only if authorised by ATC.

Answer 17

B. You must follow Low Visibility Procedures.

Question 18

In a fail-passive flight control system, following a failure of any component, which of the following
statements is true?

◦ A. The pilot need not take any action.
◦ B. The aircraft may be out of trim nose-up but the pilot can control it.
◦ C. There is no significant out of trim condition or flight path deviation and the pilot can monitor the
approach provided no other failures occur.
◦ D. There is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path, but the pilot must fly
the aircraft manually after the failure.

Answer 18

There is no significant out of trim condition or deviation of flight path, but the pilot must fly
the aircraft manually after the failure.

Question 19

. If the ECAM Upper DU fails, how can an SD/Status page be displayed?

◦ A. On the Captain’s left EFIS using the EIS DMC SWITCHING panel an the ECAM Control Panel.
◦ B. On the lower ECAM DU by a momentary press on the associated ECAM Control Panel push-button
switch.
◦ C. On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated ECAM Control Panel
push-button switch.
◦ D. By use of the RECALL push-button switch on the ECAM Control Panel.

Answer 19

C. On the lower ECAM DU by pressing and holding down the associated ECAM Control Panel
push-button switch.

Question 20

On the E/WD, when does magenta LDG INHIBIT appear automatically?

◦ A. Below 800 feet radio altitude.
◦ B. Below 2000 feet radio altitude.
◦ C. With selection of FLAP2 on the approach.
◦ D. With selection of GEAR DOWN

Answer 20

A. Below 800 feet radio altitude.

Question 21

“Pressing the ECAM control panel RCL push-button switch …

◦ A. … displays the STATUS page on the lower ECAM.”
◦ B. … continuously scrolls through all the System Displays.”
◦ C. … for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED CAUTIONS.”
◦ D. … displays the LANDING MEMO on the E.W.D.”

Answer 21

C. … for more than 3 seconds, will recall any CANCELLED CAUTIONS.”

Question 22

On the SYSTEM DISPLAY, what has occurred if the ELECTRICS page appears automatically with no other
caution or warning indications?

◦ A. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be pulsing.
◦ B. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be amber.
◦ C. An INDEPENDENT failure has occurred.
◦ D. A PRIMARY failure has occurred.

Answer 22

A. An ADVISORY has occurred; the drifting parameter will be pulsing.

Question 23

What happens if EMER CANC button on the ECAM control panel is pressed?

◦ A. EWD Red Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D.
◦ B. EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D.
◦ C. Aural Warnings are inhibited for the remainder of the flight.
◦ D. If pressed for more than 3 seconds, cautions will be suppressed.

Answer 23

B. EWD Amber Warnings are transferred to the STS S.D.

Question 24

Regarding ECAM, which of the following statements is true?

◦ A. Amber messages on EWD are always accompanied by Master Cautions.
◦ B. Master Cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on EWD.
◦ C. Primary failures are identified by a star () against them.
◦ D. Independent failures are identified by a star () against them.

Answer 24

B. Master Cautions are always accompanied by amber messages on EWD.

Question 25

What happens when the gear is selected down on the approach?

◦ A. The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display.
◦ B. The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display.
◦ C. The STS page appears on the LOWER ECAM display if there is a malfunction showing on the STS page.
◦ D. The WHEEL button on the ECAM control panel illuminates.

Answer 25

A. The WHEEL S.D. appears on the LOWER ECAM display.

Question 26

Where can you see metric altitude?

◦ A. EWD
◦ B. SD
◦ C. PFD
◦ D. ND

Answer 26

C. PFD

Question 27

The Captain’s left EFIS has failed, so what must be done to display the PFD?

◦ A. Push the button on the Captain’s panel (outboard of the EFIS screens).
◦ B. Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen.
◦ C. Using the ECAM/ND SWITCHING PANEL switch.
◦ D. Nothing. It cannot be displayed on the Captain’s right EFIS

Answer 27

B. Nothing. The PFD will automatically go to the right EFIS screen.

Question 28

On the ECAM E/WD, when does the “TO INHIBIT” memo disappear automatically after take-off?

◦ A. 800 ft.
◦ B. 2000 ft. Radio Altitude.
◦ C. On flap retraction.
◦ D. 1500 ft. or 2 minutes after lift off.

Answer 28

D. 1500 ft. or 2 minutes after lift off.

Question 29

How are the secondary failures identified?

◦ A. They are in amber on the STS page.
◦ B. They are displayed on the bottom left of the EWD.
◦ C. They are in white at the bottom left of the STS page.
◦ D. They have a star (*) against them.

Answer 29

D. They have a star (*) against them.

Question 30

. What does the green arrow on the EWD at bottom centre signify?

◦ A. Refer to the S.D. for more information.
◦ B. There is more information. To access it, press the CLR button.
◦ C. There is more information. To access it, press the STS button.
◦ D. You should press the emergency cancel button.

Answer 30

B. There is more information. To access it, press the CLR button.

Question 31

How can cancelled cautions be returned to the system?

◦ A. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel).
◦ B. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel) for more than 3 secs.
◦ C. Press the ALL button for more than 3 secs.
◦ D. Press the CLR button 3 times.

Answer 31

B. Press the RCL button (on the ECAM control panel) for more than 3 secs.

Question 32

To review the procedure at the end of ECAM, what should you do?

◦ A. Press the RCL button for less than three seconds.
◦ B. Press the RCL button for more than three seconds.
◦ C. Press the CLR button.
◦ D. Press the STS button.

Answer 32

A. Press the RCL button for less than three seconds.

Question 33

. If the upper ECAM screen fails, how can you view the WHEEL S.D.?

◦ A. Select the DMC switch to CAPT 3, then press the WHEEL button.
◦ B. Scroll through the systems using the ALL button.
◦ C. Push and hold the WHEEL button.
◦ D. Push the WHEEL button momentarily to display the SD for 30 secs

Answer 33

C. Push and hold the WHEEL button.

Question 34

What SD is displayed during the T/O roll?

◦ A. Cruise.
◦ B. Wheel.
◦ C. Engine.
◦ D. Flight Controls.

Answer 34

C. Engine.

Question 35

During an approach, in managed speed, the speed bug automatically goes to a speed higher than Vᴀᴘᴘ
indicated on the MCDU PERF page. Why?

◦ A. The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a smaller headwind component than that entered in the PERF page.
◦ B. The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF
page.
◦ C. The flaps are not in the configuration sown on the MCDU PERF page.
◦ D. A sudden tailwind component has been encountered

Answer 35

B. The “local” (IRS) wind is giving a larger headwind component than that entered in the PERF
page.

Question 36

What will the FMA (lateral) immediately show in the event of a Go-Around?

◦ A. G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power).
◦ B. G/A TRK (The initial track of the G/A procedure).
◦ C. NAV (Managed navigation for the go-around).
◦ D. RWY HDG (The runway heading).

Answer 36

A. G/A TRK (The actual track at the time of selecting TOGA power).

Question 37

Minimum fuel for takeoff

-

Answer 37

1,500kg and no WING TK LO LVL

ecam msg

Question 38

Maximum altitude for flap/slat

-

Answer 38

20,000 feet

Question 39

When will you get “check GW”

Answer 39

-If the GW FM computed and FAC computed differs from a given threshold, a “CHECK GW” message appears on the MCDU scratchpad. Difference of 7 tons

Question 40

When APU may be started?

Answer 40

• Up to 41,000ft with normal flight envelop

Question 41

Maximum EGT for engine start

Answer 41

• 725 deg C

Question 42

Where is unpressurized except ?

Answer 42

• In the aircraft, passenger compartment, cockpit, cargo compartments and avionic bay are pressurized.

Question 43

On the ILS, which altitude you will get data lock?

Answer 43

DATA LOCK When the aircraft reaches 700 ft RA with APPR mode (LOC and G/S) armed or engaged, the ILS FREQ and course are frozen in the receiver. This function (ILS tune inhibit) is available, when at least one AP/FD is engaged. Any attempt to change the ILS frequency or CRS, via the MCDU or RMP, does not affect the receiver. If the speed is managed, the system does not accept any modifications the pilot may enter on the PERF APPR page (surface wind, selected landing configuration, or VAPP) for speed guidance purposes below this altitude. When the aircraft reaches 400 ft RA, LAND mode engages. The flight crew can only disengage this mode by engaging the GO AROUND mode.

Question 44

When you get a single pack operation, your pack flow will be?

Answer 44

high to compensate for demand

Question 45

APU start cycle

Answer 45

• 3 start cycles, cool down for 60mins after 3rd start attempt.

Question 46

What is the definition of tilt angle for radar? Angle between where and where

Answer 46

TILT Tilt refers to the angle between the antenna and the horizon. The radar uses IRS data to stabilize its antenna. As a consequence, antenna tilt is independent from the aircraft’s pitch and bank angles.

Question 47

RMP1 is dedicated to what?

Answer 47

• In aircraft equipped with two RMPs, normally RMP1 tunes VHF1, VHF 3 and HF1.

Question 48

RMP2 tunes VHF2 and HF2.

Answer 48

• If the third optional RMP is installed, normally RMP1 tunes VHF1, RMP2 tunes VHF2, and RMP3 tunes VHF3 and HF systems.

Question 49

When the RAT is extended automatically?

Answer 49

• Note that the ram air turbine extends automatically when AC BUS 1 and AC BUS 2 are lost.

Question 50

What kind of data does ADR obtain?

Answer 50

• The Air Data Reference (ADR) system provides airspeed, mach, angle of attack, temperature, barometric altitude data, and overspeed warnings.