1

Question 1

Which lights go off when the gear is retracted

◦ A. Nose and Turn Off
◦ B. Turn Off and Wing
◦ C. Nose and Land
◦ D. Logo and Land

Answer 1

A. Nose and Turn Off

Question 2

Which colour code is correct for push button switches?

◦ A. AMBER - immediate action : BLUE - temporary operation
◦ B. GREEN - temporary operation : WHITE - abnormal position
◦ C. WHITE - temporary operation : GREEN - normal operation
◦ D. RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS “not used” part of switch

Answer 2

D. RED - immediate action : 2 DOTS “not used” part of switch

Question 3

“Below the passenger door window is a red CABIN PRESSURE light which …

◦ A. … flashes if there is residual cabin pressure.”
◦ B. … is illuminated whenever the cabin pressure is greater than 2.5 mb.”
◦ C. … flashes with residual pressure and slides armed.”
◦ D. … cannot be seen from outside the aircraft.”

Answer 3

A. … flashes if there is residual cabin pressure.”

Question 4

“Set on LO, the actual pack flow may be …

◦ A. … HI due to APU bleed supplying.”
◦ B. … NORM due to APU bleed supplying.”
◦ C. … HI due to air conditioning temperature demands.”
◦ D. … NORM or HI due to single ack operation.”

Answer 4

A. … HI due to APU bleed supplying.”

Question 5

“The MAN V/S CTL switch is …

◦ A. …operative at all times, and it controls the outflow valve.”
◦ B. … operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve.”
◦ C. … operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the safety valve.”
◦ D. … inoperative if the DITCHING switch is ON.”

Answer 5

B. … operative in the MAN pressurisation mode: - hold up to OPEN the outflow valve.”

Question 6

What is displayed on the COND S.D. if the primary channel of the Zone Controller has failed?

◦ A. “ALTN MODE”
◦ B. “PACK REG”
◦ C. Double crosses ( XX )
◦ D. “TRIM AIR VALVE FAULT”

Answer 6

A. “ALTN MODE”

Question 7

What are the Fan Air Valve and pre-cooler used for?

◦ A. Initial cooling of air after entering the pack.
◦ B. Cooling H.P. air only.
◦ C. Cooling bleed air in accordance with pack demands.
◦ D. Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.

Answer 7

D. Cooling bleed air to a maximum of 200℃.

Question 8

The Trim Air Valves:

◦ A. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.
◦ B. Adjusts temperature by adding cold air.
◦ C. Mix fresh air from the packs with recirculated cabin air.
◦ D. Regulate pack flow depending on number of passengers.

Answer 8

A. Are electrically controlled by the zone controller.

Question 9

With the PACK FLOW selector to NORM, what will the actual flow be?

◦ A. LO or NORM or HI.
◦ B. Always NORM.
◦ C. NORM or HI.
◦ D. NORM or LO

Answer 9

◦ C. NORM or HI.

Question 10

The Avionics Vent System has two “conditions” - GROUND and FLIGHT.
When does the transition from GROUND to FLIGHT occur?

◦ A. After second engine start.
◦ B. At lift-off.
◦ C. At 100 kts. on the take-off roll.
◦ D. When the thrust is set for take-off

Answer 10

D. When the thrust is set for take-off

Question 11

Regarding the A/THR indications on the FMA, which is true?

◦ A. ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]
◦ B. ATHR in white - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]
◦ C. ATHR in blue - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is limited by TLA) ]
◦ D. ATHR in white - [ ACTIVE (actual thrust is always less than TLA) ]

Answer 11

A. ATHR in blue - [ ARMED (actual thrust = TLA) ]

Question 12

When can both Autopilots be engaged at the same time?

◦ A. After the APPROACH PHASE is activated on the MCDU.
◦ B. After APPR is armed on the FCU.
◦ C. After LOC capture.
◦ D. After G/S capture

Answer 12

B. After APPR is armed on the FCU.

Question 13

The APU has been switched off, but it has not stopped . Why is this?

◦ A. The APU Fuel Pump continuing to run.
◦ B. The Air Intake Flap failing to close.
◦ C. A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.
◦ D. A cooling period (following use of APU Bleed).

Answer 13

C. A cooling period, which occurs on all APU shutdowns.

Question 14

“The APU may be started …

◦ A. … at or below 35,000 feet only.”
◦ B. … at or below 25,000 feet only.”
◦ C. … at or below 300 knots only.”
◦ D. …throughout the normal flight envelope.”

Answer 14

◦ D. …throughout the normal flight envelope.”

Question 15

What happens when the APU MASTER switch is selected to on?

◦ A. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages immediately
◦ B. The APU Intake Flap opens and the starter motor engages when the flap is fully open.
◦ C. The APU Fuel Pump will operate.
◦ D. The APU Intake Flap opens.

Answer 15

D. The APU Intake Flap opens.

Question 16

What does the AVAIL light on the START switch indicate?

◦ A. APU starter disengagement.
◦ B. APU electrical power can be used.
◦ C. N speed greater than 75%
◦ D. ECB power-up check is satisfactory.

Answer 16

B. APU electrical power can be used.

Question 17

When does the APU starter engage?

◦ A. When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.
◦ B. When the Oil Pressure reaches 7 p.s.i.
◦ C. When the MASTER SW is pressed on.
◦ D. When the START SW is pressed on.

Answer 17

A. When the FLAP is fully open and the start switch is pressed on.

Question 18

On the overhead, when should AUDIO SWITCHING be selected to CAPT 3?

◦ A. The Captain is using RMP tuning of the NAVAIDS.
◦ B. The Captain’s ACP has failed.
◦ C. The Captain’s loudspeaker has failed.
◦ D. Both RMPs have failed.

Answer 18

B. The Captain’s ACP has failed.

Question 19

For the ACP, which is true?

◦ A. The PA TRANSMISSION key operates like other transmission keys.
◦ B. The ON VOICE key enables audio to be heard on the loudspeakers.
◦ C. The RESET key transfers associated ACP (1 or 2) operation to ACP3
◦ D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

Answer 19

D. The RESET key cancels all CALL lights.

Question 20

On the ACP, what does an amber light on a Transmission Key indicate?

◦ A. Failure of the associated transmitter.
◦ B. Failure of the associated transmitter and receiver.
◦ C. SELCAL operation only.
◦ D. SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

Answer 20

D. SELCAL operation or a call from maintenance or the cabin.

Question 21

What are the correct actions if RMP 1 fails?

◦ A. Switch it off : use ACP 2
◦ B. Switch it off : use RMP 3 only.
◦ C. Switch it off : use RMP 3 or RMP 2.
◦ D. Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)

Answer 21

D. Use the AUDIO SWITCHING switch (on the overhead panel)

Question 22

Which is true of the AC ESS Bus in the event of an AC BUS 1 FAULT?

◦ A. It cannot be powered.
◦ B. It can be powered from AC BUS 2, if so selected.
◦ C. It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2.
◦ D. It will be powered by the emergency generator.

Answer 22

C. It will be powered automatically from AC BUS 2

Question 23

What is the effect of selecting the GEN1 LINE to OFF?

◦ A. Fuel pump operation is transferred to AC ESS BUS.
◦ B. GEN 1 is fed directly onto the AC ESS BUS.
◦ C. GEN 1 is de-energised
D. GEN 1 is line contactor opens.

Answer 23

C. GEN 1 is de-energised

Question 24

What happens if, in flight, with the hydraulic Blue System inoperative (fluid loss), the MAN ON switch (on
the EMER ELEC PWR panel) is pressed?

◦ A. The Emergency Generator will be driven by the Blue Hydraulic System.
◦ B. The Emergency Generator will be driven directly by the RAT.
◦ C. The RAT will not deploy.
◦ D. The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

Answer 24

D. The RAT will extend, but the Emergency Generator will not operate.

Question 25

The aircraft is on the chocks. All sources (Engine, APU and External Power) are ON. Which of the following
is true?

◦ A. The External Power is supplying the network.
◦ B. If the Engines are shut down, the APU will supply the network.
◦ C. If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.
◦ D. If the APU is shut down, the External Power will supply the network.

Answer 25

◦ C. If the Engines are shut down, External Power will supply the network.

Question 26

Which conditions will cause the Cabin Signs and Lighting to illuminate?

◦ A. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING
switch positions.
◦ B. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM or ON.
◦ C. Above 10,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, provided the EMERGENCY EXIT light switch is at ARM.
◦ D. If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet

Answer 26

A. Above 11,000 feet (approx.) cabin altitude, regardless of the SEAT BELTS and NO SMOKING
switch positions.

Question 27

What is the duration of the Passenger Oxygen supply?

◦ A. Between 15 and 20 minutes, depending on cabin altitude.
◦ B. 20 minutes.
◦ C. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.
◦ D. 15 minutes after oxygen compartment door activation.

Answer 27

C. 15 minutes after the mask is pulled towards the passenger seat.

Question 28

If, on opening a door with the slide armed, the slide does not auto-inflate, what are the correct actions?

◦ A. Close the door and use another exit.
◦ B. Manually open the Air Valve.
◦ C. Recycle the Door Control Handle.
◦ D. Recycle the Slide Arming lever.

Answer 28

B. Manually open the Air Valve.

Question 29

What will trigger a fire warning?

◦ A. Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (Engine).
◦ B. Loops A and B failure within 7 seconds of each other (APU).
◦ C. Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).
◦ D. Fire detection by Loops A or B (Engine).

Answer 29

C. Fire detection by Loops A and B together (Engine).

Question 30

Following an engine fire, when will AGENT pushbutton lights illuminate?

◦ A. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when squib has fired.
◦ B. SQUIB when squib has failed; DISCH when squib has fired.
◦ C. SQUIB as soon as the fire is detected.
◦ D. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised.

Answer 30

D. SQUIB when FIRE switch is pushed; DISCH when extinguisher bottle is depressurised.

Question 31

What are the pitch and roll limits in Normal Law, clean configuration?

◦ A. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
◦ B. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 10°, Roll : 67°
◦ C. Pitch + 25° (+ 20° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°
◦ D. Pitch ± 30°. Roll 45°

Answer 31

A. Pitch + 30° (+ 25° at low speed), - 15°, Roll : 67°

Question 32

What does the sidestick control between neutral and full aft in alpha prot?

◦ A. Alpha.
◦ B. Altitude.
◦ C. Airspeed.
◦ D. G.

Answer 32

A. Alpha.

Question 33

. In Alternate Law, how do indications change on the speed scale?

◦ A. Alpha protection is replaced by an extended Vʟ.
◦ B. There are no changes : it is possible to stall the aircraft.
◦ C. V ᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replacesVʟ.
◦ D. V ᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft

Answer 33

D. V ᴛᴀʟʟ WARNING replaces Alpha prot : it is possible to stall the aircraft

Question 34

What happens in the event of SFCC 1total failure?

◦ A. SLATS will be inoperative.
◦ B. FLAPS will be inoperative.
◦ C. SLATS and FLAPS will be locked by the Wing Tip Brake.
◦ D. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed.

Answer 34

D. SLATS and FLAPS will operate at half speed

Question 35

When will MECH BACK-UP occur?

◦ A. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder.
◦ B. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with elevator & rudder.
◦ C. Loss of G and Y hydraulics : aircraft control with stab and rudder.
◦ D. Loss of all hydraulics.

Answer 35

A. Loss of all FCCs and aircraft control with stab & rudder.

Question 36

What does a SPEED BRK

◦ A. In green - normal operation. In amber, speedbrake auto-retraction.
◦ B. In green - speedbrakes are extended. In amber when the speedbrakes should be retracted.
◦ C. In amber - partial or total speedbrake failure.
◦ D. Extension of speedbrakes when in excess of Vᴍᴏ / Mᴍᴏ

Answer 36

B. In green - speedbrakes are extended. In amber when the speedbrakes should be retracted.

Question 37

“VFE NEXT is

A. … the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight.”
◦ B. … the minimum speed for the present configuration.”
◦ C. … the minimum FLAP / SLAAT retraction speed.”
◦ D. … the maximum speed for the present configuration.”

Answer 37

A. … the limiting speed for going from CONFIG1 to CONFIG2 in flight.”

Question 38

If a spoiler has failed, how does the system compensate for undesirable yaw?

◦ A. Automatic rudder trim.
◦ B. Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing.
◦ C. FAC commands.
◦ D. ELAC turn co-ordination commands.

Answer 38

B. Inhibition of the symmetrical spoiler on the other wing.

Question 39

A-LOCK (alpha lock) appears below the slat / Flap indicator on the E/WD. What causes this and how do
you recover?

◦ A. Flaps are locked in Config 1; reduce angle of attack to retract the flaps.
◦ B. Slats and Flaps are locked in Config 1; recycle the flap lever to retract slats and flaps.
◦ C. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; recycle the flap lever to retract the slats.
◦ D. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract
the slats.

Answer 39

D. Slats are locked in Config 1 due to high angle of attack; reduce the angle of attack to retract
the slats.

Question 40

In normal flight, what does sidestick deflection demand?

◦ A. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.
◦ B. Load factor in pitch, proportional aileron and spoiler deflection in roll.
◦ C. Rate of pitch change, and 67° bank at full roll demand.
◦ D. A pitch attitude, and a rate of roll up to 33° of bank.

Answer 40

A. Load factor in pitch and rate of roll in roll.

Question 41

A/C on GND - Flap Lever Position 1

◦ A. SLATS are 2; FLAPS are 1
◦ B. SLATS are 0; FLAPS are 1
◦ C. SLATS are 1; FLAPS are 1
◦ D. SLATS are 1; FLAPS are 0

Answer 41

C. SLATS are 1; FLAPS are 1

Question 42

In Alternate LAW, which of the following statements is true?

◦ A. High Speed Protection will prevent an overspeed.
◦ B. Alpha Floor will prevent the aircraft being stalled.
◦ C. Low Speed Stability will prevent the aircraft being stalled.
◦ D. It is possible to stall the aircraft.

Answer 42

D. It is possible to stall the aircraft.

Question 43

. During acceleration on initial climb-out (Config. 1 + F) with no movement of the flap handle, what will
happen?

◦ A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
◦ B. The SLATS will auto-retract at 210 kts.
◦ C. The FLAPS and SLATS will retract at 210 kts.
◦ D. An overspeed warning will be activated at 220 kts.

Answer 43

A. The FLAPS will auto-retract at 210 kts.

Question 44

If both pilots push and hold the take-over pushbuttons on the sidesticks, which of the following
statements is true?

◦ A. The last pilot to press a button has priority.
◦ B. They cancel each other out, and the aircraft flies normally.
◦ C. Sidestick priority is locked out until the end of the flight.
◦ D. After 40 seconds, the first person to press a button loses use of sidestick.

Answer 44

A. The last pilot to press a button has priority.

Question 45

On the FLT CTL SD the ailerons have two neutral indications. Why is this?

◦ A. To show the tolerances when LAF is operating.
◦ B. To show the tolerances when only one Aileron Jack is operative.
◦ C. One for clean, one for slats extended (Aileron droop).
◦ D. One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).

Answer 45

D. One for clean, one for flaps extended (Aileron droop).

Question 46

. If (autopilot / autothrust off) a bank angle of 45° is exceeded; what happens?

◦ A. The Flight Director (only) is no longer displayed.
◦ B. The FMA lateral and vertical modes (only) are no longer displayed.
◦ C. The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.
◦ D. The aircraft goes into Alternate law.

Answer 46

C. The Flight Director and its associated FMAs are no longer displayed.

Question 47

Regarding the Sidestick Priority Lights on the Glareshield, which is true?

◦ A. A red arrow will always be accompanied by a green light.
◦ B. A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light.
◦ C. A red arrow and a green light may be illuminated together on the Captain’s side of the glareshield.
◦ D. A red arrow indicates an unwanted input on the associated sidestick.

Answer 47

B. A red arrow may or may not be accompanied by a green light.

Question 48

What does “F” speed represent at take-off on the IAS strip?

◦ A. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.
◦ B. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP FULL to FLAP 3.
◦ C. Minimum speed for present flap setting.
◦ D. Minimum speed for selecting one more stage of flaps.

Answer 48

A. Minimum speed to retract flaps from FLAP 3 to FLAP 1.

Question 49

What information is given at top right of the NAV Display in ARC mode?

◦ A. Raw Data from a tuned VOR.
◦ B. Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.
◦ C. Flight plan TRACK to the TO Waypoint.
◦ D. Track and Groundspeed

Answer 49

B. Computed data concerning the TO Waypoint.

Question 50

. After T/O, when does SRS (FMA) change to CLB?

A. When the thrust levers are placed in the climb detent.
B. After SLAT retraction
C. When passing acceleration altitude.
D. When passing thrust reduction altitude

Answer 50

C. When passing acceleration altitude.