3 Flashcards
At the start of the flight, what will be the condition of ATHR?
◦ A. ACTIVE at 1500 feet AAL.
◦ B. ACTIVE on selection of TOGA or FLX power.
◦ C. ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power.
◦ D. ARMED at 80 kts
C. ARMED on selection of TOGA or FLX power.
When is the FUEL USED indication (on the SD) reset to zero?
◦ A. When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (on ground only).
◦ B. When the associated MASTER SW is selected OFF (at any time).
◦ C. During associated engine start.
◦ D. Five minutes after engine shutdown on the ground.
◦ C. During associated engine start.
Regarding an Auto Start, which of the following is a correct statement?
◦ A. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies start valve closure.
◦ B. Engine No.2 normally uses igniter B.
◦ C. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence.
◦ D. Putting the MODE SEL to START closes the bleed valve
C. Loss of the N2 grey background signifies end of the start sequence.
Which of the following indications may be ignored?
◦ A. Amber EGT during take-off.
◦ B. Red EGT during take-off.
◦ C. Amber N1 during take-off.
◦ D. Amber N2 during take-off
A. Amber EGT during take-off.
Regarding FADEC, which of the following statements is true?
◦ A. It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START.
◦ B. Each FADEC has three channels.
◦ C. The FADEC is able to abort a MANUAL START.
◦ D. FADEC runs for 10 minutes after the aircraft is electrically powered-up.
A. It can be energised on ground by putting ENG MODE SEL to START.
. In flight, how is the crew advised that the engines are spooled-down?
◦ A. “ADVISORY” displayed on the ENG. S.D.
◦ B. Aural alert “ SPEED, SPEED, SPEED”.
◦ C. Master Caution and Single chime.
◦ D. “IDLE” displayed between the LP rotor speed (N1) gauges.
D. “IDLE” displayed between the LP rotor speed (N1) gauges.
After Take-Off, when does the ATHR become ACTIVE?
◦ A. 1500 feet above airfield elevation.
◦ B. 1500 feet R.A.
◦ C. Thrust Reduction altitude.
◦ D. Acceleration Altitude.
C. Thrust Reduction altitude.
During a manual start, what does the MAN START pushbutton do?
◦ A. It controls the FUEL VALVE.
◦ B. It controls the START VALVE and the FUEL VALVES.
◦ C. It opens the start valve and must be selected OFF to close the start valve.
◦ D. It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically.
D. It opens the start valve: the start valve will close automatically.
On the approach to land, what automatically activates the igniters?
◦ A. Selecting Config.1.
◦ B. Selecting Gear Down.
◦ C. Passing 2500’ R.A.
◦ D. Selecting Config.2 from Config. 1
A. Selecting Config.1.
How is an imminent change of trust highlighted?
◦ A. A pulsing EPR gauge.
◦ B. TLA movements on the N1 gauge.
◦ C. A blue arc on the N1 gauge.
◦ D. A magenta arc on the N1 gauge
C. A blue arc on the N1 gauge.
Regarding an AUTO START, which of the following is correct statement?
◦ A. Putting the Master Switch ON starts IGN immediately.
◦ B. The start sequence ends at 40% N2.
◦ C. If the start is aborted, the pilot must select CRANK on the mode selector.
◦ D. Igniter operation alternates A/B at each start
◦ D. Igniter operation alternates A/B at each start
What does FADEC do if there is no ignition during an automatic start cycle?
◦ A. Show an ECAM message : the crew must perform a dry crank.
◦ B. If no EGT after 30 seconds, it will activate the other igniter.
◦ C. Abort the start, then attempt another start using the other igniter.
◦ D. Abort the start and perform a dry crank
D. Abort the start and perform a dry crank
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for take-off.
◦ A. 29 (gusting 38) knots. - REVIEWER 38 kt (gust included) - CFM 2014 ◦ B. 33 (gusting 38) knots. ◦ C. 29 (gusting 33) knots. ◦ D. 34 knots.
A. 29 (gusting 38) knots. - REVIEWER 38 kt (gust included) - CFM 2014
What is the maximum wind speed for door operation?
◦ A. 70 knots.
◦ B. 65 knots.
◦ C. 55 knots(gusting 60 knots).
◦ D. 52 knots.
B. 65 knots.
. What is the limiting speed for selecting the gear down (VLE)?
◦ A. 220 kt.
◦ B. 250 kt.
◦ C. 260 kt.
◦ D. Green Dot
B. 250 kt.
What is the maximum runway slope?
◦ A. +/-1%
◦ B. +1% / -2%
◦ C. +/-2%
◦ D. +2% / -1%
C. +/-2%
What are the maximum acceleration (G) limits?
◦ A. Slats extended and flaps retracted, 0g to +2g.
◦ B. Slats and flaps extended, 0g to 2.5g.
◦ C. Clean -1g to +2.5g and flaps extended -1g to +2g.
◦ D. Clean, and slats extended, -1g to +2.5g.
A. Slats extended and flaps retracted, 0g to +2g.
What are the Power Plant Starter limitations?
◦ A. The maximum speed for starter engagement is 20% N1.
◦ B. The maximum speed for starter engagement is 30% N2.
◦ C. After 3 failed start attempts, maintenance action is necessary.
◦ D. Cooling period, after 4 start attempts: 15 min
D. Cooling period, after 4 start attempts: 15 min
What is the minimum speed for use of full reverse thrust?
◦ A. 50 kt.
◦ B. 60 kt.
◦ C. 70 kt.
◦ D. 75 kt
C. 70 kt.
What is the maximum speed for FLAP 3?
◦ A. 177 kts.
◦ B. 185 kts.
◦ C. 200 kts.
◦ D. 205 kts
B. 185 kts.
What is the maximum cabin pressure differential?
◦ A. Positive 8.4 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.
◦ B. Positive 8.6 psi., Negative 1.2 psi.
◦ C. Positive 8.5 psi., Negative 0.4 psi.
◦ D. Positive 9 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.
D. Positive 9 psi., Negative 1.0 psi.
What is the limiting factor for opening the Ram Air Valve?
◦ A. Aircraft altitude at or below 10,000 ft.
◦ B. Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi.
◦ C. Aircraft must be on ground.
◦ D. Aircraft must be fully depressurised
B. Cabin differential pressure at or below 1 psi.
What is the maximum EPR with the park brake ON?
◦ A. 1.05
◦ B. 1.15
◦ C. 1.18
◦ D. 1.25
C. 1.18
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind for landing?
◦ A. 33 (Gusting 38) knots. - REVIEWER 38 kt (gust included) - CFM 2014 ◦ B. 33 (Gusting 37) knots. ◦ C. 29 (Gusting 33) knots. ◦ D. 34 (Gusting 33) knots
A. 33 (Gusting 38) knots. - REVIEWER 38 kt (gust included) - CFM 2014
What is the maximum speed for flight with the side window open?
◦ A. 200 kts.
◦ B. 230 kts.
◦ C. Green Dot.
◦ D. 250 kts.
A. 200 kts.
What is the limiting speed with the gear down locked?
◦ A. 250 kts.
◦ B. 280 kts.
◦ C. 300 kts.
◦ D. Green Dot
B. 280 kts.
What is the limiting altitude for use of APU bleed?
◦ A. 15,000 feet. ◦ B. ENG START - UP TO 20 000 ft ONE PACK - UP TO 22 500 ft TWO PACKS - UP TO 15 000 ft ◦ C. 25,000 feet. ◦ D. 39,100 feet
B. ENG START - UP TO 20 000 ft
ONE PACK - UP TO 22 500 ft
What is the maximum altitude for APU start on batteries only?
◦ A. 15,000 feet.
◦ B. 20,000 feet.
◦ C. 25,000 feet.
◦ D. 39,000 feet
C. 25,000 feet.
What is the maximum EGT at TOGA THR?
◦ A. 710℃
◦ B. 950℃
◦ C. 765℃
◦ D. 690℃
B. 950℃
Which of the following is a correct starter limitation?
◦ A. The max speed for starter engagement is 20% N2, (recommended 10%)
◦ B.
- 4 consecutive cycles: Each lasts a maximum of 2 min
- Pause between start attempts: 20 s
- Cooling period, after 4 start attempts: 15 min
- No running engagement of the starter, when N2 is above 20 %.
◦ C. After 4 failed start attempts, allow one hour cooling.
◦ D. Maximum continuous cranking is 3 minutes.
B.
- 4 consecutive cycles: Each lasts a maximum of 2 min
- Pause between start attempts: 20 s
- Cooling period, after 4 start attempts: 15 min
- No running engagement of the starter, when N2 is above 20 %.
What is the max. speed for FLAP FULL?
◦ A. 177 kts.
◦ B. 185 kts.
◦ C. 200 kts.
◦ D. 205 kts.
A. 177 kts.
. What is the maximum speed for the use of windscreen wipers?
◦ A. Green Dot.
◦ B. 230 kts.
◦ C. 240 kts.
◦ D. 250 kts.
B. 230 kts.
What is the limiting groundspeed for the tyres?
◦ A. 185 kts.
◦ B. 190 kts.
◦ C. 195 kts.
◦ D. 198 kts.
C. 195 kts.
What is the minimum fuel for take-off?
◦ A. 2000 kg.
◦ B. 1800 kg.
◦ C. 1500 kg.
◦ D. 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed.
D. 1500 kg and WG TANK LO LVL not displayed.
In the MEL “remarks or Exceptions” column, what is signified by (0)?
◦ A. Aircraft may be flown back to base for rectification.
◦ B. A procedure to be carried out by the flight crew.
◦ C. A procedure to be carried out by maintenance.
◦ D. Dispatch is not allowed.
B. A procedure to be carried out by the flight crew.
In the MEL “remarks or Exceptions” column, what is signified by an (*)?
◦ A. A crew operational procedure.
◦ B. Maintenance action is required.
◦ C. Inoperative equipment must have a placard.
◦ D. Aircraft may operate back to base.
C. Inoperative equipment must have a placard.
What do we do if the brakes fail during an RTO?
◦ A. Brake pedals PUSH, reverse max, brakes RELEASE, A/SKID & N/W STRG SW off, brakes use max 1000
psi.
◦ B. Reverse max, recycle A/SKID & N/W STRG, brakes use as normal.
◦ C. Brake pedals PUSH and hold, A/SKID & N/W STR SW off, brakes use as normal.
◦ D. Reverse max, brake pedals release, A/SKID & N/W STRG off, brakes use max 1000 psi.
D. Reverse max, brake pedals release, A/SKID & N/W STRG off, brakes use max 1000 psi.
After donning oxygen, what are the initial actions required in order to start an emergency descent
following rapid decompression (structural failure)?
◦ A. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : SPD - PULL : MACH /
SPD adjust target.
◦ B. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : MACH / SPD change over switch
PUSH.
◦ C. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PUSH : HDG - turn left or right and PULL when IAS increasing, select FULL
speedbrake.
◦ D. FCU:ALT - Select lower and EXPEDITE : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : THR levers to IDLE : select
half speedbrake.
A. FCU:ALT - Select lower and PULL : HDG - turn left or right and PULL : SPD - PULL : MACH /
SPD adjust target.
Following a TCAS “CLIMB” message, what are the initial actions?
◦ A. A/P OFF : TOGA power : VERT SPD to Green Band
◦ B. ATHR OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.
◦ C. A/P OFF : FD’s OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.
◦ D. V/S SELECT +1500 : CLM power
C. A/P OFF : FD’s OFF : VERT SPD to Green Band.
Immediate actions with unreliable IAS on take-of before SLAT retraction?
◦ A. AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move.
◦ B. AP/FD ON : FLAPS - do not move.
◦ C. FD OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.
◦ D. AP OFF : FLAPS - retract on schedule.
A. AP/FD OFF : FLAPS - do not move.
Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert including “PULL UP”?
◦ A. AP ON : TOGA power : Select V/S 3000 ft/min.
◦ B. AP OFF : TOGA power : Select 17° pitch-up.
◦ C. AP OFF : sidestick hard back : TOGA power.
◦ D. AP OFF : TOGA power : follow pitch demands on FD
◦ C. AP OFF : sidestick hard back : TOGA power.
” In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should …
◦ A. … leave via a sliding window, using its associated escape rope only.”
◦ B. … leave via a sliding window only, using either escape rope.”
◦ C. … kick out the panel in the cockpit door.”
◦ D. … leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door in either direction.
D. … leave via a sliding window, or force the cockpit door in either direction.
Initial actions in event of a rejected Take-Off at more than 72 kts.?
◦ A. Call “STOP” : REVERSE THR MAX : Maximum foot brakes.
◦ B. Call “STOP” : REVERSE THR MAX : Reverse idle by 80 kts.
◦ C. Call “STOP” : REVERSE THR MAX :SPD BRAKES FULL.
◦ D. Call “STOP” : REVERSE THR MAX .
D. Call “STOP” : REVERSE THR MAX .
Initial actions when airborne after a “WINDSHEAR” warning?
◦ A. TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand.
◦ B. TOGA PWR : ignore FD - pitch to 17.5°
◦ C. TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand : raise landing gear.
◦ D. TOGA PWR : sidestick fully back : maintain gear / flap config
TOGA PWR : follow FD pitch demand.
What are the initial actions, after selecting MAX REVERSE, in event of loss of braking when Autobrake is
selected OFF?
◦ A. Recycle A/SKID & NW STEERING switch : use brakes normal.
◦ B. Apply Parking Brake intermittently max 1000 psi.
◦ C. Switch to ALTN BRAKING, brakes use max 1000 psi.
◦ D. Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING off, brakes max 1000 psi
D. Brakes release, A/SKID & NW STEERING off, brakes max 1000 psi
What is the sequence of actions, on the FCU, in order to start an emergency descent (structural failure)?
◦ A. Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL : SPEED knob : PULL :
MACH / SPEED target adjust.
◦ B. PULL and select lower ALT : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : MACH / SPEED changeover button
- PRESS.
◦ C. Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob : PULL and descend
at Mᴍᴏ/Vᴍᴏ minus 10 kts.
◦ D. Select lower ALT and PUSH : HDG knob - PULL and turn left or right : SPEED knob : PULL : MACH /
SPEED changeover button - PRESS.
◦ A. Select lower ALT and PULL : HDG knob - turn left or right and PULL : SPEED knob : PULL :
MACH / SPEED target adjust.
Following a TCAS “Descend, descend now”, what are the initial actions?
◦ A. Follow Flight Director commands.
◦ B. A/P OFF : ATHR OFF : increase rate of descent from present value.
◦ C. A/P OFF : Both FD’s OFF : set vertical speed to Green area.
◦ D. A/P OFF : THR LVRS idle : set vertical speed to Green area.
C. A/P OFF : Both FD’s OFF : set vertical speed to Green area.
Immediate actions with speed indications unreliable above THR RED ALT?
◦ A. AP off, F/D off, A/T off, Flaps maintain config, speedbrakes retract.
◦ B. Set CLB THR : above FL 100, set pitch +5° : below FL 100 set pitch + 10°.
◦ C. Maintain present pitch attitude and set CLB THR.
◦ D. Set TOGA THR : set pitch +5°.
B. Set CLB THR : above FL 100, set pitch +5° : below FL 100 set pitch + 10°.
Initial actions in the event of a GPWS alert which includes “PULL UP”?
◦ A. Set TOGA THR : set pitch + 17 ½°.
◦ B. Set TOGA THR : climb aircraft at alpha prot.
◦ C. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : A/P OFF.
◦ D. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : then follow FD commands.
C. Sidestick fully aft : TOGA thrust : A/P OFF.
“In order to leave the cockpit in an emergency, you should …
◦ A. … force the cockpit door open by pulling it.”
◦ B. … lock the sliding window fully open using the locking pin.”
◦ C. … leave via a sliding window using associated escape rope only.”
◦ D. … leave via a sliding window using either escape rope.”
D. … leave via a sliding window using either escape rope.”
