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Question 1

“To join an ILS on an intercept heading, the FPV will be lined up with the …

A. … glideslope demand.”
B. … ILS inbound course.”
C. … actual aircraft heading.”
D. … actual aircraft track.”

Answer 1

D. … actual aircraft track.”

Question 2

Regarding the PFD, which of the following statements is true?

◦ A. The bottom left corner of the PFD displays the MACH NO. at all times.
◦ B. On the IAS, a split magenta triangle indicates a managed climb.
◦ C. Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits.
◦ D. An excess rate of descent will cause the IVSI to go RED.

Answer 2

◦ C. Selected heading can be displayed as a triangle or digits.

Question 3

What information is given by the speed trend arrow on the PFD?

◦ A. The direction the speed should be adjusted to achieve the required speed.
◦ B. The ECON speed range during descent.
◦ C. The speed attained in 5 seconds with constant acceleration.
◦ D. The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration.

Answer 3

D. The speed attained in 10 seconds with constant acceleration.

Question 4

If the IAS is a “split” triangle, which of the following statements is correct?

◦ A. It may be magenta or blue.
◦ B. It indicates a speed constraint.
◦ C. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Climb or Managed Descent.
◦ D. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Descent only

Answer 4

D. It will be magenta and signify a Managed Descent only

Question 5

The ECAM CTL PANEL “WHEEL” pushbutton switch has failed. What must you do to display the WHEEL
page?

◦ A. Use the STS button.
◦ B. Use the ALL button.
◦ C. Transfer the SD to the F/O (or CAPT) using the SWTG PANEL.
◦ D. Use the RECAL button.

Answer 5

B. Use the ALL button.

Question 6

SRS means?

◦ A. Speed Retard System.
◦ B. Speed Reference System.
◦ C. Safety Reference System.
◦ D. Stall Reference System.

Answer 6

B. Speed Reference System.

Question 7

When does the REFUELG memo appear?

◦ A. When the END Light illuminates steady green.
◦ B. When the refuel hose is connected to the coupling.
◦ C. When the MODE SELECT switch is placed to REFUEL.
◦ D. When the re-fuelling control panel door is open.

Answer 7

D. When the re-fuelling control panel door is open.

Question 8

Which is true if both booster pumps in the centre tank fail?

◦ A. You must descend to 15000’ when gravity feeding becomes necessary.
◦ B. The SD shows amber XX replacing the CTR tank quantity indications.
◦ C. The SD shows amber = through the CTR tank quantity indications.
◦ D. The FOB (EWD) will show a half-box (amber).

Answer 8

D. The FOB (EWD) will show a half-box (amber).

Question 9

What happens when the first inner tank level reaches 750 kg?

◦ A. Nothing happens until both inner tanks reach 750 kg.
◦ B. Transfer valves on the associated wing will open.
◦ C. One transfer valve in each wing will open.

Answer 9

C. One transfer valve in each wing will open.

Question 10

With all tanks full and the MODE selector in AUTO, which is correct?

◦ A. The centre tank pumps will stop when the slats are extended.
◦ B. The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended.
◦ C. All pumps will run continuously.
◦ D. The wing pumps will stop when the slats are extended.

Answer 10

B. The centre tank pumps will stop when the flaps are extended.

Question 11

On the S.D. what signifies an inaccurate quantity indication?

◦ A. An amber box round a fuel figure.
◦ B. An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure.
◦ C. Double crosses in place of a fuel figure.
◦ D. An amber half-box round a fuel figure.

Answer 11

B. An amber line through last two digits of a fuel figure.

Question 12

What happens automatically when the aircraft is being refuelled?

◦ A. The transfer valves close.
◦ B. The Fuel Used (engine S.D.) goes to zero.
◦ C. The Cross-feed valve opens.
◦ D. The booster pumps stop running

Answer 12

A. The transfer valves close.

Question 13

. With fuel in the centre tank, but both centre booster pumps failed, what will be indicated on the EWD?

◦ A. FOB quantity indicating amber.
◦ B. FOB quantity indicating pulsing.
◦ C. A full amber box round the FOB indication.
◦ D. A half amber box round the FOB indication.

Answer 13

D. A half amber box round the FOB indication.

Question 14

. With the BLUE switch at AUTO, when will the pump operate?

◦ A. After the first engine has been started.
◦ B. After the both engines have been started.
◦ C. For 5 minutes after electrical power-up.
◦ D. After engine No. 1 has been started

Answer 14

A. After the first engine has been started.

Question 15

Which is true with regard to the PTU?

◦ A. It is inhibited between engine starts.
◦ B. It is inhibited from electrical power-up until second engine start.
◦ C. It is used as a back-up following a leak in the Green or Yellow systems.
◦ D. It operates if the Green or Yellow system pressure falls below 2600 psi.

Answer 15

A. It is inhibited between engine starts.

Question 16

On the HYD overhead panel, which is true of any pump FAULT light?

◦ A. It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature.
◦ B. It will remain illuminated until maintenance action has been taken.
◦ C. It will extinguish when the switch is placed to OFF.
◦ D. It is inhibited with engines running.

Answer 16

A. It will extinguish when the fluid has cooled to normal temperature.

Question 17

Which hydraulic system have fluid shutoff valves and why?

◦ A. G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire.
◦ B. G and Y (operated by switches on the OHP) in case of PTU failures.
◦ C. All systems; to isolate the systems in event of fluid loss.
◦ D. All systems; for use by maintenance

Answer 17

A. G and Y (operated by the engine fire switches) to isolate fluid from fire.

Question 18

What happens automatically after first engine start?

◦ A. The Blue pump operates.
◦ B. The Blue pump stops until the second engine has been started.
◦ C. The P.T.U. operates until the second engine has been started.
◦ D. The P.T.U. operates continuously

Answer 18

A. The Blue pump operates.

Question 19

Which of the following correctly completes this statement?”With the Yellow Electric pump not switched
ON, it will operate automatically …

◦ A. … if the Yellow Engine Driven Pump fails.”
◦ B. … if the yellow system pressure falls below 2500 p.s.i..”
◦ C. … when the Cargo Door is operated.”
◦ D. … when a Cabin Door is opened with the slide armed.”

Answer 19

C. … when the Cargo Door is operated.”

Question 20

When can the RAT be restored?

◦ A. At any time.
◦ B. Below 140 kts.
◦ C. Below 100 kts.
◦ D. On the ground only.

Answer 20

D. On the ground only.

Question 21

Which of the following defines icing conditions?

◦ A. Before T/O : OAT 8℃ or below, contaminated runway.
◦ B. In flight : TAT 10℃ down to SAT minus 30℃.
◦ C. In flight : SAT 10℃ or below.
◦ D. Before T/O : OAT 10℃ or below, visible moisture, visibility < 1nm

Answer 21

D. Before T/O : OAT 10℃ or below, visible moisture, visibility < 1nm

Question 22

What is the failsafe situation if Wing and Engine Anti-ice are lost?

◦ A. Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine anti-ice ON.
◦ B. Wing Anti-ice ON, Engine anti-ice OFF.
◦ C. Both ON.
◦ D. Both OFF

Answer 22

A. Wing Anti-ice OFF, Engine anti-ice ON.

Question 23

. Which parts of the aircraft are anti-iced?

◦ A. Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., and engine nacelles.
◦ B. Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles.
◦ C. Outboard wing L.E., stabiliser L.E., fin L.E. and engine nacelles.
◦ D. All of the wing L.E. and engine nacelles

Answer 23

B. Outboard wing L.E., and engine nacelles.

Question 24

From where does Engine 1 anti-ice obtain its heat?

◦ A. Directly from its own fan air system.
◦ B. Directly from its own bleed.
◦ C. Directly from its own bleed or engine 2 bleed.
◦ D. Directly from its own bleed or the main bleed system.

Answer 24

B. Directly from its own bleed.

Question 25

What do green lines next to the REL indicators show?

◦ A. Nothing in flight and brake applications after landing.
◦ B. Serviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing.
◦ C. Unserviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing.
◦ D. Release of brake pressure after landing only if autobrake is selected.

Answer 25

B. Serviceable anti-skid in flight, release of brake pressure after landing.

Question 26

Following Gravity Extension which statement is true?

◦ A. Brakes and steering will be normal.
◦ B. Alternate braking will be operational.
◦ C. Braking will be normal and nosewheel steering will be lost.
◦ D. Nosewheel steering will be normal and anti-skid will not be available.

Answer 26

C. Braking will be normal and nosewheel steering will be lost.

Question 27

With the aircraft on the ground, which is true with regard to the gear lever?

◦ A. It can be moved, retraction is inhibited by shock absorber compression.
◦ B. It cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber compression.
◦ C. It can be selected up by operating the override trigger.
◦ D. It cannot be moved if the Green hydraulic system is pressurised.

Answer 27

B. It cannot be moved due to an interlock with shock absorber compression.

Question 28

What does a red UNLK light indicate on the Landing Gear indicator panel?

◦ A. LGCIU 1 and 2 failure.
◦ B. Associated door is not locked / closed.
◦ C. Associated gear leg is in transit.
◦ D. Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position.

Answer 28

D. Associated gear leg is not locked in selected position.

Question 29

What happens during pushback (inc engine start) with the steering selector in the TOWING position?

◦ A. A caution NW STEER FAULT will appear on the EWD
◦ B. Green N WHEEL STEERING DISC until steering selector is NORMAL.
◦ C. Amber N WHEEL STEERING DISC if at least one engine is running.
◦ D. STEERING is displayed (in amber) on the Wheels SD

Answer 29

C. Amber N WHEEL STEERING DISC if at least one engine is running.

Question 30

When does a DECEL light illuminate?

◦ A. With autobrake in use, and green hydraulic pressure satisfactory.
◦ B. With LO autobrake selected, two seconds after touchdown.
◦ C. With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate.
◦ D. To show that the anti-skid is serviceable

Answer 30

C. With at least 80% of selected deceleration rate.

Question 31

Regarding landing with Autobrake MED selected, which is true?

◦ A. Braking starts 2 secs. after both main landing gears are compressed.
◦ B. Braking starts 2 secs. after spoiler deployment.
◦ C. Braking starts 4 secs. after mainwheel spin-up.
◦ D. During braking a specific pressure will be applied to the wheelbrakes.

Answer 31

B. Braking starts 2 secs. after spoiler deployment.

Question 32

Pressing the DISC button on the Captain’s steering handwheels does what?

◦ A. Disconnects the steering system completely.
◦ B. Disconnects the Captain’s steering handwheels from the system.
◦ C. Disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system.
◦ D. Disconnects the Captain’s pedal movement from the steering system

Answer 32

C. Disconnects all rudder pedal movement from the steering system.

Question 33

When may the MEMO “N.W. STRG DISC” appear on the EWD?

◦ A. When the Captain and / or First Officer are depressing their DISC buttons on the steering handle.
◦ B. In green (only) during a pushback which includes engine start.
◦ C. When the ANTISKID and NWS switch B placed to OFF.
◦ D. In amber, during a pushback with an engine running

Answer 33

D. In amber, during a pushback with an engine running

Question 34

Regarding Gravity Extension, which of the following is true?

◦ A. Only the nosewheel doors remain open.
◦ B. Only the mainwheel doors remain open.
◦ C. N’wheel steering is not available.
◦ D. N’wheel steering is available if the Green hydraulic system is operating.

Answer 34

C. N’wheel steering is not available.

Question 35

Why may the IRS ALIGN lights flash during a pre-flight check?

◦ A. The IRS is using battery power.
◦ B. Loss of all functions except ATT and HDG.
◦ C. Failure to switch on the associated ADR.
◦ D. The IRS is awaiting a position entry.

Answer 35

D. The IRS is awaiting a position entry.

Question 36

Which can be tuned by RMP No. 1?

◦ A. Any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids.
◦ B. Any radio communication equipment only.
◦ C. Associated radio aids and onside communication equipment.
◦ D. VHF 1 and HF 1 only.

Answer 36

A. Any radio communication equipment and outside radio aids.

Question 37

What does the Captain’s ND show when selected to ROSE ILS?

◦ A. ILS receiver No. 1 or No. 2 signals, as selected.
◦ B. ILS receiver No. 1 signals only.
◦ C. ILS receiver No. 2 signals only.
◦ D. ILS receiver No. 2 signals and the map

Answer 37

C. ILS receiver No. 2 signals only.

Question 38

When RMP tuning is in operation, which is true.

◦ A. The MCDU’s will display the tuned navaids.
◦ B. There will be an amber light on the ACP.
◦ C. ILS DME is not available.
◦ D. The ILS receivers are tuned by their respective RMP’s.

Answer 38

C. ILS DME is not available.

Question 39

When landing a serviceable aircraft with Flaps 3, what is the correct action on the GPWS panel?

◦ A. Switch OFF the SYS switch.
◦ B. Switch ON the G/S MODE switch.
◦ C. Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch.
◦ D. Switch ON the FLAP MODE switch.

Answer 39

C. Switch ON the LDG FLAP 3 switch.

Question 40

When and how is a rapid alignment carried out?

◦ A. On all transit stops, if the accuracy is LOW, by recycling IR selectors.
◦ B. If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV within 5
seconds.
◦ C. If residual groundspeed < 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV after more than 5
seconds.
◦ D. On all transit stops, by recycling the NAV and ADR switches OFF / ON.

Answer 40

B. If residual groundspeed > 5 kts, by setting the Rotary Selectors OFF and to NAV within 5
seconds.

Question 41

EGPWS uses which baro information?

◦ A. Captain’s.
◦ B. First Officer’s.
◦ C. The lower setting of the Captain’s and First Officer’s settings.
◦ D. The pilot whose autopilot is engaged.

Answer 41

A. Captain’s.

Question 42

If both FMGC’s fail, how is VOR 2 tuned?

◦ A. Using ACP 2.
◦ B. It cannot be tuned.
◦ C. Using RMP2 only.
◦ D. Using RMP1 or RMP2

Answer 42

C. Using RMP2 only.

Question 43

Why is the PLAN mode (ND) used only to check flight plans?

◦ A. Weather radar (only) cannot be displayed.
◦ B. Navaids (only) cannot be displayed.
◦ C. Weather radar and navaids cannot be displayed.
◦ D. It is orientated to MAG. NORTH.

Answer 43

C. Weather radar and navaids cannot be displayed.

Question 44

How is a NAV ACCURACY check carried out?

◦ A. By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance on ND against “BG and DIST to” on MCDU
PROG page.
◦ B. By comparing TO WPT information (top right of ND) against “BG and DIST to” on MCDU PROG page.
◦ C. By checking both MCDUs show HI accuracy.
◦ D. By checking NAV ACCURACY UPGRADE is displayed in the MCDU.

Answer 44

A. By comparing VOR bearing and DME distance on ND against “BG and DIST to” on MCDU
PROG page.

Question 45

If the radar on the ND sweeps from the centre outwards, what does it mean?

◦ A. Weather radar picture is offset due to a fault.
◦ B. Weather radar is being used to show EGPWS terrain.
◦ C. Nav. Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain.
◦ D. It is giving a TEST pattern

Answer 45

C. Nav. Database is being used to show EGPWS terrain.

Question 46

What would cause a managed climb to revert to an Open Climb.

◦ A. Pushing the heading knob on the FCU.
◦ B. Pulling the heading knob on the FCU.
◦ C. Pushing the altitude knob on the FCU.
◦ D. Pushing the vertical speed knob on the FCU.

Answer 46

B. Pulling the heading knob on the FCU.

Question 47

Which of the following correctly describes the cross-bleed valve operation?

◦ A. In manual, it is electrically selected and pneumatically operated.
◦ B. In auto, it is pneumatically operated.
◦ C. In auto, it will open as necessary, to equalise the duct pressures.
◦ D. In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open

Answer 47

D. In auto, it will be closed if the engine bleed valves are open

Question 48

. If GROUND H.P. AIR is connected, which of the following is true?

◦ A. Do not use the PACKS.
◦ B. Do not mix with ENG. BLEED AIR.
◦ C. Do not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR.
◦ D. The GD. H.P. AIR can be used without restrictions.

Answer 48

C. Do not use the PACKS or mix it with ENG. BLEED AIR.

Question 49

Which is true of the FADEC system?

◦ A. It is continuously powered from when the aircraft receives A.C. power.
◦ B. It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.
◦ C. It is not available until the engine MODE SEL is set to IGN/START.
◦ D. It is self-powered above 5% N1.

Answer 49

B. It is a dual channel unit that is self-powered with the engine running.

Question 50

What automatically activates the igniters for take-off?

◦ A. Extending the SLATS whilst taxying.
◦ B. Extending the FLAPS whilst taxying.
◦ C. Selecting FLX or TOGA.
◦ D. Weight off wheels

Answer 50

C. Selecting FLX or TOGA.