Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

3N055 CDCs > 3N055 Vol 7 > Flashcards

3N055 Vol 7 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. What is the definition of reputation?
A
  1. It is often associated with how a particular group of people perceives another entity.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Explain how a reputation can be different to different audiences?
A
  1. Different groups perceive other groups or organizations differently and within a particular group, an individual may perceive things differently than the other members of the group.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What differentiates a good reputation from a bad reputation?
A
  1. It depends on the perspective of the observer.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Why is the concept that ?perception is reality? important?
A
  1. When people perceive something to be true, even if it is provable otherwise, they will act on their perceptions.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. At what level is a reputation formed?
A
  1. The individual level.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. How does the concept that ?everything is sales? apply to reputation management?
A
  1. If a company has a good reputation, then they are more likely to sell their product than if they have a bad reputation. Whether the product itself is good is often immaterial to the success of the company.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Why would a non-profit or not-for-profit organization be concerned with reputation management?
A
  1. Because these types of organizations rely on their reputation to obtain funding from their benefactors.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. What is the difference between active and passive reputation management?
A
  1. The difference between the two is whether an organization chooses to actively invest its resources specifically in ?telling? you its product is good or passively rely on word-of-mouth to create its reputation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. What is the easiest way to explain positive reputation management?
A
  1. In terms of an advertising campaign by a company. A company produces a product and then spends additional time, money, and other resources to advertise it.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Why would the Air Force be concerned with managing its reputation?
A
  1. Because the Air Force needs funding and obtains its funding from the taxpayers each year. If the Air Force has a good reputation in the public?s mind, then it is more likely to get the funding it needs for various programs.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. How can taking an active role in reputation management be negative for an organization?
A
  1. If an organization is perceived as spending more time and resources managing its reputation rather than fixing the actual problems, then it will not succeed in the long term.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. Explain the amount of work it takes to get either a good or bad reputation.
A
  1. Good reputations take a lot of work to earn and maintain, but bad reputations are easy to come by.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. What are two ways in which people perceive right and wrong?
A
  1. People tend to perceive things either in black and white or in shades of gray. In other words, they view things as being either right or wrong or right or wrong depending on circumstances.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. When looking at the world in shades of gray, what are the three types of truths?
A
  1. Truths, half-truths, and lies.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. How can an organization avoid the perception of operating in shades of gray?
A
  1. By engaging in the exclusive use of the truth.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. Explain how using half-truths can be damaging to a reputation.
A
  1. Leaving out pertinent truths and facts with the intention to lead the public to draw the wrong conclusion, an organization would be guilty of using half-truths to manage public opinion.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. People in Air Force PA should never resort to what tactic if operating in the shades of gray?
A
  1. Lying.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. How can PA people avoid ?crossing the line? when operating in the shades of gray?
A
  1. By simply always telling the truth. It is the safest approach and one with a proven track record of helping an organization maintain a good reputation over the long run.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. Explain the law of entropy as it applies to reputation management.
A
  1. It is the idea that you are either putting energy/effort into a system or you are not. If you are not, the system begins to degrade to its basic components.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. What does it mean when a PA person uses a proactive approach to reputation management?
A
  1. The members of your base are taking an active role in putting energy and effort to increase the reputation of the Air Force and your base in the local community.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. How is volunteering a proactive approach to reputation management?
A
  1. It forms a positive opinion in the minds of those in the community.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. What should you do if you find people online expressing dissatisfaction with your base?
A
  1. You should provide more information or help correct the record.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. What type of people should volunteer to participate in community events to help create a positive reputation?
A
  1. Those who are willing and happy to do these activities will have a much greater, positive impact than those who do not wish to participate.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. What are two ways for the PA shop to leverage its resources in maintaining a positive reputation, and how does each help?
A
  1. By using the media and community leaders. Using the media extends the reach of the PA office and using community leaders increases the number of people involved in promoting a positive reputation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q
  1. What are the expectations of the public as it relates to a one-time event, and how does this onetime event impact a reputation?
A
  1. When a one-time event (such as an aircraft accident) occurs, the expectation from the public is that this was an isolated, one-time event and the impact is minimal.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q
  1. Why is a repeated pattern of events more difficult to deal with from a reputation management perspective?
A
  1. Because these events send a signal that there is a systemic problem with the base and/or the Air Force and become detrimental to the Air Force?s reputation, and it takes a great deal of work to overcome the negative impact of these occurrences.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q
  1. What is the best thing a person can do to help mitigate the damage to the base?s reputation when something bad or a series of bad events occur?
A
  1. Maintain an open dialogue and provide timely and accurate information.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q
  1. Explain the concept of changing focus as it relates to the reactive approach to reputation management.
A
  1. After addressing negative issues up front and honestly, it is sometimes useful to remind the public of all the things your base or the Air Force has done in the past to garner its good reputation.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q
  1. How can time be an ally in the reactive approach to reputation management?
A
  1. If steps are taken immediately to improve or mitigate the damage done by an event or series of events and additional effort is placed into improving the base?s reputation, then given enough time, people?s memories of the incident will begin to fade and they will simply be left with positive feelings (good reputation) for the base and the Air Force.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q
  1. How many elements encompass effective newspaper planning? List them.
A
  1. Seven: (1) Provides a visible roadmap. (2) Results in reduced frustration. (3) Builds a cohesive team. (4) Focuses on the staff?s strengths. (5) Prepares for future papers. (6) Results in a better newspaper. (7) Helps avoid missed opportunities.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q
  1. What can you do to help your editorial staff achieve the elements of effective planning?
A
  1. Follow some simple planning tools.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q
  1. Identify two planning tools.
A
  1. Any two of the following: (1) Establishing a newspaper planning team. (2) Building an annual events calendar. (3) Developing master and weekly copy logs. (4) Mapping out production milestones. (5) Assigning specific roles within the PA office.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q
  1. How can you more effectively plan the base newspaper?
A
  1. By assigning specific roles, or responsibilities, to each person in the office.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q
  1. What do people need to be more creative?
A
  1. More time.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q
  1. Explain the concept behind establishing specific roles to the PA office staff.
A
  1. These roles are not tied to any assigned positions, but rather they are assigned to appropriate skill levels. They can also be combined if there are fewer than four people involved in the process. These roles must be played distinct from each other.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q
  1. What role is typically the editor?s?
A
  1. Role 1.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q
  1. In what role would you spend about 60 percent of your time doing exactly what the editor does?
A
  1. Role 2.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q
  1. What is the primary function of the person performing duties in Role 4?
A
  1. To be the conduit between the base leadership and the editorial staff.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q
  1. On what is the civilian enterprise concept based?
A
  1. The premise that Air Force installations save money by transferring certain publishing and distribution costs and responsibilities to a commercial publisher selected by competitive bid.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q
  1. How does the publisher cover costs and secure revenue?
A
  1. By having the right to sell and circulate advertising to the complete readership.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q
  1. What is the total number of years an Air Force newspaper contract can be renewed based on satisfactory performance?
A
  1. 6 years
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q
  1. What must invitations for bids include in reference to the categories of news, features, and factual information carried?
A
  1. A statement of work describing the categories of news, features, factual information, and, if applicable, comics to be carried plus other required provisions of the contract.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q
  1. With whom must the PAO coordinate the request for proposal before submitting it to prospective bidders?
A
  1. MAJCOM/PA
44
Q
  1. Who makes up the selection group? At what do they look?
A
  1. The chairperson who is a senior member of the command or activities, Public Affairs, legal, procurement, and other specialists with skills relevant to the selection and contracting process. The group reviews written data from prospective civilian publishing firms, secures and reviews independent data, and if necessary, hears presentations from firms and makes on-site visits to gather information upon which to make an informed selection.
45
Q
  1. What must be considered when reviewing offers and negotiating contracts?
A
  1. The amount of advertising that allows the publisher to publish and still make a reasonable profit.
46
Q
  1. Where must it state that the commander or PAO is to specify design and layout of editorial content?
A
  1. In the newspaper contract.
47
Q
  1. Who executes the newspaper contract according to applicable directives?
A
  1. Base contracting officer.
48
Q
  1. How are funded newspapers printed?
A
  1. By a commercial publisher under contract or with government printing equipment according to Air Force printing supplements.
49
Q
  1. What instruction governs printing a funded newspaper?
A
  1. DODI 5330.03/AFI 33?395.
50
Q
  1. Which organizations handle funded newspapers?
A
  1. DLA Document Services.
51
Q
  1. Whom do you contact once you arrive at an installation that has a funded newspaper?
A
  1. Local DLA office.
52
Q
  1. Which organization reviews funded newspapers annually?
A
  1. MAJCOM.
53
Q
  1. What changes to Air Force newspapers must you report to AFNEWS/NSOP?
A
  1. Changes to name, method of financing, frequency, or size.
54
Q
  1. What is included in a Public Affairs Program Report?
A
  1. Name of newspaper/magazine and base served; publishing command and mailing address; printing arrangement; automation capabilities; frequency and number of issues per year; number of copies per issue and estimated readership; paper size; and average number of pages per issue; size of newspaper staff, listed as full-time, part-time, and contractor-provided.
55
Q
  1. Name two types of publications that are authorized, but optional.
A
  1. Base guides and maps.
56
Q
  1. What must be considered when determining the necessity of producing an optional publication?
A
  1. The availability of information on Web sites and other sources.
57
Q
  1. By designating base guides and maps as CE publications, what rights are given to the publisher?
A
  1. The right to circulate advertising to the Air Force readership.
58
Q
  1. Instead of printing a separate installation telephone book, what other option does an installation commander have?
A
  1. To include the telephone directory in a CE installation guide.
59
Q
  1. What office is responsible for producing an accurate, camera-ready telephone directory section?
A
  1. Installation communications officer.
60
Q
  1. What is an SME?
A
  1. The person who addresses the media.
61
Q
  1. What is one of the most important parts of training your SMEs?
A
  1. Making them aware of the role of the media.
62
Q
  1. What determines whether a story will make better news?
A
  1. The number of news pegs it has.
63
Q
  1. When getting a story, what do reporters for newspapers and magazines look for as data to support their concept of conflict?
A
  1. Reports and documents that can be excerpted and officials who can be urged into making meaty, quotable statements.
64
Q
  1. What do radio reporters look for when getting a story?
A
  1. On-the-scene kinds of quotes that bring immediacy to their coverage.
65
Q
  1. What do television reporters look for when getting a story?
A
  1. Statements that take 10 to 15 seconds and are accompanied by visual drama.
66
Q
  1. Explain the correlation between media opportunities and competition.
A
  1. The opportunities for radio, television, newspaper, and Internet coverage are expanding, but so is the competition for time and space. More groups are seeking airtime and news columns; more stations are scrambling for their share of the action.
67
Q
  1. What does every commander, senior officer, and program manager need to know and understand to successfully deal with the media?
A
  1. The techniques required for dealing successfully with the media.
68
Q
  1. What is the one certainty regarding a command doing its own talking?
A
  1. If the command avoids talking to the media, the reporter will seek the story elsewhere, perhaps from someone with a score to settle.
69
Q
  1. What is the first real step in having a say about how conflict with the media is to be handled?
A
  1. Get to know your regular reporters and their assignment editors.
70
Q
  1. Explain how to deal with the media in channeling conflict.
A
  1. Deal with their sense of professionalism and pride in being fair and accurate. Approach them as though you expect their editorial behaviors to reflect these attributes. Indicate you expect fair treatment, not favoritism. Make yourself and your SME available so they can get your side of the story, even a negative story, in time for their deadline.
71
Q
  1. What can you do to find better understanding and communication when the pressure is on both you and the media?
A
  1. Talk with reporters and editors when a story is not at stake.
72
Q
  1. What is the likely outcome if you are courteous and cooperative with the media?
A
  1. The reporter is more likely to hear and understand your viewpoints when you or your SME tells the story.
73
Q
  1. What is the trade-off for good media relations?
A
  1. Reporters will seek you out for your viewpoints.
74
Q
  1. How can you at least have a better chance of having your side of any story told fairly and accurately?
A
  1. By striving for mutual understanding and respect.
75
Q
  1. Why is coaching the SME not an easy task in some situations?
A
  1. Because there are some SMEs who have ?no use? for the media, there are some who are easily goaded into going too far, and then there are some who are the perfect spokespersons.
76
Q
  1. What do you first develop when preparing your SME for an interview?
A
  1. A mission plan.
77
Q
  1. List the four steps of your mission plan.
A
  1. (1) Define your communication goal. (2) Define your audience. (3) Build your message. (4) Know the issues.
78
Q
  1. List the nine tips for things you can do to prepare to meet the media?
A
  1. (1) Know the media. (2) Know what the media cover? (3) Know who is the media?s audience? (4) Know the reporter?s style? (5) Make sure you and the reporter(s) mutually agree on the topic(s) to be covered before agreeing to the interviews. (6) Establish the rules of engagement regarding attribution. (7) Watch the program or tapes of it beforehand. Know the show?s format and theme. (8) Read the morning paper in the city where the interview is taking place and listen to the radio or TV news before the interview. (9) Keep your MAJCOM informed and seek their guidance if you are unsure about the interview request.
79
Q
  1. What is tied directly to you or your SMEs success during an interview?
A
  1. The quality of your preparation.
80
Q
  1. What are the ?commercials? you use in an interview?
A
  1. Your messages.
81
Q
  1. What three criteria do good messages meet?
A
  1. (1) They are short. (2) They are memorable. (3) They are relevant.
82
Q
  1. Identify and explain the format you use to couch your message.
A
  1. Message + Facts = Restate Message. State your message, support it with facts, and then close by restating the message.
83
Q
  1. What makes people come across as stilted and pompous?
A
  1. Memorizing their statements.
84
Q
  1. What is the key to conducting a successful interview?
A
  1. Doing your homework. Ensure your SMEs are familiar with the facts supporting their position and are up to date.
85
Q
  1. What types of answers should you avoid?
A
  1. Simple ?yes? or ?no.?
86
Q
  1. Define bridging.
A
  1. Making a smooth transition from the question to a message.
87
Q
  1. Define hooking.
A
  1. Taking advantages of opportunities before and during the interview to help focus on what you want to talk about.
88
Q
  1. What technique can you use to underscore, verbally and nonverbally, what?s important?
A
  1. Flagging.
89
Q
  1. What technique can you use to ensure your messages are remembered?
A
  1. Repeating your messages.
90
Q
  1. List the 12 things you should teach your SME not to do when answering questions.
A
  1. (1) Jargon, acronyms, and technical terms. (2) Oral pauses. (3) Curtness. (4) Answering more than one question at a time. (5) Restating the questions. (6) Giving a ?no comment? response. (7) Getting into a verbal exchange. (8) Volunteering information unless it supports a positive point you want to make. (9) Being defensive. (10) Speaking ?off the record.? (11) Letting someone put words in your mouth. (12) Lying.
91
Q
  1. What can be more important than what you say?
A
  1. Your appearance.
92
Q
  1. List the nine things to do when appearing for an interview on camera?
A
  1. (1) Arrive early. (2) Be vain. (3) Wear makeup if needed. (4) Look natural; avoid heavy makeup. (5) Shave before going to the studio. (6) Wear over-the-calf socks. (7) Tilt glasses down slightly to eliminate glare from lights. (8) For males, wear a medium-tone gray, blue, or brown suit. For females, wear a conservative, solid, medium-color dress or pantsuit.
93
Q
  1. What are some things you should not do when appearing on camera?
A
  1. (1) Wear sunglasses indoors or outdoors. (2) Wear a vest. (3) Wear stripes or checks. (4) Wear white. (5) Wear very light or very dark dresses.
94
Q
  1. In simplest terms, what is the basic role of a UPAR?
A
  1. A person from one of the units assigned to your base who acts as a liaison with the PA shop.
95
Q
  1. After the PAO drafts the UPAR program policy letter, what typically happens?
A
  1. The PAO sends it to the base commander for his or her signature. Once signed, the policy letter is sent to the subordinate unit commanders who are responsible for selecting a UPAR.
96
Q
  1. What is the problem with assigning a UPAR at the Group level to cover all the subordinate units?
A
  1. A single UPAR assigned at the Group level cannot be a functional expert on the wide variety of functions of each sub-unit. Ideally, there should be a UPAR assigned at the squadron level or lower.
97
Q
  1. Where does the drive for the UPAR program start, and what keeps it running?
A
  1. With the senior leadership on your base, and you are the reason it keeps running.
98
Q
  1. What are some questions or concerns a person might have if he or she is assigned as the unit?s UPAR?
A
  1. How would I feel? What do I want? What will it take to motivate me to do a better job?
99
Q
  1. What is the key to making the UPAR program work?
A
  1. Figuring out what it takes to motivate the individual UPAR.
100
Q
  1. What is the key to a successful UPAR training program?
A
  1. Providing consistent introductory training and then augmenting it with subject-specific training throughout the year. It should also be fun for the individual participants.
101
Q
  1. What are some ways to provide recognition for UPARs?
A
  1. Through letters of appreciation, by providing bullet statements of their accomplishments to the UPAR?s supervisor, and by providing opportunities for the UPAR to be the center of attention for media interviews or base tours.
102
Q
  1. What is the purpose of a work order request number?
A
  1. To provide a method to track the work order from the time it arrives in the section until the customer picks it up.
103
Q
  1. How does a customer certify that the work request submitted on the AF 833 is for official business?
A
  1. By signing block 24 of the form certifying that the request is for official use only.
104
Q
  1. The back of the AF 833 is used for documenting what kind of information?
A
  1. The materials provided to the customer and the man-hours used to fulfill the work order request.
105
Q
  1. At a minimum, what information might you find in a work request log?
A
  1. The work order number; the request?s name, organization, and phone number; the date received; a description of work; and the date completed.
106
Q
  1. What are some of the advantages that computer-based work order logs tracking systems offer?
A
  1. They help manage requests, track the total materials used, calculate the material costs, and account for the manpower used to produce the product. Some systems tabulate monthly, quarterly, and annual consumption of materials; total PA production; and generate graphs so you can visually display production figures, expenditures, and average time required to complete work orders.

3N055 CDCs (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions