Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

July > 3.7.2013(OG,PIH)56 > Flashcards

3.7.2013(OG,PIH)56 Flashcards

0
Q

Cause of PIH

A

Lack of invasion of chorionic villi to spiral arterioles
Imbalance btw vasodilators and vasoconstrictors
PG mediated
Free radicals
Low calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

PIH definition

A

BP more than or equal to 140/90 after 20 weeks,2 readings 6 hours apart
Or MAP of more than or equal to 105

No longer used:
Systolic more than 30 or diastolic more than 15 of previous value
MAP increase of 20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Most common organ affected in PIH

A

Kidney(glomerular endotheliosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Liver changes in PIH

A

Periportal hemorrhagic changes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Brain changes in PIH

A

Cerebral Edema
Thrombosis
Hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Heart changes in PIH

A

Subendothelial hemorrhages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Hematological changes in PIH

A 
Hematocrit increased
Thrombin increased
Low platelets
Low fibrinogen
Low plasminogen
Low Antithrombin III
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Weight gain in PIH

A

More than 1 pound a week

More than 5 pounds a month

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Alarming symptoms in PIH

A 
Headache
Epigastric pain 
Visual disturbance 
Decreased urine output
Disturbed sleep
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Complications of PIH

A 
Maternal 
 Eclampsia 
 APH
 PPH
 preterm labor
 Puerperal sepsis
 HELLP
Fetal
 IUD 
 IUGR
 prematurity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Serum Uric acid levels in PIH risk prediction

A

More than 5.9mg/dl

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lab values in PIH

A

Serum proteins decreased

Serum chloride increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definitive Rx of PIH

A

Termination of pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Early detection of PIH

A

Roll over test
Uric acid 5.9mg/dl
Angiotensin sensitivity test
Urine calcium less than or equal to 12mg/dl in 24hrs
uterine artery Doppler showing persistence of diastolic notch after 20-24 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Post partum BP control

A

Enlapril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Rx of APLAS

A

Low dose aspirin

LMWH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Best test to detect APLAS

A

Russell viper venom test

Commonly used test aPTT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drug used for rapid reduction of BP in PIH

A

1.Labetelol
Nifedipine
Hydralzine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Therapeutic range of MgSO4

A

4-7 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Toxic effects of MgSO4

A

10meq/L patellar reflex disappears

12meq/L respiratory paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Antidote for MgSO4 poisoning

A

Calcium gluconate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Drugs used in prevention of PIH

A

Low dose aspirin

Calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

First step in management of eclampsia

A

Airway management

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Dx of HELLP

A 
Hemolysis
  Schistocytes
  Bilirubin greater than 1.2mg/dl
  Absent plasma haptoglobin
Platelets less than 1 lakh
SGOT(AST)more than 72IU/L
LDH more than 600IU/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Menon lytic cocktail

A

CPZ
pethidine
Promethazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Proteinuria in preeclampsia

A

More than 0.3g in 24hr urine sample

More than 0.3g/L in 2 or more midstream specimen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Severe preeclampsia

A

BP more than 160/110
Urine albumin 3+
Imminent symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Earliest sign of PIH

A

Weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Common type of eclampsia

A

Antepartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Risk factors for PIH

A 
Family history
Obesity
Hypertension
DM
APLAS
Thyroid disease
Renal disease
Collagen vascular disease
Placental ischemia
Nulliparous
New paternity
Age less than 20 or greater than 35
Molar pregnancy
Multiple pregnancy
Hydrops with large placenta
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

OG disorders for which smoking is protective

A

PIH
fibroids
Endometriosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Pathological Edema in pregnancy

A

Pitting
Not relieved by rest for more than 12 hrs
Associated with weight gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Epigastric pain in eclampsia ,reason

A

Sub capsular hemorrhage

Hemorrhagic gastritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Most common visual symptom in PIH

A

Scotoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Indicators of severe preeclampsia

A

Pulmonary Edema

IUGR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Grading of proteinuria

A 
Trace 0.1g/L
1+ 0.3g/L
2+ 1g/L
3+ 5g/L
4+ 10g/L
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Fetopathic effects of captopril

A

Pulmonary hypoplasia
RDS
PDA
limb contracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Most common side effect of methyl DOPA

A

Postural hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Beta blocker of choice during pregnancy

A

Normally contraindicated in pregnancy

Propranolol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Second drug of choice for control of hypertension in eclampsia

A

Hydralzine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Rx of status eclampticus

A

Thiopentone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Most common cause of maternal death in eclampsia

A

Intracranial bleeding

ARF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Till when MgSO4 is given

A

Till 24 hrs postpartum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Most common symptom of HELLP

A

Epigastric pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Most common cause of death in HELLP syndrome

A

Abruptio placenta

DIC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

MOA of MgSO4

A

Decreases Ach release
Decreases cerebral edema
Increases cerebral,uterine and renal blood flow
Blocks calcium channels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Parameters to be checked following MgSO4 admn

A

Knee jerks present
Urine output greater than 30ml/hr
Respiratory rate greater than 12/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Contraindications for MgSO4

A

Myasthenia gravis

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Roll over test is done after

A

28-32 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Post partum eclampsia

A

Convulsions seen first time in peurperium within 48 hrs of delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Indications for diuretics in eclampsia

A

Pulmonary edema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Drug to be avoided while pt is being given MgSO4

A

Nifedipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Roll over test

A

Pt turned from lt lateral to supine

Diastolic pressure increase of 20mm or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Predictors of preeclampsia in maternal serum

A

Fetal DNA in maternal serum

Elevated Fibronectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drugs used in prophylaxis of PIH

A 
Calcium
Aspirin
Folic acid
Antioxidants
Omega 3 fatty acids
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Consequences of Rh isoimmunisation are not seen in first pregnancy because

A

IgM antibodies are formed during initial exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Critical sensitising volume of fetomaternal hemorrhage

A

0.1ml

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Rh antigen gene is present on

A

1p

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Erythroblastosis in first pregnancy,causes

A

Prior blood transfusion

Grandmother theory

59
Q

RBC antigens that don’t cause erythroblastosis

A

Lewis

I antigen

60
Q

Conditions predisposing to Rh isoimmunisation

A 
Abortion
Ectopic
Molar
Cesarean
Vaginal
Trauma
Aminiocentesis
Cordocentesis
CVS
attempted version
Manual removal of placenta
Antepartum hemorrhage
POSTDATED pregnancy
61
Q

Antibody titres

A

Safe less than 4IU/ml
Isoimmunisation greater than 4IU/ml or 1:8
Critical titre more than 10IU/ml or 1:16

62
Q

Critical titre

A

1:16 for all antibodies except kell(1:8)

63
Q

Timing of indirect Coombs test

A

Primigravida at 12weeks,28th,34-36 wks

Multigravida 12 weeks,monthly interval after 28wks

64
Q

Time of performance of amniocentesis in Rh incompatibility

A

28-30 wks

10 wks prior to previous pregnancy loss

65
Q

Optical density of amniotic fluid is measure at

A

450nm

66
Q

Management of Rh positive pregnancy according to liley chart

A

Zone 1 repeat every 4 weeks,delivery at term
Zone 2 repeat after 1-2weeks
Zone 3 intrauterine transfusion if less than 34wks ,delivery if greater than 34 wks

67
Q

Indication for fetal blood transfusion

A

Hb 2g/dl below mean

68
Q

Route of blood transfusion

A

Intraperitoneal (small foetuses)

Intravascular

69
Q

Abnormal peak systolic velocity of fetal MCA

A

More than 1.5 MOM

70
Q

Dose of antiD

A

Less than 12wks gestational age 50ug

Beyond 12wks gestational age 300ug

71
Q

Dose of anti D for fetomaternal bleed

A

1ug for 10ml fetomaternal bleed

72
Q

Best time for anti D prophylaxis postpartum

A

Within 72 hrs

Can be given upto 28days

73
Q

Complications of Rh isoimmunisation in mother

A 
Polyhydramnios
Preterm labor
Preeclampsia
Big baby
Hypofibrinogenemia 
PPH
Mmaternal mirror syndrome
74
Q

Maternal mirror syndrome

A 
Generalised Oedema
Pruritis
Proteinuria 
In mother in Rh isoimmunisation
Changes mimic fetal changes
Sign of imminent death of fetus
75
Q

Albumin agglutinins

A

IgG

IgM saline agglutinin

76
Q

X ray of erythroblastosis fetalis

A

Buddha position

77
Q

Fetal effects of Rh incompatibility

A

Severe -erythroblastosis fetalis
Moderate - icterus gravis neonatorum
Mild- congenital Hemolytic Anemia

78
Q

Increased risk of which conditions are seen in icterus gravis neonatorum

A

DIC
thrombocytopenia
NEC
kernicterus

79
Q

Nonimmune causes of hydrops

A 
Cystic hygroma
Trisomies
Cardiac defects and arrythmias
Twin twin transfusion syndrome
Alpha Thalassemia
TORCH 
Diaphragmatic hernia
Chorangioma
Umbilical vein thrombosis
Inborn errors of metabolism
80
Q

Most common cause of infectious hydrops

A

Parvo virus B19

81
Q

Intrauterine infection that doesnot cause hydrops

A

HIV

82
Q

Recurrent hydrops

A

Inborn errors of metabolism

83
Q

First sign of hydrops seen on USG

A

Skin thickness more than 5mm

84
Q

Features of hydrops

A

Increased skin thickness
Placental thickness more than 4cm
Ascites
Pleural effusion

85
Q

Early cord clamping is done for

A 
Rh isoimmunisation(cord is kept long)
Preterm baby
Birth asphyxia
HIV+ mother
Infants of diabetic mother
86
Q

Indication of prophylactic antiD

A

If indirect Coombs test is negative

87
Q

Oral Hypoglycemic that can be given to pregnant women

A

Glyburide

88
Q

Teratogenic effect of oral hypoglycemics

A

Ear defects

89
Q

Effect of SUR on foetus

A

Hypoglycemia
Hyperinsulinemia
Hyperbilirubinemia

90
Q

Daily calorie requirement in pregnant diabetic female

A

30-35Kcal/kg IBW

91
Q

Dietary management in GDM

A

Carbs 50-60%
Protein 20%
Fat 25% with saturated fat less than 10%

92
Q

Aim of dietary therapy in diabetic mothers

A

Fasting 75-95mg/dl
1hr postprandial less than 140mg/dl
2hr postprandial less than 120mg/dl

93
Q

Indication for insulin Rx in GDM

A

FBG more than 105mg/dl and 2hr postprandial more than 120mg/dl even after 2 weeks of treatment

94
Q

OGTT

A

75g of glucose
Fasting more than 125mg%
2hr postprandial more than 140mg%

95
Q

OGTT

Carpenter

A 
Fasting 95
1hr 180
2hr 155
3hr 140
Two or more values should be abnormal
96
Q

OGTT

NDDG values

A 
Fasting 105
1hr 190
2hr 165
3hr 145
Two or more values should be abnormal
97
Q

GCT

A

50g
Performed at 24-28wks(early if risk factors are present)
OGTT done if more than or equal to 140mg/dl
If more than or equal to 200 pt has GDM(no need of OGTT)

98
Q

Effect of hyperglycaemia in pregnancy

A

spontaneous abortion,congenital malformation(early)

Macrosomia(late)

99
Q

Organ not affected by macrosomia

A

Brain

100
Q

Fetal macrosomia,definition

A

More than 4.5kg

101
Q

First sign of developing macrosomia

A

Increased abdominal circumference

102
Q

Most sensitive screening test in diabetic mothers for congenital anomalies

A

HbA1C

103
Q

Indications for GTT

A 
Marked obesity
Strong family history of Type II DM
previous H/O GDM
unexplained still birth
H/O previous congenitally malformed baby
104
Q

Most common anomaly in DM in pregnancy

A

CVS

2nd is CNS

105
Q

Most specific anomaly for GDM

A

Caudal regression syndrome/sacral agenesis

106
Q

Most common cardiac anomaly in GDM

A

VSD
ASD
TGA
Coarctation of aorta

107
Q

CNS anomalies in GDM

A

Anencephaly

Spina bifida

108
Q

Chromosomal abnormalities in GDM

A

Not associated

109
Q

Effects of GDM on foetus

A 
Increased chances of abortion
Unexplained intrauterine death
Prematurity
IUGR
congeintal malformations
Macrosomia
Shoulder dystocia
110
Q

GDM effects on neonates

A 
RDS
Hypoglycemia
Hypocalcemia 
Hypokalemia
Hypomagnesimia 
Polycythemia
Hyperbilirubinemia 
Hyper viscosity syndrome
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
Birth trauma- Erb and klumpke paralysis
111
Q

Most common organ affected by macrosomia

A

Abdomen

112
Q

Fetal hyperinsulinemia due to GDM is explained by

A

Pederson hypothesis

113
Q

Drug of choice for tocolysis in pregnant diabetic pt

A

MgSO4

114
Q

Maternal complications of GDM

A 
During pregnancy
  abortion
  Preeclampsia
  Polyhydramnios
  Preterm delivery
  Ketoacidosis
  UTI and vulvovaginal candidiasis 
Lactation failure
Puerperal sepsis
115
Q

Females with GDM have ______ % chance of developing DM2 in later life

A

35-50%

116
Q

Late complications of GDM infants

A

Diabetes
Obesity
Risk for CVD

117
Q

Conditions associated with single umblical artery

A

Twins
GDM infants
Polyhydramnios

118
Q

Advanced placental grading is a feature of

A

PIH

119
Q

Tests for fetal lung maturity

A 
L/S ratio
Phosphatidyl glycerol(best marker)
DPPC
clement test/shake test
Abbot TDx fetal lung maturity(measures surfactant to albumin ratio)
120
Q

Normal CVS changes in pregnancy

A 
Apex beat shifted to lt 4th ICS
PR increased
Split 1st sound
Systolic murmur
Lt axis deviation
Enlarged cardiac shadow in X ray
Cardiac out put increased by 40%
Mid pregnancy drop in diastolic pressure
Peripheral resistance is decreased
121
Q

Plasma volume increase in pregnancy

A

50%

But RBC increase is only 20%

122
Q

Persistent neck vein distension in pregnancy

A

Indicator of cardiac disease

123
Q

Increase in cardiac output during pregnancy

A 
10wks
32wks
2nd stage of labor 
Immediate postpartum(max)
1 week after delivery
124
Q

Admission of pt based on NYHA class

A

Class 1 normal term
Class 2 28wks
Class 3 and 4 immediately

125
Q

Heart diseases where vaginal delivery is contraindicated

A

Coarctation of aorta
Marfan with aortic root dilatation more than 4cm
Aortic aneurysm

126
Q

Induction in heart disease complicating pregnancy

A

Safe

127
Q

Fluid balance in heart disease complicating pregnancy

A

Not more than 75ml/hr

128
Q

Contraindication of ergometrine

A

Heart disease complicating pregnancy
Rh isoimmunisation
PIH
multiple pregnancy

129
Q

Group 3 cardiac disease

A

PPH
eisenmenger
Marfan with aortic root dilatation
Complicated aortic coarctation

130
Q

Absolute indications for termination of pregnancy

A

PPH
eisenmenger
Pulmonary veno occlusive disease

131
Q

Most common cause of heart disease in pregnant women

A

RHD(congenital Heart disease in western countries)

132
Q

Most common valvular lesion in pregnancy

A

Mitral stenosis

133
Q

Most common congenital heart disease in pregnant women

A

ASD

134
Q

Most common cause of death in eisenmenger syndrome

A

Right ventricular failure with cardiogenic shock

135
Q

IE prophylaxis in pregnant women

A

Structural defects
Artificial valves

Ampicillin with gentamycin is given at the onset of labor or ruptured membranes

136
Q

IE prophylaxis unnecessary in pregnant women with which cardiac lesions

A

corrected PDA
ASD(Ostium secundum)
MVP without MR

137
Q

Sx procedure of choice for MS in pregnancy

A

Balloon mitral valvoplasty

138
Q

Normal mitral valve area

A

4cm2

139
Q

Stenosis grading based on size

A

Critical less than 1cm2
Moderate 1-2.5 cm2
Mild 2.5-4cm2

140
Q

Fetal growth restriction is seen when mitral stenosis is (size)

A

Less than 1cm2

141
Q

Sterilisation (tubectomy) in Heart disease complicating pregnancy

A

After 1 week in peurperium

142
Q

Anti coagulation in pregnancy,first trimester

A

Discontinue warfarin at 6 weeks of conception

IV heparin in high risk cases and sub cutaneous heparin in low risk cases is given twice daily from 6th to 12 th week

143
Q

Warfarin is given in pregnancy from

A

12th week to 36 weeks

144
Q

Heparin should be stopped ________ hours before delivery

A

6

145
Q

Heparin should be started ______ hrs after delivery

A

6 hours after vaginal

24 hrs after Caesarian

146
Q

Warfarin must be restarted after how days postpartum

A

3 days

July (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions