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Unit 3 Disease Charts > 3.5 > Flashcards

3.5 Flashcards

1
Q

do panic attacks have sudden or gradual onset

A

sudden

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2
Q

when do panic attacks peak

A

within 10 minutes (usually)

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3
Q

when do panic attack resolve

A

usually within 1 hour (most end within 30 min)

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4
Q

hallmark signs of panic attack

A

sense of impending doom or dread

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5
Q

first line treatment for panic attack

A

BZDs

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6
Q

average onset of panic disorder

A

20s

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7
Q

what increases your risk of developing panic disorder

A

1st degree relative

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8
Q

most people with panic disorder also have

A

major depression (65%)

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9
Q

how many panic attacks do you have to have to be diagnosed with panic disorder

A

at least 2 attacks that may or may not be related to a trigger

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10
Q

anxiety about being in places or situations from which escape may be difficult

A

agoraphobia

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11
Q

what is most effective for treatment of panic disorder

A

pharmacotherapy + CBT

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12
Q

in what population is generalized anxiety disorder most common

A

females

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13
Q

in what age does onset of symptoms for GAD generally occur

A

early 20s

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14
Q

in majority of cases of GAD, patients also have comorbidity with

A

major depression or other anxiety disorders

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15
Q

excessive anxiety and worry must occur for majority of days and for how long in GAD

A

at least 6 months

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16
Q

is generalized anxiety disorder episodic

A

no

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17
Q

is panic disorder episodic

A

yes

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18
Q

what is most effective treatment for GAD

A

psychotherapy + pharmacotherapy

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19
Q

stimulation or overactivity of what part of the brain may cause anxiety disorders

A

amygdala

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20
Q

hyperventilation syndrome

A

increase in minute ventilation that exceeds metabolic needs

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21
Q

does hyperventilation syndrome cause respiratory alkalosis or acidosis

A

respiratory alkalosis

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22
Q

what are carpopedal spasms, which are associated with hyperventilation syndrome

A

frequent and involuntary muscles contractions in the hands and feet that are associated with pain

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23
Q

what population of people does major depressive disorder affect more?

A

females

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24
Q

peak onset of major depressive disorder

A

20s

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25
Q

main NT affected in MDD

A

norepinephrine
serotonin
dopamine

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26
Q

how long must you experience symptoms to be diagnosed with MDD

A

at least 2 weeks

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27
Q

persistent depressive disorder is also called

A

dysthymia

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28
Q

in what population is dysthymia more common

A

females

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29
Q

for how long do you have to meet criteria to be diagnosed with dysthymia

A

at least 2 years in adults
at least 1 year in children/adolescents

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30
Q

what is the strongest risk factor for developing bipolar I disorder

A

1st degree family relative

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31
Q

what population is more affected by bipolar I disorder

A

men and women are equally affected

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32
Q

what increases the likelihood of psychotic features and poor prognosis in people diagnosed with bipolar I disorder

A

earlier onset

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33
Q

what is the only criteria to be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder

A

at least 1 manic or mixed episode

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34
Q

are major depressive episodes required for diagnosis of bipolar I disorder

A

no

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35
Q

abnormal and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood

A

mania

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36
Q

how long does mania have to last to be diagnosed with bipolar I disorder

A

at least 1 week (or less if hospitalization required)

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37
Q

is cyclothymic disorder more or less severe than bipolar II disorder

A

cyclothymic disorder is less severe

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38
Q

abnormal and persistently elevated, expansive or irritable mood at least 4 days that does not require hospitalization and is not associated with marked impairment of social/occupational function

A

hypomania

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39
Q

how long do you have to have symptoms to be diagnosed with cyclothymic disorder

A

at least 2 consecutive years
at least 1 year in children

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40
Q

cyclothymic disorder is characterized by

A

hypomanic symptoms that fall short of meeting criteria for a full hypomanic episode
numerous periods of mild to moderate depressive symptoms that fall short of meeting criteria for a major depressive disorder

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41
Q

how long are patients symptomatic in cyclothymic disorder

A

at least half the day (present more days than not)
not symptom free for more than 2 consecutive months

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42
Q

what has to be present to be diagnosed with bipolar II disorder

A

at least 1 major depressive episode + at least 1 hypomanic episode

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43
Q

how long does mood disturbance occur in bipolar II disorder

A

at least 4 consecutive days

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44
Q

are episodes in bipolar II severe enough to cause marked impairment in social or occupational function or necessitate hospitalization?

A

no

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45
Q

are episodes in bipolar I severe enough to cause marked impairment in social or occupational function or necessitate hospitalization?

A

yes

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46
Q

what is the strongest predict factor of suicide

A

previous attempt

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47
Q

who attempts suicide more

A

females

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48
Q

who is more successful at committing suicide

A

males

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49
Q

who has the highest risk of suicide in the US

A

elderly white men

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50
Q

what is serotonin syndrome

A

potentially life-threatening syndrome due INCREASED serotonergic activity in CNS

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51
Q

cognitive effects in serotonin syndrome

A

anxiety
agitation
confusion

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52
Q

GI effects of serotonin

A

nausea
vomiting
increased bowel sounds
diarrhea

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53
Q

autonomic instability in serotonin syndrome

A

hyperthermia
tachycardia
hypertension
diaphoresis

54
Q

neuromuscular hyperactivity in serotonin syndrome

A

tremor
spontaneous clonus
hypertonia
hyperreflexia
muscle rigidity
positive babinksi

55
Q

what will you notice about the pupils in someone with serotonin syndrome

A

mydriasis (dilated pupils)

56
Q

during what season in seasonal affective disorder most common

A

winter

57
Q

SAD is a subtype of

A

major depressive disorder
bipolar I disorder
bipolar II disorder

58
Q

in what latitudes of the world do people have increased risk of SAD

A

northern latitudes

59
Q

CHRONIC condition in which the patient has prominent physical symptoms but not physical cause found on work up and is associated with significant distress or functional impairment

A

somatic symptom disorder

60
Q

how may body systems are affected in somatic symptom disorder

A

at least 1

61
Q

what population does somatic symptoms disorder most commonly affect

A

females

62
Q

the state of being symptomatic is persistent and usually lasts how long in somatic symptom disorder

A

usually > 6 months

63
Q

people with somatic symptom disorder predominantly complain of

A

pain

64
Q

are symptoms faked by patient in somatic symptom disorder

A

no

65
Q

Screening for alcohol abuse

A

Audit-C or CAGE

66
Q

What population is most affected by migraine headaches

A

females

67
Q

what is the most common type of migraine

A

migraine without aura (75%)

68
Q

is migraine usually bilateral or unilateral

A

usually unilateral

69
Q

where is a migraine headache usually localized

A

frontotemporal & ocular area

70
Q

migraine is often associated with

A

nausea
vomiting
photophobia
phonophobia

71
Q

how long do auras last in migraines

A

< 60 minutes

72
Q

most common type of aura in migraine

A

visual

73
Q

does pain worsen with movement in migraine

A

yes

74
Q

what population of people is more affected in cluster headaches

A

males

75
Q

what increases risk of cluster headache

A

alcohol
tobacco use
prior brain surgery/trauma
family history

76
Q

when are cluster headaches typically worse

A

at night

77
Q

are cluster headaches bilateral or unilateral

A

unilateral

78
Q

how long do cluster headaches typically last

A

< 2 hours

79
Q

will autonomic symptoms be ipsilateral or contralateral in cluster headache

A

ipsilateral

80
Q

in what type of headache do we see partial Horner’s syndrome

A

cluster headache

81
Q

what is partial Horner’s syndrome

A

ptosis and/or miosis

82
Q

other symptoms that we will see on ipsilateral side during cluster headache

A

nasal congestion/rhinorrhea
conjunctival injection
lacrimation
eyelid edema
facial swelling

83
Q

first line treatment for cluster headaches

A

100% oxygen

84
Q

what is the most common overall cause of primary headache

A

tension headache

85
Q

are tension headaches bilateral or unilateral

A

bilateral

86
Q

are tension headaches worse with activity

A

no

87
Q

trigeminal neuralgia occurs due to compression of what nerve root

A

trigeminal nerve root

88
Q

what compresses the trigeminal nerve root in trigeminal neuralgia

A

superior cerebellar artery or a tortuous vein

89
Q

in what population and time period is trigeminal neuralgia most common

A

middle-aged women

90
Q

headache pain in trigeminal neuralgia

A

brief
episodic
severe
stabbing
sharb
lancinating
shock-like

91
Q

how long do trigeminal neuralgia headaches tend to last

A

a few seconds (up to 2 minutes)

92
Q

when is trigeminal neuralgia worse

A

washing face
brushing teeth
touching those areas
shaving
talking
chewing
grimacing
exposure to a draft of air

93
Q

why is MRI recommended in patients presenting with trigeminal neuralgia

A

to rule out MS

94
Q

medication overuse headache/rebound headache occurs

A

15 or more days per month for > 3 months

95
Q

what does cerebellum slip through in chiari malfomation

A

foramen magnum

96
Q

what are chiari malformations commonly due to

A

underdevelopment of posterior fossa

97
Q

only cerebellar tonsils herniate into foramen magnum

A

type 1 chiari malformation

98
Q

what ventricle is compressed in type 1 chiari malformation

A

4th ventricle

99
Q

what can result from type 1 chiari malformation

A

syringomyelia

100
Q

what is syringomyelia

A

fluid pools in spinal canal

101
Q

what incomplete spinal cord syndrome does syringomyelia cause

A

central cord syndrome

102
Q

what is type 2 chiari malformation also called

A

arnold-chiari malformation

103
Q

which is more severe between type 1 and type 2 chiari malformations

A

type 2 chiari malformation is more severe

104
Q

herniation of cerebellar tonsils and cerebellar vermis

A

type 2 chiari malformation

105
Q

what type of spina bifida are type 2 chiari malformations commonly associated with

A

myelomeningocele

106
Q

what type of headaches occur in type 2 chiari malformations

A

occipital headaches

107
Q

what will you see on brain MRI for chiari malformations

A

cerebellar structures are more than 5 mm below foramen magnum

108
Q

surgery for chiari malformations

A

posterior fossa decompression surgery / craniotomy

109
Q

idiopathic intracranial hypertension is also called

A

pseudotumor cerebri

110
Q

what is pseudotumor cerebri

A

idiopathic increased intracranial pressure on CSF exam with no clear identifiable cause evident on neuroimaging

111
Q

in what population is pseudotumor cerebri most common

A

overweight women of childbearing age
(female, fat, fertile)

112
Q

medications that may cause pseudotumor cerebri

A

withdrawal from long-term corticosteroids
vitamin A toxicity

113
Q

most common presenting symptom in pseudotumor cerebri

A

headache

114
Q

when does pain worsen in pseudotumor cerebri

A

eye movement

115
Q

what is the hallmark on funduscopic exam for pseudotumor cerebri

A

papilledema (usually bilateral and symmetric)

116
Q

what vision deficits may be seen in pseudotumor cerebri

A

visual field loss

117
Q

what cranial nerve palsy will we see in pseudotumor cerebri

A

cranial nerve 6 palsy

118
Q

what can cranial nerve 6 palsy cause

A

diplopia

119
Q

what will we seen on LP in pseudotumor cerebri

A

increased CSF pressure (250 or greater) + otherwise normal CSF

120
Q

infection of the brain parenchyma

A

encephalitis

121
Q

most common identified virus in encephalitis

A

HSV-1

122
Q

what distinguishes encephalitis from aseptic meningitis

A

altered mental status
change in personality, speech, and movement

123
Q

what lobe is commonly involved if HSV-1 is the cause of encephalitis

A

temporal lobe

124
Q

first line treatment for encephalitis

A

acyclovir

125
Q

what type of waves will you see in deep sleep (stage 3)

A

delta waves

126
Q

in a spinal test, what should you look for in someone with sleep issues

A

hypocretin levels
hypocretin is an NT that helps regulate sleep

127
Q

Willis-Ekbom disease is also called

A

restless leg syndrome

128
Q

most common cause of restless leg syndrome

A

CNS iron deficiency

129
Q

when are symptoms worse for RLS

A

in the evening
with prolonged periods of rest or inactivity

130
Q

When are symptoms better for RLS

A

With leg movement

Unit 3 Disease Charts (7 decks)

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