Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pharm > 343 exam 2 meds > Flashcards

343 exam 2 meds Flashcards

1
Q

What does digitalis (digoxin) do?

A
  • increases myocardial contractility -> more forceful contractions of the heart
  • decreases HR and improves cardiac output
  • increases coronary artery blood flow
  • increases urine production
  • helps with edema, exertional and paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, cough, and cyanosis
  • decreases preload and increases stroke volume
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are side effects/adverse effects of digoxin?

A
  • bradycardia
  • dysrhythmias
  • anorexia**
  • N/V**
  • diarrhea**
  • headache
  • dizziness
  • blurred or yellow/green vision**
  • halos around lights**
  • confusion
  • weakness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are signs of digitalis/digoxin toxicity?

A
  • anorexia
  • N/V
  • diarrhea
  • blurred vision
  • yellow/green vision
  • halos around lights
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the antidote for digitalis toxicity?

A

digoxin immune fab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are some contraindications for digoxin?

A
  • HR below 60
  • signs of digitalis toxicity
  • digoxin level >2 ng/mL (toxicity)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking digoxin?

A

teach the patient how to check pulse daily (before taking digoxin) and report side effects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what will the nurse monitor for in a patient taking digoxin?

A
  • peripheral/pulmonary edema
  • HR
  • serum digoxin level
  • serum K+ level (for hypokalemia)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what does milrinone lactate do?

A
  • promotes stronger heart beat
  • increases stroke volume and cardiac output
  • vasodilation
  • used as a “last resort” medication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

administer IV milrinone lactate no longer than __ to __ hours to avoid severe cardiac dysrhythmias

A

48 to 72 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are some adverse effects of milrinone lactate?

A
  • dysrhythmias
  • hypotension
  • angina
  • hypokalemia
  • tremors
  • thrombocytopenia (decreased platelets)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do nitrates do?

A
  • promote vasodilation
  • decrease preload and afterload
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are some side effects/adverse effects of nitrates?

A
  • headache
  • hypotension**
  • flushing
  • dizziness
  • weakness
    -syncope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what patient education does the nurse provide to a patient taking a nitrate (such as nitroglycerin)?

A
  • do not abruptly discontinue (if taking continuously)
  • if using transdermal patch, allow a nitrate-free period at bedtime
  • burning sensation with nitroglycerin indicates the drug is still potent
  • never chew or swallow sublingual nitroglycerin
  • lie down if nitroglycerin is needed**
  • can take up to 3 tablets 5 minutes apart. call 911 if second tablet is taken
  • teach pt proper application of nitrate topical ointments/transdermal forms (site rotation, removal of old medication, etc.)
  • teach pt how to check their own pulse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking anti-dysrhythmics (such as beta-adrenergic blockers)?

A
  • tell pt to report side effects/adverse reactions
  • advise pt to avoid alcohol, caffeine, and tobacco
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what do diuretic drugs generally do?

A
  • accelerate rate of urine formation
  • removes sodium and water
  • used to treat HTN, HF, edema, and renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

if a patient loses 2.2 lbs, how much fluid has the patient lost?

A

1 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is a contraindication for diuretics?

A
  • gout or renal stones (it can increase uric acid levels)
  • renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what should the nurse monitor in a patient taking diuretics?

A
  • daily weights
  • fluid/electrolyte balance (especially hyponatremia)
  • urine output
  • check peripheral extremities for edema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics do?

A
  • promote sodium, chloride, and water excretion
  • first-line treatment for HTN
  • treats peripheral edema
  • acts on distal convoluted renal tubule
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are some side effects/adverse reactions of thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics?

A
  • sodium and K+ LOSS**
  • elevated calcium, lipids, uric acid**
  • dizziness, headache, hypotension, urticaria
  • GI distress, constipation, hyperglycemia**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking a thiazide diuretic?

A
  • suggest that the patient take the drug early in the morning to avoid sleep disturbance from nocturia
  • instruct patient to slowly change positions from lying to standing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what is the most important electrolyte for the nurse to monitor in a patient taking a loop diuretic or thiazide diuretic?

A

potassium (for hypokalemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does a loop diuretic do?

A
  • excrete sodium, water, potassium, calcium, magnesium
  • acts on the ascending loop of Henle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are some side effects/adverse reactions of loop diuretics?

A
  • hypokalemia**
  • elevated glucose and uric acid
  • dehydration
  • photosensitivity
  • tinnitus**
  • blurred vision
  • rash
  • can be neurotoxic and nephrotoxic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how can loop diuretics put a patient at increased risk for digoxin toxicity?

A

if the patient has hypokalemia, it can increase the effects of digoxin, leading to toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what will the nurse monitor in a patient taking a loop diuretic?

A
  • check electrolytes/fluid balance
  • check potassium**
  • fluid intake (to prevent dehydration)
  • monitor for dysrhythmias in people taking digoxin
  • fall precautions if appropriate
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what patient teaching will the nurse provide to a patient taking a loop diuretic?

A
  • instruct patient to slowly change positions from lying to standing
  • encourage addition of high potassium foods or potassium supplements
  • suggest that the patient take the drug early in the morning to avoid sleep disturbance from nocturia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what do osmotic diuretics do?

A
  • increase sodium reabsorption in the proximal tubule and the loop of henle
  • excrete sodium, chloride, potassium, water
  • used to excrete toxic substances
  • decreases ICP and IOP
  • causes rapid diuresis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what are some side effects/adverse reactions to osmotic diuretics?

A
  • blurred vision
  • fluid and electrolyte imbalances**
  • GI distress
  • acidosis
  • pulmonary edema
  • tachycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are some contraindications for osmotic diuretics?

A
  • heart disease
  • HF
  • renal failure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what do carbonic anhydrase inhibitors do?

A
  • excrete sodium, potassium, and bicarbonate
  • block action of enzyme carbonic anhydrase
  • decrease IOP in patients with open-angle glaucoma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what are some side effects of carbonic anhydrase inhibitors?

A
  • confusion
  • orthostatic hypotension
  • GI distress
  • metabolic acidosis
  • fluid/electrolyte imbalance
  • crystalluria
  • renal calculi
  • hemolytic anemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what do potassium-sparing diuretics (aldosterone inhibiting diuretics) do?

A
  • promote sodium/water excretion and potassium retention
  • blocks action of aldosterone at the receptor
  • used for edema from HR, cirrhosis of liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what are some side effects/adverse reactions to potassium-sparing diuretics?

A
  • photosensitivity
  • dizziness
  • headache
  • weakness
  • GI distress
  • paresthesia
  • hyperkalemia
  • hyperuricemia
  • muscle cramps
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what should the nurse monitor in a patient taking potassium-sparing diuretics?

A
  • urinary output
  • vital signs
  • hyperkalemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking potassium-sparing diuretics?

A
  • take in the morning to avoid nocturia
  • advise patients with high serum potassium levels to avoid foods high in potassium
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what do beta-adrenergic blockers generally do?

A
  • decrease HR and BP
  • decrease force of contraction
  • decrease rate of AV conduction
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what do beta blockers usually end in?

A

-olol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what is the difference between nonselective and cardioselective beta blockers?

A

nonselective: inhibits beta1 and beta2 receptors (affects the heart and lungs)
cardioselective: inhibits beta1 receptors (affects only the heart)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what are the side effects of beta blockers?

A
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • dizziness
  • insomnia
  • nightmares
  • fatigue
  • depression
  • ED**
  • bronchospasm**
  • wheezing **
  • abnormal blood glucose**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

which patients should nurses be careful with when administering nonselective beta blockers?

A
  • diabetics
  • respiratory related issue patients (asthma, COPD, etc)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what should the nurse monitor for before administering a beta blocker?

A

pulse
signs of CHF or hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what patient education can the nurse provide to a patient taking a beta blocker?

A
  • teach patient to take their pulse
  • fatigue will improve with time
  • discuss bradycardia
  • possible sexual dysfunction
  • need to regularly monitor lipid levels
  • educate patients to not stop taking suddenly**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what do centrally acting alpha2 agonists do?

A
  • stimulate alpha2 receptors
  • decrease cardiac output
  • decrease epinephrine, norepinephrine, and renin release
  • increases vagus activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what is a contraindication for centrally acting alpha2 agonists?

A

impaired liver function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what are some side effects of centrally acting alpha2 agonists?

A
  • significant dizziness
  • drowsiness
  • dry mouth
  • headache
  • peripheral edema
  • bradycardia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what patient teaching will the nurse provide to a patient taking a centrally acting alpha2 agonist?

A
  • do not abruptly stop taking the drug. rebound hypertension may result
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what do alpha-adrenergic blockers do?

A
  • block the alpha-adrenergic receptors
  • result in vasodilation and decreased blood pressure
  • relaxes smooth muscle of the prostate and bladder neck- good choice for males with BPH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what are some side effects of alpha-adrenergic blockers?

A
  • orthostatic hypotension**
  • first dose syncope and hypotension
  • tachycardia
  • headache
  • drowsiness
  • dizziness
  • nausea
  • nasal congestion
  • edema**
  • weight gain**
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are some nursing considerations for a patient taking an alpha adrenergic blocker?

A
  • make sure first dose is taken at night (hypotension)
  • assist with position change
  • monitor VS until stable
  • discuss how to treat dry mouth and nausea
  • advise patient to take medication at night due to orthostatic hypotension
51
Q

what do alpha1 and beta1 adrenergic blockers do?

A
  • block alpha1 and beta1 receptors to decrease BP and HR
52
Q

what are some side effects of alpha1 and beta1 adrenergic blockers?

A
  • hypotension
  • bradycardia
  • paresthesia
  • depression
  • nasal congestion
  • nausea
  • ED
53
Q

what will the nurse monitor for in a patient taking beta-adrenergic blockers?

A
  • vital signs
  • lab results (especially BUN, serum creatinine, AST, and LDH)
54
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking a beta-adrenergic blocker?

A
  • do not abruptly stop taking beta blockers, as it can cause rebound hypertension
  • advice patients to avoid over-the-counter drugs without first checking with a HCP (because some drugs, such as sudafed, will reverse effects of the beta blocker)
55
Q

what will the nurse monitor for in a patient who takes an alpha-adrenergic blocker?

A
  • vital signs
  • check daily weight
  • check for fluid retention in extremities/edema
56
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking alpha-adrenergic blockers?

A
  • teach patient to monitor daily weights
  • inform patients that orthostatic hypotension may occur
  • advise patients to comply with the drug regimen
57
Q

what do direct-acting arteriolar vasodilators do?

A

relax smooth muscles of blood vessels, causing vasodilation (long-term treatment)

58
Q

what are some side effects of direct-acting arteriolar vasodilators?

A
  • hypotension
  • reflex tachycardia
  • palpitations
  • headaches
  • dizziness
  • edema
  • angina
  • paresthesia
59
Q

what do angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors do?

A
  • relax veins and arteries to decrease blood pressure
  • prevents Na and H2O resorption and increases renal perfusion
  • causes diuresis
  • prevents conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II
60
Q

what are some side effects of ACE inhibitors?

A
  • first dose hypotension***
  • hyperkalemia*** (K+ retention)
  • angioedema***
  • nonproductive cough
  • N/V
  • tachycardia
  • hypotension
61
Q

what do ACE inhibitors usually end in?

A

-pril

62
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking ACE inhibitors?

A
  • take first dose at night (due to hypotension)
  • take on empty stomach to increase absorption
63
Q

what are some contraindications for ACE inhibitors?

A
  • pregnancy
  • potassium-sparing diuretics
  • salt substitutes that contain potassium
  • caution with renal insufficiency
  • patients with renal damage
64
Q

what do ARBs (angiotensin II receptor blockers) usually end in?

A

-sartan

65
Q

what do ARBs (angiotensin II receptor blockers) do?

A
  • prevent release of aldosterone
  • allow angiotensin I to be converted to angiotensin II, but block angiotensin II from angiotensin I receptors
66
Q

what are some side effects of ARBs (Angiotensin II receptor blockers)?

A
  • first dose hypotension ***
  • orthostatic hypotension***
  • hyperkalemia***
  • dizziness
  • fatigue
  • edema
  • hyperglycemia
67
Q

what is the difference between ACE inhibitors’ side effects and ARBs’ side effects?

A

ACE inhibitors: nonproductive, dry cough; angioedema
ARB: has no cough, angioedema is rare

68
Q

what do calcium channel blockers (CCBs) do?

A
  • block calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle cells promoting vasodilation
  • decreased peripheral vascular resistance, BP, cardiac workload, and myocardial oxygen demand
69
Q

what are some side effects/adverse reactions to calcium channel blockers?

A
  • peripheral edema**
  • constipation**
  • bradycardia**
  • weakness, fatigue
  • blurred vision
  • hypotension
  • nausea
70
Q

what are some nursing considerations when caring for a patient who takes calcium channel blockers?

A
  • increase fluids and fiber (for constipation)
  • daily weights (for edema)
  • caution when using with beta blockers or digoxin
  • change positions slowly
  • avoid grapefruit juice
71
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient who takes calcium channel blockers?

A
  • teach patient to check pulse
  • if pt’s HR is below 60, do not take CCB
  • daily weights at home (for edema)
  • lots of fluids and fiber (for constipation)
72
Q

what is the antidote for heparin?

A

protamine sulfate

73
Q

which test monitors heparin?

A

aPTTs (activated partial thromboplastin times)

74
Q

what are some nursing considerations when caring for a patient who takes heparin?

A
  • do not aspirate SCT injections or massage injection site
  • do not give SCT dose within 2 in. of umbilicus, abdominal incisions, or open wounds, scars,, drainage tubes, stomas
  • do not give aspirin concurrently
  • monitor aPTT before administering
  • examine pt’s nose, mouth, skin, urine for bleeding
  • frequent lab monitoring is not required
  • no NSAIDS- tylenol only
75
Q

what is heparin used for?

A
  • preventing DVT and acute PE after surgery
  • lower risk of bleeding
76
Q

what is the antidote for warfarin?

A

vitamin K

77
Q

what does warfarin do?

A

anticoagulant that inhibits synthesis of vitamin K (“clotting” vitamin)

78
Q

what are some nursing considerations when caring for a patient who takes warfarin?

A
  • monitor PT-INR regularly
  • no NSAIDS - tylenol only
  • highly protein bound - be careful with drug interactions
  • examine pt’s nose, mouth, skin, urine for bleeding
79
Q

what patient education would you provide to a patient who is taking warfarin or heparin?

A
  • use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums, use electric razors
  • avoid eating large amounts of green, leafy vegetables (vitamin K) or be consistent with intake
  • inform dentist when taking an anticoagulant
80
Q

what are selective factor Xa inhibitors?

A

anticoagulants that put patients at less risk for bleeding and works for patients with financial constraints (since this does not require blood work)

81
Q

what do antiplatelets do?

A
  • causes peripheral vasodilation
  • inhibits platelet aggregation
82
Q

what does aspirin do?

A
  • antiplatelet that inhibits an enzyme needed by platelets
  • used to prevent MI and thromboembolism, prevention and treatment of stroke
83
Q

what do thrombolytics do?

A
  • treat PE, DVT, thromboembolism, thrombolytic stroke by dissolving blood clot
  • degrades the clotting factors
84
Q

what are some side effects/adverse reactions of thrombolytics?

A
  • anaphylaxis
  • dysrhythmias
  • hemorrhage
85
Q

what should the nurse monitor for when caring for a patient who takes thrombolytics?

A
  • monitor vital signs
  • observe for signs and symptoms of active bleeding
  • observe for signs of allergic reaction to thrombolytics
  • avoid administering aspirin or NSAIDs for pain
  • avoid venipuncture/arterial sticks
  • monitor for decreased LOC
86
Q

what do bile-acid sequestrants do?

A

reduce LDL cholesterol levels by binding with bile acids in the intestine (soaks up cholesterol like a sponge)

87
Q

what are some side effects of bile-acid sequestrants

A
  • constipation**
  • flatulence**
  • steatorrhea**
  • anorexia
  • N/V
  • GI bleeding/distention
  • folate deficiency
88
Q

what do fibrates do?

A

reduce triglycerides and VLDL

89
Q

what are some side effects of fibrates?

A
  • dizziness
  • headache
  • N/V
  • diarrhea
  • cholethiasis
  • elevated hepatic enzymes
90
Q

what type of drug is contraindicated when taking fibrates?

A

anticoagulants

91
Q

what does niacin do?

A

it is a B vitamin that helps reduce VLDL and LDL

92
Q

what are some side effects of niacin?

A
  • dizziness
  • headache
  • hypotension
  • edema
  • GI distress
  • flushing***
  • liver damage
  • hyperglycemia
  • hyperuricemia
93
Q

how can you prevent flushing when taking niacin?

A

take aspirin 30 minutes before taking niacin

94
Q

what do statins (HMG CoA reductase inhibitors) do?

A

they decrease LDLs and increase HDLs, first-line treatment for elevated cholesterol

95
Q

what are some side effects of statins?

A
  • headache
  • fatigue
  • GI distress
  • rhabdomyolysis ***
  • muscle cramps ***
  • hyperglycemia
96
Q

what are some interactions with statins that put the patient at increased risk of rhabdomyolysis?

A
  • macrolide antibiotics (erythromycin)
  • CCB
  • amiodarone
  • oral antifungal medications
  • grapefruit juice
  • digoxin (increases digoxin levels)
97
Q

what will the nurse monitor for when caring for a patient who takes anti-hyperlipidemics?

A
  • monitor the patient’s blood lipid levels**
  • wait 3 months to recheck blood lipid level if too high
  • monitor lab values for liver function**
  • observe for signs and symptoms of GI upset
98
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient who is taking anti-hyperlipidemics?

A
  • it may take several weeks before blood lipid levels decline
  • instruct patient to have annual eye examinations and report changes in visual acuity
  • take anti-hyperlipidemic with biggest meal of the day
99
Q

what medications help improve peripheral blood flow?

A
  • ACE inhibitor
  • alpha blocker
  • CCB
  • statins
100
Q

what are some side effects of antiplatelets?

A
  • dizziness
  • headache
  • peripheral edema
  • GI distress
  • abnormal stools
  • tachycardia
  • palpitations
  • dysrhythmias
  • orthostatic hypotension
101
Q

what do hemorrheologics do?

A
  • decrease blood viscosity, inhibits platelet aggregation
  • improves perfusion
102
Q

what are some side effects of hemorrheologics?

A
  • N/V
  • confusion
  • edema
  • cholestasis
103
Q

what does excessive dosing of hemorrheologics look like?

A
  • blurred vision
  • hypotension
  • tachycardia
104
Q

what will the nurse do when caring for a patient who takes an adrenergic agonist?

A
  • monitor vital signs
  • report tachycardia, palpitations, tremors, dizziness, hypertension, increased BP, and dysrhythmias
  • monitor IV site for infiltration
105
Q

what do adrenergic antagonists do?

A

they block effects of adrenergic neurotransmitter by blocking the alpha and beta receptor sites

106
Q

what are some of the effects of alpha1 adrenergic antagonists?

A
  • vasodilation
  • orthostatic hypotension***
  • dizziness
  • pupil constriction
  • suppresses ejaculation
  • reduces contraction of smooth muscles in bladder neck and prostate
107
Q

what are some of the effects of beta-adrenergic antagonists?

A
  • decrease BP and HR
  • bronchoconstriction**
108
Q

why do nurses use beta2 adrenergic antagonists with caution in patients with COPD or asthma?

A

it can cause bronchoconstriction

109
Q

what will the nurse monitor for when caring for a patient who takes a direct-acting cholinergic agonsit?

A
  • monitor BP and HR
  • have patient rise slowly from lying to standing to avoid orthostatic hypotension
  • auscultate breath sounds for crackles
  • monitor pt for cholinergic crisis (overdose)
110
Q

what are some signs of cholinergic crisis (overdose)?

A
  • muscular weakness
  • increased salivation
111
Q

what do anticholinergics/cholinergic antagonists do?

A
  • small doses: decrease HR
  • large doses: increase HR
  • bronchodilation
  • relax smooth muscle tome
  • decrease motility and peristalsis
  • decrease secretions in lungs and GI
  • decreased salivation
112
Q

what are some side effects of reversible cholinesterase inhibitors?

A
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • hypersalivation
  • sweating
  • anorexia
  • N/V
  • abdominal pain
  • diarrhea
113
Q

what are some contraindications for direct-acting cholinergic agonists (such as bethanechol)?

A
  • bradycardia
  • hypotension
  • peptic ulcer
  • parkinsonism
  • hyperthyroidism
  • urinary tract obstruction
114
Q

what are some of the effects of cholinergic agonists?

A
  • decrease HR and BP (vasodilation)
  • increased peristalsis and relax sphincter muscles
  • stimulate urination
  • bronchial constriction
  • constrict pupils
115
Q

what do direct-acting cholinergic agonists do?

A
  • increase gastric emptying -> treats nausea and GERD
  • decrease BP and HR
116
Q

what do reversible cholinesterase inhibitors do?

A
  • promote pupil constriction in glaucoma
  • increase muscle strength in myasthenia gravis
117
Q

what does atropine do?

A
  • increase HR
  • decrease GI motility, peristalsis, salivary and gastric secretions
118
Q

what are some side effects of atropine?

A
  • dry mouth**
  • dehydration
  • tachycardia
  • blurred vision
  • photophobia
  • urinary retention
  • constipation
119
Q

what patient education will the nurse provide to a patient taking anticholinergics (such as atropine)?

A
  • avoid hot environments (because they can’t sweat as well)
  • wear sunglasses in bright light
120
Q

what do antiparkinson-anticholinergic drugs do?

A

decrease involuntary movement, tremors, and muscle rigidity caused by parkinsonism

121
Q

what are some side effects of antiparkinson-anticholinergic drugs?

A
  • dry mouth/skin
  • headache
  • blurred vision
  • photophobia
  • tachycardia
  • ocular hypertension
  • urinary retention
  • constipation
122
Q

what type of anticholinergic treats motion sickness?

A

antihistamines

123
Q

what are some side effects of anticholinergics for motion sickness?

A
  • dry mouth
  • drowsiness
  • visual disturbances
  • tachycardia
  • hypotension
  • flushing
  • urinary retention
  • constipation

pharm (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions