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Lieutenants Exam > 3.1.2.1 Risk Management Guidelines > Flashcards

3.1.2.1 Risk Management Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

When operating in an offensive strategy, be _______ offensive.

A

aggressively

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2
Q

An effective, coordinated interior attack operation directed toward knocking down the fire eliminates most _________ ________ _______.

A

eventual safety problems

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3
Q

During an emergency operation, all personnel should be in one of what three status?

A

Staging
Assigned a task/sector
Rehab

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4
Q

If personnel have not been assigned to a sector or do not have a necessary staff function to perform, they shall remain ________________.

A

outside the fireground perimeter.

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5
Q

In extremely hazardous situations (flammable liquid, LP, special operations, etc) command will engage only an __________________ within the hazard zone.

A

an absolute minimum number of personnel

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6
Q

Command should notify _____ or ________ of conflicting or opposing operations.

A

sector officers or company officers

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7
Q

Ground crews must be ______ and ______ before ladder pipes go into operation.

A

notified, evacuated

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8
Q

Do not operate exterior streams whether hand lines or master streams or ladder pipes, into an area where __________.

A

interior crews are operating.

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9
Q

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one that will extend ___ to ___ feet above the roof line.

A

2 to 3’

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10
Q

Laddering a roof above the roof line is done in order to provide _________.

A

roof crews with visible means of egress.

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11
Q

If possible, when laddering buildings under fire conditions, place ladders near _____ or ______ as these areas are generally more stable in the event of collapse.

A

corners and firewalls.

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12
Q

If possible, when operating either above or below ground level, establish at least _____ separate escape routes/means where possible.

A

two

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13
Q

Escape routes should preferably be at _____ or ______ or _________.

A

opposite ends, diagonal corners, or separated by considerable distance

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14
Q

An area that requires an SCBA, charged hose line, special protective clothing, or in which FF personnel are at risk or becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

A

Hot Zone

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15
Q

All FF working in the hot zone shall operate in crews of at least ___ personnel.

A

two

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16
Q

While working in the hot zone, the ____ system will be in place.

A

accountability

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17
Q

An area where FF start their operations just outside of the hot zone.

A

Warm Zone

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18
Q

Forward line apparatus working an incident are considered to be in what zone?

A

Warm

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19
Q

Apparatus laying lines are considered to be in what zone?

A

Warm

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20
Q

The accountability officer works in what zone?

A

Warm

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21
Q

Fire investigations are conducted in what zone?

A

Warm

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22
Q

Operating close to helicopters is what zone?

A

Hot

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23
Q

Operating close to crane or swift water operations is what zone?

A

Hot

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24
Q

Operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations is what zone?

A

Hot

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25
Q

An are outside of the warm zone where no one is at risk because of the incident.

A

Cold Zone

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26
Q

Command occurs in what zone?

A

Cold Zone

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27
Q

Level I and II staging occurs in what zone?

A

Cold Zone

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28
Q

Rehab occurs in what zone?

A

Cold Zone

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29
Q

All personnel entering the hot zone shall (3)

A 
have crew intact
wear full PPE
have assignment (to a sector/division)
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30
Q

Sectors/Divisions are used _______.

A

interchangeably.

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31
Q

Sector/Division commanders must maintain control of both the ______ and _______ of their companies.

A

position and function.

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32
Q

Sector/Company officers shall be able to account for the ______ and ______ of all crew members under their assignment.

A

whereabouts and welfare

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33
Q

_______ shell insure that all crews are operating within their assigned sectors only.

A

Company officers

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34
Q

Crews will not leave their assigned sector unless authorized by the _______ officer

A

sector

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35
Q

When crews are operating within a sector, ______ shall keep the sector officer informed of changing conditions within the sector.

A

company officers

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36
Q

______ is intended to reduce the fatigue and trauma experienced during difficult operations to a reasonable and recoverable level.

A

Rehab

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37
Q

When crew members exhibit signs of physical or mental fatigue, the ________ should be reassigned to rehab.

A

entire crew

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38
Q

Individual crews shall not report to rehab unless assigned to the Rehab Sector by ________.

A

Fireground commander

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39
Q

Who has the responsibility to recognize situations involving a high risk to personnel and initiate appropriate safety measures?

A

Command

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40
Q

Command shall establish a _____ officer at all fire incidents and any other incidents involving an inordinate danger to personnel.

A

Safety officer

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41
Q

Command should consider establishing a _______ sector on any situation where it may be advantageous to the overall safety of operations.

A

Safety sector

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42
Q

The establishment of a _____ officer or ______ sector in no way diminishes the responsibility of all officers for the safety of their assigned personnel.

A

safety officer/sector

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43
Q

The possibility of ________ should be a major consideration in the development of any tactical plan.

A

structural collapse.

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44
Q

If a fire is allowed to affect a structure long enough, _____ is inevitable.

A

Structural failure.

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45
Q

A 100’ length of unprotected steel will elongate _____ when heated to 1100*.

A

9”

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46
Q

In a typical fire involved building, the ____ is the most likely candidate for failure.

A

roof

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47
Q

Failure of the roof may very likely trigger a collapse of one or more ______.

A

wall sections

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48
Q

____ or ____ type roofs are especially prone to promoting collapse of walls.

A

Peak or dome

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49
Q

_____ and ____ type roof construction can be expected to fail after minimal fire exposure.

A

light weight truss and bar joist

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50
Q

It is a principal _______ responsibility to continually evaluate and determine if the fire building is tenable for interior operations.

A

command

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51
Q

If after ____ to ____ minutes of interior operations heavy fire conditions still exist, Command should initiate a careful evaluation of structural conditions, and should be fully prepared to withdraw interior crews and change to a ______ strategy.

A

10-15 minutes, defensive.

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52
Q

Interior firefighting operations should be _______ when the extent of fire prohibits control or the structure becomes unsafe to operate within.

A

abandoned

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53
Q

When after the inititiation of interior operations, interior conditions make the building untenable, _______, _________, _________, _________, ________.

A 
evacuate
account for personnel
regroup
re communicate
redeploy
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54
Q

The method of evacuation will vary depending on these circumstances: (3)

A

Imminence of hazard
type/extent of hazard
area affected by hazard

55
Q

Crews are ordered out without delay due to imminent danger, leaving their equipment and lines behind if necessary.

A

Emergency evacuation

56
Q

During an emergency evacuation command will state what on the radio?

A

“Emergency evacuation, emergency evacuation”

57
Q

What audible sign is given to order an emergency evacuation of a structure?

A

three air horn blasts repeated over 30 seconds

58
Q

After an emergency evacuation order, company officers will advise command of what two things?

A

that they have evacuated

PAR

59
Q

What must be given careful consideration in the decision to change strategies?

A

possibility of structural collapse

60
Q

The consideration to change strategies should be made if offensive operations are not making significant progress within ____ minutes

A

several.

61
Q

The orderly removal of all personnel and equipment from the building.

A

Tactical withdrawal.

62
Q

What radio communication is designed to provide immediate notification for all fireground personnel?

A

“Emergency traffic”

63
Q

The use of “emergency traffic” should only be initiated when the hazard appears to be ______ or has _______.

A

imminent or just occurred.

64
Q

Who has the authority to use “emergency traffic”

A

any member

65
Q

Emergency traffic announcements become _____ if overused.

A

ineffective

66
Q

What radio action should be initiated when an imminent hazard has been realized?

A

“Emergency traffic”

67
Q

Who will usually be the initiator of emergency traffic?

A

a company or sector officer

68
Q

When possible, sector officers of areas affected by emergency traffic evacuation should request and acknowledgement from whom?

A

The crews to be evacuated

69
Q

Shortly after the evacuation order, the IC or sector officers shall begin the process of what?

A

Accounting for all evacuated crews

70
Q

Building evacuation generally involves a shift from what to what operations?

A

Offensive to defensive

71
Q

Search teams should most times not begin searching until what two factors are in place.

A

attack line in place

water flowing on the fire

72
Q

Crews retreating from interior operations often require what?

A

Hoseline protection

73
Q

A major function of backup lines is what?

A

Protecting retreating interior crews.

74
Q

An exception to searching without a hose line in place is the tactic of what?

A

VEIS

75
Q

Individual search activities should be conducted by how many members when possible?

A

two or more

76
Q

Company officers must maintain an awareness of what two things regarding their crew during search operations?

A

location and function

77
Q

Search teams should be protected with a charged hoseline whenever they exposed to ________.

A

Fire conditions, particularly above the fire floor.

78
Q

High rise buildings containing a working fire are considered a ______ hazard area.

A

high

79
Q

Elevators may be used to go aloft given what two conditions are not present in the elevator shaft?

A

no fire/smoke

80
Q

What should be located prior to using an elevator?

A

the nearest enclosed stairway

81
Q

Elevators can be taken to the floor of involvement?

A

false

82
Q

What floor should the elevator be stopped at?

A

two floors below the fire floor

83
Q

If a working fire is indicated, what must an elevator be equipped with in order to utilize it?

A

Emergency operation controls

84
Q

What consideration must you be aware of when using an elevator to move personnel and equipment?

A

Load capacity

85
Q

When operating around a high rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a perimeter of ______ feet should be established.

A

200’

86
Q

Inside the perimeter of a high rise fire is considered what type of area?

A

high hazard

87
Q

Pumpers supplying water to high rise operations should be positioned where when possible?

A

outside the perimeter

88
Q

Command and staff support personnel shall remain outside the high rise perimeter unless entering the are to assist with what?

A

interior operations

89
Q

What certifications must operations personnel maintain in order to maintain employment?

A

FFII

EMT-B or P

90
Q

A _______sector or officer should be implemented at any incident of special hazard presenting unusual risk to FF”s, customers, or the general public.

A

Safety sector/officer

91
Q

Command will be established by who?

A

First arriving member or company.

92
Q

ICS will be implemented at all incidents involving ______+ companies.

A

3+

93
Q

Who is responsible for assigning a safety officer?

A

Command

94
Q

To what type of incidents may command special call a safety officer?

A

Any

95
Q

T/F The safety officer automatically assumes the Incident Safety Officer sector responsibilities upon his or her arrival.

A

True

96
Q

Who is responsible for writing an action plan, to include incident safety?

A

Command

97
Q

To whom does the safety sector report?

A

Command

98
Q

T/F The safety sector has full authority to terminate, suspend, or alter any unsafe condition or action.

A

True

99
Q

Any life threatening conditions will be corrected ____ and ____.

A

Immediately and directly.

100
Q

Whom is the safety sector accountable to for actions taken?

A

Command

101
Q

At what point must the safety sector/officer advise command after any direct intervention has been made?

A

Immediately

102
Q

What is the most frequent type of intervention by the safety officer/sector?

A

“one on one” correction

103
Q

Command must be kept aware of any adjustments that affect operations or the strategic plan via ____ and ____ progress reports.

A

Frequent and timely

104
Q

What level of PPE must the safety officer wear when functioning at a scene?

A

Full protective clothing

105
Q

T/F Rehab sector should be a component of the safety plan.

A

True

106
Q

Full protective clothing consists of what?

A 
helmet
hood
coat
pants
gloves
boots
107
Q

What level of PPE must be worn while responding to fire alarms?

A

Full protective clothing.

108
Q

Apparatus drivers and officer may delay the wearing of what protective clothing until they arrive on scene?

A

gloves

coat

109
Q

What protective clothing must be worn while responding to an MVC?

A

pants

boots

110
Q

If operating tools at an MVC, what protective clothing should be worn?

A 
pants
boots
helmet
coat 
gloves
111
Q

The wearing of coats and SCBA during overhaul is at the discretion of whom?

A

IC

112
Q

Hydrant testing requires what protective clothing?

A

helmets

gloves

113
Q

Using hand or power tools requires what protective clothing?

A

Helmet

gloves

114
Q

Overhaul requires what level of protective clothing?

A

helmet

gloves

115
Q

In situations where no guidelines have been provided, what level of protective clothing should be worn?

A

The highest level available

116
Q

Command may alter the level of protective clothing required in order to avoid what when performing rescue or EMS?

A

Life threatening delay

117
Q

Gear that is visibly contaminated shall be (3)

A

removed from service
decontaminated
or replaced

118
Q

Only protective clothing ____ or ______ by the department may be worn by district personnel while engaged in any operation.

A

provided or approved

119
Q

Helmets should be cleaned with _____ and ______.

A

Hot tap water and mild detergent

120
Q

Stubborn helmet stains can be cleaned with what four things?

A 
rubbing alcohol (isopropyl)
non-ammoniated window cleaner
dishwashing detergent
automotive cleaner wax
121
Q

Helmet modifications, including drilling holes or the adding of emblems or attachments are prohibited unless specifically approved by whom?

A

Deputy Chief

122
Q

All items constructed of thermoplastics are susceptible to ______ and ______ degradation.

A

UV

Chemical

123
Q

When the helmet loses its surface gloss and the surface begins to flake away, what type of degradation has occurred?

A

Chemical

124
Q

How often should gloves be cleaned?

A

monthly or when soiled

125
Q

With what should gloves be cleaned?

A

warm water

mild detergent

126
Q

Gloves that have been visibly contaminated with toxic or biohazards substances should be dealt with how?

A

removed from service and disposed of properly

127
Q

Gloves should be replaced under what three wear guidelines?

A

stitching worn or rotten
insulation worn through
when a hole is present

128
Q

Who is responsible to arrange for an alternate piece of protective clothing?

A

supervisor

129
Q

Damaged gear shall be forwarded to whom?

A

Support services (logistics?)

130
Q

Routine cleaning of boots should be conducted using what?

A

Warm water

mild detergent

131
Q

What shall be applied to boots after they are cleaned and dried?

A

Silicone spray

132
Q

Any boots with holes in them should be dealt with how?

A

Immediately removed from service and replaced

133
Q

What are the four acceptable types of eye protection?

A

SCBA mask
goggles
helmet face shield
OSHA approved safety glasses

134
Q

What marking will OSHA approved safety glasses bear?

A

Z87

Lieutenants Exam (33 decks)

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