3.1.2.1 Risk Management Guidelines Flashcards

1
Q

When operating in an offensive strategy, be _______ offensive.

A

aggressively

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

An effective, coordinated interior attack operation directed toward knocking down the fire eliminates most _________ ________ _______.

A

eventual safety problems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

During an emergency operation, all personnel should be in one of what three status?

A

Staging
Assigned a task/sector
Rehab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If personnel have not been assigned to a sector or do not have a necessary staff function to perform, they shall remain ________________.

A

outside the fireground perimeter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In extremely hazardous situations (flammable liquid, LP, special operations, etc) command will engage only an __________________ within the hazard zone.

A

an absolute minimum number of personnel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Command should notify _____ or ________ of conflicting or opposing operations.

A

sector officers or company officers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Ground crews must be ______ and ______ before ladder pipes go into operation.

A

notified, evacuated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Do not operate exterior streams whether hand lines or master streams or ladder pipes, into an area where __________.

A

interior crews are operating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When laddering a roof, the ladder selected shall be one that will extend ___ to ___ feet above the roof line.

A

2 to 3’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Laddering a roof above the roof line is done in order to provide _________.

A

roof crews with visible means of egress.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

If possible, when laddering buildings under fire conditions, place ladders near _____ or ______ as these areas are generally more stable in the event of collapse.

A

corners and firewalls.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

If possible, when operating either above or below ground level, establish at least _____ separate escape routes/means where possible.

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Escape routes should preferably be at _____ or ______ or _________.

A

opposite ends, diagonal corners, or separated by considerable distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

An area that requires an SCBA, charged hose line, special protective clothing, or in which FF personnel are at risk or becoming lost, trapped, or injured by the environment or structure.

A

Hot Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

All FF working in the hot zone shall operate in crews of at least ___ personnel.

A

two

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

While working in the hot zone, the ____ system will be in place.

A

accountability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An area where FF start their operations just outside of the hot zone.

A

Warm Zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Forward line apparatus working an incident are considered to be in what zone?

A

Warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Apparatus laying lines are considered to be in what zone?

A

Warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The accountability officer works in what zone?

A

Warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Fire investigations are conducted in what zone?

A

Warm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Operating close to helicopters is what zone?

A

Hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Operating close to crane or swift water operations is what zone?

A

Hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Operating in close proximity to the structure during exterior operations is what zone?

A

Hot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
An are outside of the warm zone where no one is at risk because of the incident.
Cold Zone
26
Command occurs in what zone?
Cold Zone
27
Level I and II staging occurs in what zone?
Cold Zone
28
Rehab occurs in what zone?
Cold Zone
29
All personnel entering the hot zone shall (3)
``` have crew intact wear full PPE have assignment (to a sector/division) ```
30
Sectors/Divisions are used _______.
interchangeably.
31
Sector/Division commanders must maintain control of both the ______ and _______ of their companies.
position and function.
32
Sector/Company officers shall be able to account for the ______ and ______ of all crew members under their assignment.
whereabouts and welfare
33
_______ shell insure that all crews are operating within their assigned sectors only.
Company officers
34
Crews will not leave their assigned sector unless authorized by the _______ officer
sector
35
When crews are operating within a sector, ______ shall keep the sector officer informed of changing conditions within the sector.
company officers
36
______ is intended to reduce the fatigue and trauma experienced during difficult operations to a reasonable and recoverable level.
Rehab
37
When crew members exhibit signs of physical or mental fatigue, the ________ should be reassigned to rehab.
entire crew
38
Individual crews shall not report to rehab unless assigned to the Rehab Sector by ________.
Fireground commander
39
Who has the responsibility to recognize situations involving a high risk to personnel and initiate appropriate safety measures?
Command
40
Command shall establish a _____ officer at all fire incidents and any other incidents involving an inordinate danger to personnel.
Safety officer
41
Command should consider establishing a _______ sector on any situation where it may be advantageous to the overall safety of operations.
Safety sector
42
The establishment of a _____ officer or ______ sector in no way diminishes the responsibility of all officers for the safety of their assigned personnel.
safety officer/sector
43
The possibility of ________ should be a major consideration in the development of any tactical plan.
structural collapse.
44
If a fire is allowed to affect a structure long enough, _____ is inevitable.
Structural failure.
45
A 100' length of unprotected steel will elongate _____ when heated to 1100*.
9"
46
In a typical fire involved building, the ____ is the most likely candidate for failure.
roof
47
Failure of the roof may very likely trigger a collapse of one or more ______.
wall sections
48
____ or ____ type roofs are especially prone to promoting collapse of walls.
Peak or dome
49
_____ and ____ type roof construction can be expected to fail after minimal fire exposure.
light weight truss and bar joist
50
It is a principal _______ responsibility to continually evaluate and determine if the fire building is tenable for interior operations.
command
51
If after ____ to ____ minutes of interior operations heavy fire conditions still exist, Command should initiate a careful evaluation of structural conditions, and should be fully prepared to withdraw interior crews and change to a ______ strategy.
10-15 minutes, defensive.
52
Interior firefighting operations should be _______ when the extent of fire prohibits control or the structure becomes unsafe to operate within.
abandoned
53
When after the inititiation of interior operations, interior conditions make the building untenable, _______, _________, _________, _________, ________.
``` evacuate account for personnel regroup re communicate redeploy ```
54
The method of evacuation will vary depending on these circumstances: (3)
Imminence of hazard type/extent of hazard area affected by hazard
55
Crews are ordered out without delay due to imminent danger, leaving their equipment and lines behind if necessary.
Emergency evacuation
56
During an emergency evacuation command will state what on the radio?
"Emergency evacuation, emergency evacuation"
57
What audible sign is given to order an emergency evacuation of a structure?
three air horn blasts repeated over 30 seconds
58
After an emergency evacuation order, company officers will advise command of what two things?
that they have evacuated | PAR
59
What must be given careful consideration in the decision to change strategies?
possibility of structural collapse
60
The consideration to change strategies should be made if offensive operations are not making significant progress within ____ minutes
several.
61
The orderly removal of all personnel and equipment from the building.
Tactical withdrawal.
62
What radio communication is designed to provide immediate notification for all fireground personnel?
"Emergency traffic"
63
The use of "emergency traffic" should only be initiated when the hazard appears to be ______ or has _______.
imminent or just occurred.
64
Who has the authority to use "emergency traffic"
any member
65
Emergency traffic announcements become _____ if overused.
ineffective
66
What radio action should be initiated when an imminent hazard has been realized?
"Emergency traffic"
67
Who will usually be the initiator of emergency traffic?
a company or sector officer
68
When possible, sector officers of areas affected by emergency traffic evacuation should request and acknowledgement from whom?
The crews to be evacuated
69
Shortly after the evacuation order, the IC or sector officers shall begin the process of what?
Accounting for all evacuated crews
70
Building evacuation generally involves a shift from what to what operations?
Offensive to defensive
71
Search teams should most times not begin searching until what two factors are in place.
attack line in place | water flowing on the fire
72
Crews retreating from interior operations often require what?
Hoseline protection
73
A major function of backup lines is what?
Protecting retreating interior crews.
74
An exception to searching without a hose line in place is the tactic of what?
VEIS
75
Individual search activities should be conducted by how many members when possible?
two or more
76
Company officers must maintain an awareness of what two things regarding their crew during search operations?
location and function
77
Search teams should be protected with a charged hoseline whenever they exposed to ________.
Fire conditions, particularly above the fire floor.
78
High rise buildings containing a working fire are considered a ______ hazard area.
high
79
Elevators may be used to go aloft given what two conditions are not present in the elevator shaft?
no fire/smoke
80
What should be located prior to using an elevator?
the nearest enclosed stairway
81
Elevators can be taken to the floor of involvement?
false
82
What floor should the elevator be stopped at?
two floors below the fire floor
83
If a working fire is indicated, what must an elevator be equipped with in order to utilize it?
Emergency operation controls
84
What consideration must you be aware of when using an elevator to move personnel and equipment?
Load capacity
85
When operating around a high rise building where the potential hazards of falling glass and debris exist, a perimeter of ______ feet should be established.
200'
86
Inside the perimeter of a high rise fire is considered what type of area?
high hazard
87
Pumpers supplying water to high rise operations should be positioned where when possible?
outside the perimeter
88
Command and staff support personnel shall remain outside the high rise perimeter unless entering the are to assist with what?
interior operations
89
What certifications must operations personnel maintain in order to maintain employment?
FFII | EMT-B or P
90
A _______sector or officer should be implemented at any incident of special hazard presenting unusual risk to FF"s, customers, or the general public.
Safety sector/officer
91
Command will be established by who?
First arriving member or company.
92
ICS will be implemented at all incidents involving ______+ companies.
3+
93
Who is responsible for assigning a safety officer?
Command
94
To what type of incidents may command special call a safety officer?
Any
95
T/F The safety officer automatically assumes the Incident Safety Officer sector responsibilities upon his or her arrival.
True
96
Who is responsible for writing an action plan, to include incident safety?
Command
97
To whom does the safety sector report?
Command
98
T/F The safety sector has full authority to terminate, suspend, or alter any unsafe condition or action.
True
99
Any life threatening conditions will be corrected ____ and ____.
Immediately and directly.
100
Whom is the safety sector accountable to for actions taken?
Command
101
At what point must the safety sector/officer advise command after any direct intervention has been made?
Immediately
102
What is the most frequent type of intervention by the safety officer/sector?
"one on one" correction
103
Command must be kept aware of any adjustments that affect operations or the strategic plan via ____ and ____ progress reports.
Frequent and timely
104
What level of PPE must the safety officer wear when functioning at a scene?
Full protective clothing
105
T/F Rehab sector should be a component of the safety plan.
True
106
Full protective clothing consists of what?
``` helmet hood coat pants gloves boots ```
107
What level of PPE must be worn while responding to fire alarms?
Full protective clothing.
108
Apparatus drivers and officer may delay the wearing of what protective clothing until they arrive on scene?
gloves | coat
109
What protective clothing must be worn while responding to an MVC?
pants | boots
110
If operating tools at an MVC, what protective clothing should be worn?
``` pants boots helmet coat gloves ```
111
The wearing of coats and SCBA during overhaul is at the discretion of whom?
IC
112
Hydrant testing requires what protective clothing?
helmets | gloves
113
Using hand or power tools requires what protective clothing?
Helmet | gloves
114
Overhaul requires what level of protective clothing?
helmet | gloves
115
In situations where no guidelines have been provided, what level of protective clothing should be worn?
The highest level available
116
Command may alter the level of protective clothing required in order to avoid what when performing rescue or EMS?
Life threatening delay
117
Gear that is visibly contaminated shall be (3)
removed from service decontaminated or replaced
118
Only protective clothing ____ or ______ by the department may be worn by district personnel while engaged in any operation.
provided or approved
119
Helmets should be cleaned with _____ and ______.
Hot tap water and mild detergent
120
Stubborn helmet stains can be cleaned with what four things?
``` rubbing alcohol (isopropyl) non-ammoniated window cleaner dishwashing detergent automotive cleaner wax ```
121
Helmet modifications, including drilling holes or the adding of emblems or attachments are prohibited unless specifically approved by whom?
Deputy Chief
122
All items constructed of thermoplastics are susceptible to ______ and ______ degradation.
UV | Chemical
123
When the helmet loses its surface gloss and the surface begins to flake away, what type of degradation has occurred?
Chemical
124
How often should gloves be cleaned?
monthly or when soiled
125
With what should gloves be cleaned?
warm water | mild detergent
126
Gloves that have been visibly contaminated with toxic or biohazards substances should be dealt with how?
removed from service and disposed of properly
127
Gloves should be replaced under what three wear guidelines?
stitching worn or rotten insulation worn through when a hole is present
128
Who is responsible to arrange for an alternate piece of protective clothing?
supervisor
129
Damaged gear shall be forwarded to whom?
Support services (logistics?)
130
Routine cleaning of boots should be conducted using what?
Warm water | mild detergent
131
What shall be applied to boots after they are cleaned and dried?
Silicone spray
132
Any boots with holes in them should be dealt with how?
Immediately removed from service and replaced
133
What are the four acceptable types of eye protection?
SCBA mask goggles helmet face shield OSHA approved safety glasses
134
What marking will OSHA approved safety glasses bear?
Z87