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IDW > 300 Series Study list > Flashcards

300 Series Study list Flashcards

1
Q

301- What are the two parking areas on the military ramp?

A

Enduring and Freedom

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2
Q

301- What three taxiways are rated for heavy aircraft?

A

Delta; Echo; Kilo

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3
Q

301- State the location of the primary High Power Turn-up/ engine run area.

A

Primary - taxiway Foxtrot; Secondary - taxiway Echo

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4
Q

301- What are the 3 airfield licenses?

A

Restricted(Blue); Escorted (purple); Enrestricted (Green) - All three valid for 6 months

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5
Q

301- State the Agencies on the PCAS.

A

EMF; EOC (emergancy Operations Center); JOC; ATOC; Fire Department; Quarterdeck; PAE OPS

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6
Q

301- State the length and width of the Ambouli runway.

A

10,335’ x 148’

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7
Q

301- State the aircraft pattern.

A

Fixed wing - 1000’; Helicopters - 500’ Above ground level (AGL)

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8
Q

302- Joint OPINTEL

A

Joint Intelligence provides knowledge of the enemy to joint force commanders (JFCs).

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10
Q

302- discuss the role of geospatial information in military operations.

A

Geospatial information provides the necessary framework upon which all other relevant strategic and tactical information is layered.

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11
Q

302- NGA

A

National Geospatial Intelligence Agency

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12
Q

302- Terrorism

A

Refer only to those violent acts which are intended to create fear (terror)

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13
Q

302- Counter-Terriorism

A

Is the practices, tactics, techniques, and strategies that are adopted in response to terrorist threats and/or acts

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14
Q

302- Counter Intelligence

A

(CI) refers to efforts made by intelligence organizations to prevent hostile or enemy intelligence organizations from successfully gathering and collecting intelligence against them.

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15
Q

302- Anti-terrorism

A

Intended to prvent terrorism; counterterrorism; antiterrorist measures.

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16
Q

303- SIMBA

A

Signal Intelligence Marine Battalion Africa - Conducts operation, which provide 24/7 indications and warnings for Force Protection.

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17
Q

303- What is the SIMBA chian of command?

A

Watch OIC; LCPO/NCOIC; Watch Supervisor; Watch Stander; Linguist

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18
Q

303- Describe CTM rating

A

Cryptological Technician Maintenance: perform preventive and corrective maint.

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19
Q

303- Describe the CTN rating

A

Cryptological Technician Networks: monitor, identify, collect and analyze information; provide data for digital network products; and conduct computer network.

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20
Q

303- Describe the CTR rating

A

Cryptological Technician Collection: operate state-of-the-art computer systems.

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21
Q

303- Describe the CTT rating

A

Cryptological Technician Technical: operate and maintain electronic sensors and computer systems.

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22
Q

303- NIPRNet

A

Unclassified but Sensitive internet Protocol Routor Network

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23
Q

303- SIPRNET

A

Secret Internet Protocol Router Network.

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24
Q

303- DSN Phone System

A

Denfense Switch Network

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25
Q

303- VoIP

A

Voice over IP (Internet Protocol)

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26
Q

303- List all the countries in the CJTF-HOA AOR.

A

Burundi; Comoros; Djibouti; Eritrea; Ethiopia; Kenya; Madagascar; Mauritius; Rawanda; Seychelles; Somalia; Sudan; Uganda; Tanzania; Yemen.

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28
Q

304- Where is the regional EKMS Manager located?

A

Stuttgart, Germany

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29
Q

304- How long is an Appointment letter maintained

A

2 years after individuals are no longer appointed

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30
Q

304- How long is an Authorized Users for COMSEC Meterial (aka User Access List) Maintained

A

retain current letter only

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31
Q

304- How long is a Request for COMSEC Support (aka Requirments letter) maintained

A

Retain current letter only

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32
Q

304- How long is a COMSEC Material Letter of Agreement maintained?

A

Retain for 1 year after COMSEC support has been terminated

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33
Q

304- How long is an EKMS Local Element Intructions and Guidance maintained?

A

Retain for 1 year after COMSEC support has been terminated

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34
Q

304- How long is an User Acknowledgement Forms maintained?

A

Maintian for 90 days after LE Manager/ User no longer requires access to COMSEC

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35
Q

304- How lone is a SF 153 Consolidation Invertory maintaned?

A

Consolidation Invertory - Retain Current inventory (should be conducted whenever there is a change of LE Manager or every 6 months, whichever is soonest)

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36
Q

304- How long is an Accountable Item Summary (AIS) maintained?

A

Retain current inventory only.

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37
Q

304- How lone is a SF 153 Hand receipt (issue out) maintaned?

A

Retain current had receipt only.

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38
Q

304- How lone is a SF 153 Issue Receipt (in) Ind. maintaned?

A

Retain for 90 Days after transaction

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39
Q

304- How lone is a SF 153 Destruction Report maintaned?

A

Retain for 90 Days after transaction

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40
Q

304- How lone is a SF 153 Misc. Documentation maintaned?

A

Retain until no longer needed or until permission to destroy in granted from originator

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41
Q

304- Optional Form 89

A

Maintenance Record for Security Containers and Vault Doors. It is maintained inside the safe drawer and on the inside of the vault door.

42
Q

304- What are the 3 type of supersession

A

Regular (pre-determined); Irregular (not pre-determined); Emergency (unplanned)

43
Q

304- What two forms are used in to document distruction?

A

CMS 25 (segmented); SF 153 (consolidated)

44
Q

304- What are the five AL codes?

A

AL Code 1 - Accountable by serial number; AL Code 2 - Accountable by quantity; AL Code 4 - Locally accountable by quantity; AL Code 6 - Electronically generated / accountable to COR; AL Code 7 - Electronically generated / locally accountable.

45
Q

305- DISA

A

Defense Information System Agency - Combat support Agency

46
Q

305- Trunk

A

A trunk is a line or a link designed to handle many signals simultaneously.

47
Q

305- Link

A

The physical path that joins a transmitter.

48
Q

305- Circuit

A

The complete path between two terminals over which one-way or two-way communications may be provided.

49
Q

305- OTAR

A

Over the Air Rekey - Sending new COMSEC dey directly to the remote crypto-equipment.

50
Q

305- ASI

A

Authorized Service Interuption

51
Q

305- BCO

A

To establish guidelines governing the management and administration of all telephone service equipment and systems aboard CLDJ.

52
Q

305- Multiservice Platform

A

A Multiplexer that gathers all the data from the different trunks and routes that data to their respective circuit cards, then out to the users.

53
Q

305- What Multiservice Access Platform does TCF use?

A

Promina 800

54
Q

305- How many shelves can a Promina 800 have?

A

8 Total (1) High Speed Service Shelf (HSS) and up to (7) Extended Shelves (EXS)

55
Q

305- HSS

A

High Speed Service Shelf

56
Q

305- EXS

A

Expansion Shelves

57
Q

305- How many trunks are on the satellite path?

A

3

58
Q

305- Define the timing source used for the trunks/circuits.

A

GPS Xli SAASM (Time and Frequency System used for timing and synchronization requirments)

59
Q

305- State the procedures for reporting an electronic spillage.

A

Contain, remediate, report, contact.

60
Q

305- What is the current system for transmitting Naval messages?

A

DMS - Defense Messaging System

61
Q

306- What are the 3 primart paths to communicate with FOLs?

A

CMDNET I Via PRC-117F; SNAP via VoIP or Email; Iridium Phone (Satellite Phone)

62
Q

306- How many FOLs are there?

A

Eight

63
Q

306- What is the function of a TASO?

A

Terminal Area Security Officer - responsible for ADP assets and Network issues/user account inssues for each J-Code/ Maneuver Init.

64
Q

306- AN/PRC-117F

A

The AN/PRC-117F is a Multibank Manpack radior or Multiband Multi Mission Radio (MBMMR) with a Feq range of 30-512 MHz.

65
Q

306- Discuss the purpose of the Motorola radios used on camp.

A

Used by Camp Security

66
Q

307- Describe the AFRTS cable TV path from the antenna dish to the subcriber.

A

AFN receives its satellite feed on the 13 ft. dish on the NW corner of the compound. From here it goes to the AFN CWU and enters a series of signal splitters. Each splitter feeds a decoder box that is preset to convert an individual channel. The decoder boxes all feed through a 12 channel emergency alert system, and then pass on to one of 12 channel modulators. The signals from each modulator are then combined into an aggregate and sent through a Broadband Amplifier. This amplified signal is converted to light at a fiber optic sender, and rides the NIPRNET backbone to the receive node nearest the subscriber. The fiber optic signal is then converted back to electric and fed to the TV set through a distribution network.
AFN receives its satellite feed on the 13 ft. dish on the NW corner of the compound. From here it goes to the AFN CWU and enters a series of signal splitters. Each splitter feeds a decoder box that is preset to convert an individual channel. The decoder boxes all feed through a 12 channel emergency alert system, and then pass on to one of 12 channel modulators. The signals from each modulator are then combined into an aggregate and sent through a Broadband Amplifier. This amplified signal is converted to light at a fiber optic sender, and rides the NIPRNET backbone to the receive node nearest the subscriber. The fiber optic signal is then converted back to electric and fed to the TV set through a distribution network.
AFN receives its satellite feed on the 13 ft. dish on the NW corner of the compound. From here it goes to the AFN CWU and enters a series of signal splitters. Each splitter feeds a decoder box that is preset to convert an individual channel. The decoder boxes all feed through a 12 channel emergency alert system, and then pass on to one of 12 channel modulators. The signals from each modulator are then combined into an aggregate and sent through a Broadband Amplifier. This amplified signal is converted to light at a fiber optic sender, and rides the NIPRNET backbone to the receive node nearest the subscriber. The fiber optic signal is then converted back to electric and fed to the TV set through a distribution network.

67
Q

307- State the IEEE Standards used for the MWR WIFI

A

802.1 I b/g

68
Q

307- What is the Frequency range for the Motorola Land Mobile Radios used on camp

A

VHF Frequency spectrum - 159.225 MHz - 161.600 MHz

69
Q

307- What is the current Bandwidth of the MWR WIFI?

A

24 Mbps

70
Q

307- Name all the MWR “hotspots” on Camp

A

11 DN; BLD 720; Old Cantina; White House; Green Bean Coffee Shop; Education Center; Rec Center.

71
Q

307- What type of Encryption is used on the MWR WIFI?

A

WPA2-PSK (WiFi Protective Access-PreShared Key)

72
Q

307- What is a SSID?

A

Service Set Identifier - An SSID is the name of a wireless local network.

73
Q

308- IAM

A

The IAM serves as the point of contact for all command information assurance (IA) Matters and implements the command’s IA Program

74
Q

308- IAO

A

IAO’s are designated for each information system and network in the command.

75
Q

308- CSA

A

Cognizant Security Agency - Is responsible for the implementing SCI security ploicy and procedures and performs management and oversight of the Department’s SCI security program

76
Q

308- TASO

A

Terminal Area Security Officer - responsible for ADP assets and Network issues/user account inssues for each department/division.

77
Q

308- DOD 8510.01

A

DoD Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP)

78
Q

308- SECNAV M-5239.1

A

Department of the Navy Information Assurance Program.

79
Q

308- SECNAVINST 5510.36A

A

Department of the Navy Information Security Program Instruction.

80
Q

308- HBSS

A

Host Based Security System is a flexible commercial-off-the-shelf (COTS)-based application. It moniters, detects, and counters against known cyber threats

81
Q

309- IAWF

A

Focuses on the operation and management of IA capabilities for the DoD systems and networks.

82
Q

309- State the purpose of having IA workforce categories and levels in place

A

Establish baseline technical and management IA skills among personnel performing IA functins across the SOS enterprise

83
Q

309- What are the two IA workforce categories

A

IA technical (IAT) - Maintain Equipment; IA Management (IAM) - implement policies

84
Q

309- What are the two IA Specialty levels

A

Computer Network Defense Service Providers (CND-SPs) - Maintain security; IA Systems Architects and Engineers (IASAEs) - Design and develop

85
Q

309- What is the significance of having the training and certification program?

A

IA certification programs are intended to produce IA personnel with a baseline understanding of the fundamental IA principles and practices related to the functions of their assigned position.

86
Q

309- Discuss the levels in the Technical category? Describe their functions.

A

Level I - make the CE(computing environment) less vulnerable by correcting flaws and implementing IAT controls in the hardware or software installed within their operational systems; Level II - provide network environment (NE) and advanced level CE support. They pay special attention to intrusion detection, finding and fixing unprotected vulnerabilities, and ensuring that remote access points are well secured; Level III - focus on the enclave environment and support, monitor, test, and troubleshoot hardware and software IA problems pertaining to the CE, NE, and enclave environments.

87
Q

309- Discuss the levels in the Management category and their functions.

A

Level I - is responsible for the implementation and operation of a DoD IS or system DoD Component within their CE; Level II - is responsible for the IA program of an IS within the NE; Level III - is responsible for ensuring that all enclave IS are functional and secure

88
Q

310- OCRS

A

Online Compliance Reporting System

89
Q

310- What is a Mitigation plan.

A

A mitigation plan is a proposal to reduce or alleviate potentially harmful impacts.

90
Q

310- What happens if you fail to acknowledge or report compliance in OCRS.

A

NCDOC will generate a delinquency message and you will have to provide an explanation on why you’re not compliant.

91
Q

310- How often should a OCRS be checked

A

Daily

92
Q

310- VMS

A

Vulnerability Management System - was built in reconition of the fact that all DOD agencies require the ability to identify security vulnerabilities, mediate the risk, and track the issues throughout the lifecycle of a security vulnerability.

93
Q

310- What SAAR form is used to access VMS

A

DD 2875

94
Q

310- SCCVI

A

Secure Configuration Compliance Validation Initiative - Determines whether the system in in compliance with IAVM notices and some STIG requirements.

95
Q

310- Discuss the color and categories of VMS icons

A

Red, Cat I - result in total loss of system assets; Yellow, Cat II - result in partial loss; Light Green, Cat III - Result in minimal loss; Green - Your asset is in full compliance.

96
Q

311- DIACAP

A

DoD Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (DIACAP) - The objective is to establishes a standard process, set of activities, general tasks, and a management structure to certify and accredit IS that will maintain the information assurance (IA) and security posture of the Defense Information Infrastructure (DII).

97
Q

311- What are the 4 phases of system accreditation?

A

Phase 1 - Definition; Phase 2 - Verification; Phase 3 - Validation; Phase 4 - Post accreditation

98
Q

311- Explain the objective and its purpose of an ST&E (Security Test and Evaluation).

A

Objective - To evaluate the technical implementation of the security design and to ascertain that security software, hardware, and firmware features affecting confidentiality, integrity, availability, and accountability have been implemented as documented in the SSAA and that the features perform properly; Purpose - Security Test & Evaluation validates the correct implementation of identification and authentication, audit capabilities, access controls, object reuse, trusted recovery, and network connection rule compliance. Individual tests evaluate system conformance with the requirements, mission environment, and architecture. Test plans and procedures should address all the security requirements and provide sufficient evidence of the amount of residual risk. These results must validate the proper integration and operation of all security features.

IDW (5 decks)

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