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IDW > 200 Series Study list > Flashcards

200 Series Study list Flashcards

1
Q

201- Discuss the North Atlantic Fleet.

A

1902 - Named; 1905 - it absorbed the European and South Atlantic Squadrons; Jan 01, 1906 the Navy’s Atlantic Fleet was established when the North Atlantic Fleet and the South Atlantic Squadron combined.

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2
Q

201- Discuss the Pacific Fleet.

A

1907 - It was created by combining the Pacific Squadron and the Asiatic Squadron; 1910 - The ships of the First Squadron were organized back into a separate Asiatic Fleet; Dec 06, 1922 - organized the United States Fleet with the Battle Fleet as the Pacific presence.

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3
Q

201- Discuss the Asiatic Fleet.

A

The United States Asiatic Fleet was part of the US Navy preceding the World War II era, until 1942. In 1907 the fleet became the First Squadron of the Pacific Fleet until it was reorganized back into the Asiatic Fleet on Jan 28, 1910.

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4
Q

201- When and who established the numbered fleets?

A

1942 by ADM Ernest King

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5
Q

201- Where do odd numbered fleets operate?

A

In the Pacific.

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6
Q

201- Where do even numbered fleets operate?

A

In the Atlantic.

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7
Q

201- Who commanded the Great White Fleet?

A

ADM Robley Dunglison Evens

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8
Q

201- Who commanded the US Naval Forces During the Battle of Midway and the Battle of the Philippines (the most significant naval battles in the Pacific Theater.

A

ADM Raymond A. Spruance

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9
Q

201- Who has been called “the most important American strategist of the nineteenth century” with his concept of “Sea Power”?

A

Rear Admiral Alfred Thayer Mahan

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10
Q

201- When and who transmitted the first Naval Message?

A

062143ZJUN67; From the USS America to the SECNAV

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11
Q

201-When and who captured the U-110?

A

May 09, 1941 by the HMS Bulldog, HMS Broadway, and the HMS Aubretia off the coast of Iceland.

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12
Q

201- what was recovered from the from the U-110 and where was it taken?

A

The Enigma machine and it was taken to Bletchley Park in Buckinghamshire.

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13
Q

202- COM

A

Commander

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14
Q

202- DCOM

A

Deputy Commander

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15
Q

202- COS

A

Chief of Staff

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16
Q

202- ACOS

A

Assistant Chief of Staff

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19
Q

202- N1

A

Admin

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20
Q

202- N2

A

Intel

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21
Q

202- N3

A

Operations

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22
Q

202- N4

A

Supply

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23
Q

202- N5

A

Planning

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24
Q

202- N6

A

Communications

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25
Q

202- N7

A

Training

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26
Q

202- N8

A

Comptroller

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27
Q

202- N9

A

Facilities

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28
Q

202- SORM

A

Standard Organization and regulations manual

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29
Q

202- JMD

A

Joint Manning Document - A manning document which identifies all manning billets essential to the command and control of a HQ organization.

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30
Q

202- AMD

A

Activity Manning Document - OPNAINST 100.16K

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31
Q

202- MFT

A

Missions, Functions, Task

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32
Q

202- ISIC

A

Immediate Superior-In-Command

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33
Q

202- MCA

A

Manning Control Authority

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34
Q

202- Define Manning in reference to the MCA (Manning Control Authority)

A

Manning is Personnel that are billeted to an authorized requirement on the Activity Manning Document (AMD)

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35
Q

202- Define Manpower in reference to the MCA (Manning Control Authority)

A

Manpower is authorized requirements on the Activity Manning Document of which personnel are qualified to fill.

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36
Q

202- Task Force.

A

Unit or formation established to work on a single defined task or activity

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37
Q

202- CTF

A

Combined Task Force is a task force which includes sub-elements of more than one nation.

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38
Q

202- JTF

A

Joint Task Force is a joint force that is constituted and so designated by a JTF establishing authority. JTFs are established on a geographical area or functional basis when the mission has a specific limited objective and does not require overall centralized control of logistics.

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39
Q

203- Define BMD and stat the purpose.

A

Ballistic Missile Defense, is used to defend the United States, its deployed forces, it allies and friends from ballistic missiles of all ranges with the capability of engaging them in all phases of flight.

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40
Q

203- What are the counter-piracy task force missions

A

Deter; Disrupt; Suppress

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41
Q

203- Define strategic Intelligence.

A

Strategic Intelligence focuses on discerning the capabilities and intentions of potential adversaries as well as considering strategic intentions and muti-national partners. Global

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42
Q

203- Define Operational Intelligence.

A

Operational Intelligence Focuses on Intel collection, identification, location and analysis to support operational level warfare. Theater or Area Level

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43
Q

203- Define Tactical Intelligence

A

Tactical intelligence focuses on potential adversaries capabilities, immediate intention and environment. Oriented more towards combat operations vice long-range planning. Unit Focus.

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44
Q

203- What are the three types of imagery?

A

SAR - Synthetic Aperture Radar; EO - Electro Optical; IR - Infrared

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45
Q

203- What was the first attempt to satisfy requirements for a space-based satellite imaging system?

A

TIROS; April 1, 1960

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46
Q

203- What was the first system to provide all weather, near real-time Imagery?

A

SAR - Synthetic Aperture Radar

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47
Q

203- What are the three current platforms used to obtain Imagery?

A

BAMS - Broad Area Maritime Surveillance; P3 Orion; Global Hawk Satellite

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48
Q

203- EO

A

Electro optical

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49
Q

203- IR

A

Infrared

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50
Q

203- SAR

A

Synthetic Aperture Radar

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51
Q

203- NGA

A

National Geospatial Intelligence Agency

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52
Q

203- What type of images does Radar produce?

A

Single images using pulses of microwave energy

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53
Q

203- What type of images does EO produce?

A

Multi-spectral images by capturing the 250 shades of grey in the visible light waves of the Electro Magnetic Spectrum. It can only be used during the day time and is effected by clouds.

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54
Q

203- How does IR capture images?

A

IR captures the wave lengths that represent heat signatures

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55
Q

203- What is the purpose of the Image Product Library?

A

It is used to store and catalog raw image files.

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56
Q

203- What is the No-Strike list?

A

List of object or entities characterized as protected from the effects of military operations under international law and/or rules of engagement.

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57
Q

203- DPI

A

Desired Point of Impact

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58
Q

203- DMPI

A

Desired Mean Point of Impact

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59
Q

203- Define Functional Battle Damage Assessment

A

Is based off or a percentage of the targets ability to remain functional after the strike.

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60
Q

203- Define Physical Battle Damage Assessment

A

Is in the context to the structure of the target and how much damage has been done post strike through intelligence support.

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61
Q

203- TST

A

Time Sensitive Target - requiring immediate response because it is highly lucrative.

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62
Q

203- CDE

A

Collateral Damage Estimate is important because it provides with needed information to make vital decisions on weapon selection, time of attack and mitigation techniques.

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63
Q

203- State the parent agency responsible for HUMINT and where is it located.

A

Defense Intelligence Agency located in Washington, DC

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64
Q

203- State the parent agency responsible for SIGINT and where is it located.

A

National Security Agency located in Fort Meade, Maryland

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65
Q

203- State the parent agency responsible for IMINT and where is it located.

A

National Geospatial Agency located in Bethesda, Maryland / Fort Belvoir, Virginia

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66
Q

203- State the parent agency responsible for ACINT and where is it located.

A

Office of Naval Intelligence / Defense Intelligence Agency located in Suitland, Maryland

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67
Q

203- What is Radar and how does it work?

A

Radio Detection and Ranging - It sends out a very narrow pulse of hi frequency when it hits a metallic object it reflects back.

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68
Q

203- Describe a transmitter, in reference to RADAR

A

A large RF oscillator.

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69
Q

203- Describe a receiver, in reference to RADAR

A

Collects weak RF echos from the antenna and combines them in a crystal mixer with the RF from a local oscillator.

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70
Q

203- Describe an Antenna, in reference to RADAR

A

Routes the RF energy pulse from the transmitter and radiates it in a directional beam. It picks up the returning echo and passes it to the receiver with a minimum loss.

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71
Q

203- What is SONAR?

A

Sound Navigation and Ranging.

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72
Q

203- What is EP?

A

Electronic Protection - involves passive and active means of electronic warfare.

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73
Q

203- What is EA?

A

Electronic Attack - Directed energy or anti-radiation weapons

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74
Q

203- What is ES?

A

Electronic Support - To search for, intercept, edentifyl and locate or localize sources of intentional and unintentional radiated eletromagnetic energy for the purpose of immediate threat recognition, targeting, planning, and conduct future operations.

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75
Q

203- What is HULTEC?

A

Hull-to-Emitter Correlation

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76
Q

203- What is UMOP?

A

Unintentional Modulation of Pulse - Minute repeating deviations in the radio Frequency propagation throughout generation and transmission of the pulse.

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77
Q

203- What is IBS Network?

A

Integrated Broadcast Service Network - enable wide area network (WAN)

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78
Q

203- What is IBS Simplex?

A

Integrated Broadcast Service Simplex - Provides multiple UHF SATCOM simplex broadcast channels of uniquely ordered and prioritized data.

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79
Q

203- What is IBS Interactive?

A

Integrated Broadcast Service Interactive - provide an interactive, full-duplex, UHF SATCOM theater focused Broadcast.

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80
Q

203- What is IBS Line of Sight?

A

Integrated Broadcast Service Line of Sight - adds LOS UHF broadcast capabilities to augment corps-level operations.

81
Q

205- What is HA and DR

A

Humanitarian Assistance and Disaster Relief

82
Q

205- Describe how HUMINT plays a role in HA/DR

A

Valuable source of information in prioritization pf relief efforts.

83
Q

205- Describe how OSINT plays a role in HA/DR

A

Used to determine host nation agenda and patterns of operation.

84
Q

205- Describe how IMINT plays a role in HA/DR

A

Commercial imagery is gernerally of sufficient quality/ granularity for use and it carries fewer restriction for distribution.

85
Q

205- Describe the capabilities of the US Navy shipboard assets as it pertains to HA/DR

A

Establish sea base as close to the HA/DR site as practical in order to speed delivery of supplies. Use the sea for maneuver space and leverage force mobility to focus efforts where they are needed

86
Q

205- What are US Navy Shipboard assest in reference to HA/DR?

A

Expeditionary Strike Group (ESG); Carrier Strike Group (CSG); Hospital Ships; US Navy Construction Force; Short term Power Grid; Potable Water; Food

87
Q

205- What are the four Maritime Operation Center (MOC) readiness levels?

A

Equipment; Training; Doctrine; Functional Organization

88
Q

205- ARG

A

Amphibious Ready Group

89
Q

205- MEU

A

Marine Expeditionary Unit

90
Q

205- NGO

A

Non-Government Organization

91
Q

206- SATCOM

A

Satellite Communications - used to communicate to satellites that have UHF capabilities

92
Q

206- LOS

A

Line of Sight - used to communicate, via UHF, to ships and shore stations that are within line of sight.

93
Q

206- DAMA

A

Demand Assigned Multiple Access - The UHF DAMA subsystem was developed to multiples several baseband systems or users on one 25-kHz satellite channel. This has the effect of adding more satellite circuits per channel to the UHF communtications system.

94
Q

206- VoIP

A

Voice over Internet Protocol

95
Q

206- DSN

A

Defense Switched Network - is an interbase non-secure C2 telecommunications system that provides end-to-end command use and dedicated telephone service.

96
Q

206- DRSN

A

Defense Information System Network - provides secure voice services using the Joint Staff Defense Red Switch Network (DRSN) Top Secret SCI Level

97
Q

206- POTS

A

Plain Old Telephone Service

98
Q

206- APTS

A

Aloat Personnel Telecommunications System - provide personal telecommuntications service to shipboard crewmembers at sea is a highly visible quality of life issue that positively affects the life of the sailor at sea.

99
Q

206- STE

A

Secure Terminal Equipment - is the evolution successor to the Secure Telephone Unit.

100
Q

206- RI

A

Routing Indicator - Routing indicators are combinations of not less than four not more than seven letters.

101
Q

206- OSRI

A

Originating Station Routing Indicator - This idenifies the command originator assigned AUTODIN of Fleet Routing indicator (FRI)

102
Q

206- DSRI

A

Destination Routing Indicator - Consists of a six or seven character code indentifying the station or system the message will be delivered to upon receipt by Autodin

103
Q

206- State the purpose of MPS-800

A

The MSP800 is a WAN/LAN data communication server that attaches to local area networks to provide wide area connectivity

104
Q

206- PMUL

A

Pacific Multiple Channel Broadcast

105
Q

206- LMUL

A

Atlantic Multiple Channel Broadcast

106
Q

206- IMUL

A

Indian Multiple Channel Broadcast

107
Q

206- FLTNOC

A

Fleet Network Operation Centers - are designed to provide IP services to fleet IT-21/Intergrated Shipboard Network System (ISNS) and deployed ground forces.

108
Q

206- UARNOC

A

Unified Atlantic Region Network Operations Center - Norfolk, VA

109
Q

206- PRNOC

A

Pacific Region Network Operations Center - Wahiawa, HI

110
Q

206- ECRNOC

A

European Central Region Network Operations Center - Naples, Italy

111
Q

206- IORNOC

A

Indian Ocean Region Network Operations Center - Bahrain

112
Q

206- Name the instruction that governs all computer network incident responses.

A

OPNAVINST 2201.2

113
Q

206- Explain the role of Technical Control.

A

Directs control, operation and patching of long-hual communications media including satellite and local circuits.

114
Q

206- EHF FOT

A

Extremely-high-frequency follow on terminal

115
Q

206- LDR

A

Low Data Rate

116
Q

206- MDR

A

Medium Data Rate

117
Q

206- PTP

A

Point to point

118
Q

206- EC

A

Earth Coverage - That portion of the eart seen by the satellite

119
Q

206- Spot Beam

A

A narrow antenna beam of approximatelly 5 degree beam width or less used to illuminate selected terrestrial areas.

120
Q

206- INMARSAT

A

International Maritime Satellite - used to provide support to surface units at sea.

121
Q

206- ISDN

A

Intergrated Services Digital Network - is a set of communications standards for simultaneous digital transmission of voice, video, data, and other network services over the traditional circuits of the public switched network.

122
Q

206- VIXS

A

Video Information Exchange System - Is the military video network

123
Q

206- DVSG

A

DISN Video Services - Global (DVS-G) is the name of the Government contract for the HUBS developed in support of the DODs Global VTC vision.

124
Q

206- State the purpose of iridium phones.

A

They offer worldwide coverage with low orbiting, cross-linking satellites provides critical voice and dtat services for areas not served by terrestrial communication networks

125
Q

206- SAR

A

Satellite Access Request - used to request satellite services

126
Q

206- GAR

A

Gateway Access Request - used to reqquest IP gateway related services

127
Q

206- ASI

A

Authorized Service Interruption - is a request to interrupt services for maintenance or troubleshoot equipment.

128
Q

206- Print server

A

A device that allows computer workstations to interface with one or more printers that are shared on a network.

129
Q

206- File Server

A

Responsible for the central storage and management of the data files so that other computerson the same network can access files.

130
Q

206- Mail Server

A

An application that receives incoming e-mail from local users (people within the same domain)and remote senders and forwards outgoing e-mails for delivery.

131
Q

206- DNS

A

Domain Name Server - Translates web page URLs (Uniform Resorce Locator) to exact IP addresses.

132
Q

206- Web Server

A

Web servers are computers on the Internet that host websites, serving pages to viewers upon request.

133
Q

206- VLAN

A

Virtual Local Area Network - is a logical local area network (or LAN) that extend beyond a single LAN to a group of LAN segment.

134
Q

206- RAID

A

Redundant Array of Independent Disk - is a way of storing the same datat in different places on multiple hard disk.

135
Q

206- MODEM

A

Modulator-demodulator - is an electronic device that converts a computer’s digital signals into specific frequencies to travel over telephone or cable television lines.

136
Q

206- OWA

A

Outlook Web Access - is a browser-based email client accessible from the web.

137
Q

206- HTTP

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol

138
Q

206- HTTPS

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure

139
Q

206- Port 80

A

Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) and web services

140
Q

206- Port 8080

A

Is an alternative to the port 80 used by

141
Q

206- Port 443

A

Used for HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) the common protocol used to access a secure Web server.

142
Q

206- IEEE

A

Institute of Electrical and electronics Engineers - “The world’s largest technical professional society”

143
Q

206- UTP

A

Unshielded Twisted Pair - is a type of cable used in telecommunications and computer networks.

144
Q

206- STP

A

Shielded Twisted Pair - Transmission media used often where the cable must pass near sources of electromagnetic interference(noise).

145
Q

206- Coaxial

A

A Type of wire that consists of a center wire surrounded by insulation and then a grounded sheield of braided wired.

146
Q

206- Fiber Optic

A

Fiber optic technology makes us of light to carry digital signals via opticalcables.

147
Q

206- Ping

A

Is the name of a standard software utility (tool) used to test network connections.

148
Q

206- Spillage

A

Information of higher classification or restrictive nature intentionally of inadvertentently placed on machines/networks of lower classification/less restrictive policy

149
Q

206- Procedures for correcting a spillage.

A

Report; Contain; Contact;

150
Q

206- TPI

A

Two Person Integraty is a system of handling and storing, designed to prevent single-person access to certain COMSEC materials.

151
Q

206- COMSEC incident

A

Any uninvestigated/unevaluated occurrence that hat the potential to jeopardize the security of COMSEC material or the secure transmission of classified of sensitive information.

152
Q

206- Reportable PDS

A

Reportable Practices Dangerous to Security (PDS) - occur when a premature or out-of-sequence use of keying material before its effective date, as long as the material was not reused. Or, inavertently (early) destruction of CPMSEC material. It must be reported outside the command to the Controlling Authority of the material, NCMS and central Office of Records.

153
Q

206- Non-Reportable PDS

A

Non-Reportable Practices Dangerous to Security (PDS) occurs when improperly completed accounting reports or physical COMSEC keying material transferred with markings still intact.

154
Q

206- State how often ISIC COMSEC inspections are required.

A

Every two years.

155
Q

206- CMS

A

COMSEC Material System - COMSEC material control within the US Government is on a system of centralized and local accounting and decentralized custody and protection.

156
Q

206- How often CMS Advise and Assist visits are required?

A

All DON EKMS Accounts are required to receive a periodic CMS A&A Training Visit no later than 90 days prior to the next schedule formal inspection.

157
Q

206- How often is a CO required to conduct a CMS inspection.

A

Unannounced spot checks are conducted at least quarterly, of the COMSEC Vault and spaces where COMSEC Material is used and stored.

158
Q

206- State the purpose of the EKMS Manager.

A

EKMS Managers are responsible for all actions associated with the receipt, handling issue, safegaurding, accounting and disposition of the COMSEC material assigned to an EKMS account and also serves as the Cos primary advisor on EKMS account management matters.

159
Q

207- Electronic Warfare Support

A

Provides a source of information required for immediat decisions involving electronic countermeasures and other tactical actions such as acoidance, targeting and homing.

160
Q

207- EA

A

Electronic Attack - or Electric countermeasures (ECM) involves the use of electromagnetic energy, of counter-electromagnetic radiation weapons to attack personnel, facilities, or equipment with the intention of directly affecting, degrading, neutralizing, or destroying an enemy’s combat capability.

161
Q

207- Electronic Protect

A

Actions taken to protect personnel, facilities, and equipment from any effects of friendly or enemy use of the electromagnetic spectrum that degrade, neutralize, or destroy friendly combat capability.

162
Q

207- ARH

A

Active Radar Homing - A missile guidance method in which a guided missile contains a radar trasceiver.

163
Q

207- Active Radar Homing

A

Utilizes a radar system on the missile to provide a guidance signal.

164
Q

207- Semiactive Radar Homing

A

Uses a combination of a radar receiver on the missile and a radar broadcaster located elsewhere to provide a guided signal.

165
Q

207- AN/SLQ-32A/B(V)

A

Provides operational capability for early warning of threat weapon system emitters and emitters associated with targeting platforms, treat information to own ship hard kill weapons, automatic dispensing of chaff decoys, and electronic Attack (EA) to alter specific and generic ASCM (Anti-Ship Cruise Missiles) trajectories. (passive system)

166
Q

207- EP-3

A

Signals Reconnaissance Aircraft

167
Q

207- P-3C

A

Maritime surveillance, reconnaissance anti-surface warfare, anti-submarine warfare aircraft.

168
Q

207- UAV

A

Unmanned Aerial Vehicle

169
Q

207- EMI

A

Electromagnetic Interference - Is a Disturbance that affects an electrical circuit due to either electromagnetic induction or electromagnetic radiation emitted from an external source.

170
Q

207- Technical ELINT

A

Determines the capabilities and limitations of target emitters.

171
Q

207- Operational ELINT

A

Determins the locationsand readiness of target emitters.

172
Q

207- AESOP

A

Afloat Electromagnetic Spectrum Operations Program- Used to coordinate RADAR, EW, Communications, navigational aids, and other frequencies.

173
Q

207- Discuss EMCON Conditions.

A

Emission Control - is the selective and controlled use of EM, acoustic, or other emitters to optimize C2 capabilities while minimizing, for operations security: (1) Detection by enemy sensors; (2) Mutual interference among frinedly systems; (3) Inhibitors to executing a military deception plan.

174
Q

207- Electromagnetic Jamming

A

Is the deliberate radiation, reradiation, or reflection of EM energy for the purpose of preventing or reducing an enemy’s effective use of the EMS, with the intent of degrading or neutralizing the enemy’s combate capabilty.

175
Q

207-What are the three types of Electromagnetic Deception

A

(1) Manipulative EM deception; (2) Simulated EM Deception; (3) Imitative EM Deception.

176
Q

207- Comms EA

A

Communications electronic attack

177
Q

207- MILDEC

A

Military Deceptions, is defined as being as being those actions executed to deliberately mislead adversay decision makers.

178
Q

207- What are the six principles of MILDEC

A

Foucus; Objective; Centralized Planning and Control; Security; Timelines; Integration

179
Q

207- What are the four MILDEC techniques

A

Feints; Demonstrations; Ruses; Displays

180
Q

207- Feints (MILDEC Techniques)

A

A Feint is an offensive action involving contact with the adversary conducted for the purpose of deceiving the adversary as to the location and/or time of the actual main offensive action.

181
Q

207- Demonstrations (MILDEC Techniques)

A

A Demonstration is a show of force where a decision is not sought and no contact with the adversary is intended. A demonstration’s intent is to cause the advesary to select an unfavorable course of action (COA)

182
Q

207- Ruses (MILDEC Techniques)

A

A ruse is a cunning trick designed to deceive the adversary to obtain friendly advantage.

183
Q

207- Displays (MILDEC Techniques)

A

Displays are the simulation, disguising, and/or portrayal of friendly objects, units, or capabilities in the projection of the MILDEC story. Such capabilities may not exist, but are made to appear so (simulations).

184
Q

207- Counter-deception

A

Efforts to negate, neutralize, diminish the effects of/or gain advantage from a foreign MILDEC operation.

185
Q

207-OPSEC

A

Is an analytical process by which an organization can deny to potential adversaries about capabilities and intentions.

186
Q

207- What are the five steps of the OPSEC planning process

A

Identify Critical Information; Analyaze the Threat; Analyaze Vanerablities; Assess the Risk; Appy OPSEC Measures.

187
Q

207- WRA

A

Web Risk Assessment - Makes sure navy sponsored websites are in compliance with all applicable DOD and DON policies

188
Q

207- DoN web site restrictions

A

No classified material; No “For Official Use Only” Information; Proprietary information or information that could enable the recipient to infer this type of information.

189
Q

207- River city

A

Conditions provide procedures to control out going paths from ships and shore systems for the purpose of OPSEC and force protection.

190
Q

207- MISO

A

Military Information Support Operations

191
Q

207- Define MISO

A

The specific purpose of psychological operations (MISO) is to influence foreign audience perceptions and subsequent behavior as part of approved programs

192
Q

207- What is the difference MISO and Pubic Affairs

A

MISO is propaganda and is actual facts and data.

193
Q

207- Vulnerability Assessment

A

Is the process of identifying quantifying and prioritizing the vulnerabilities in a system.

194
Q

207- What organizations conduct vulnerability assessments?

A

PSYOP; MILDEC, OPSEC, EW and CNO through the information Assurance (IA) team.

195
Q

207- What are the categories of computer incidents that are reported (9)

A

(1) Root Level Intrusion (incident); (2) User Level Intrusion (incident); (3) Unsucessful Activity Attempt (Event); (4) Denial of Service (Incident); (5) Non-Compliance Activity (Event); (6) Reconnaissance (Event); (7) Malicious Logic (Incident); (8) Investigation (Event); (9) Explained Anomaly (Event)

IDW (5 decks)

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