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RBT > 3 Star Difficultly > Flashcards

3 Star Difficultly Flashcards

1
Q

Which could inhibit generalization?
a) Not varying prompting systems.
b) Not varying probes.
c) Not teaching learning how to learn behaviours.
d) Not changing feedback.

A

d) Not changing feedback.
(10A)

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2
Q

Within the APM (Autism Partnership Method) what is one consideration when promoting generalization?
a) Type of style
b) Type of edible
c) Type of shaping
d) Type of reinforcement

A

d) Type of reinforcement
(10A)

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3
Q

Which of the following did Stokes and Baer (1977) outline as a method to promote generalization?
a) Programming sequentially
b) Modifying responses
c) Training loosely
d) Reinforcing differentially

A

c) Training loosely
(10A)

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4
Q

This refers to behaviour that has come under the sole control of one characteristic of a stimulus.
a) Response overselectivity
b) Stimulus overselectivity
c) Generalization overselectivity
d) Pairing overselectivity

A

b) Stimulus overselectivity
(10A)

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5
Q

Engaging in a different response under the same conditions is known as which of the following:
a) Response generalization
b) Stimulus generalization
c) Stimulus class
d) Response class

A

a) Response generalization
(10A)

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6
Q

Engaging in the same response when the stimulus changes is known as which of the following:
a) Stimulus generalization
b) Response generalization
c) Stimulus class
d) Response class

A

a) Stimulus generalization
(10A)

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7
Q

Which of the following terms refer to when multiple responses result in the same outcome?
a) Response pairing
b) Stimulus pairing
c) Stimulus class
d) Response class

A

d) Response class
(10A)

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8
Q

Which of the following terms refer to when multiple stimuli evoke the same response?
a) Response class
b) Stimulus class
c) Stimulus pairing
d) Response pairing

A

b) Stimulus class
(10A)

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9
Q

Behaviour that is learned under one condition that begins to occur in other conditions is known as which of the following?
a) Maintenance
b) Stimulus control
c) Generalization
d) Overselectivity

A

c) Generalization
(10A)

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10
Q

Which one of the following is one of the four basic schedules of reinforcement?
a) Fixed variable
b) Variable Interval
c) Ratio interval
d) Fixed Timing

A

b) variable interval
(4B)

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11
Q

“A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behaviour following the time period where the time period is fixed” describes which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Fixed-ratio
b) Fixed interval
c) Variable Interval
d) Variable ratio

A

b) Fixed interval
(4B)

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12
Q

Scalloped patterns of responding are typically associated with which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Variable-ratio
b) Variable interval
c) Fixed interval
d) Fixed-ratio

A

c) fixed interval
(4B)

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13
Q

“A reinforcer delivered contingent upon the first behaviour following the time period where the time period is variable” describes which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Variable-interval
b) Fixed interval
c) Fixed ratio
d) Variable Ratio

A

a) Variable-interval
(4B)

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14
Q

Which schedules of reinforcement requires the completion of a specified, unvarying number of responses to produce a reinforcer?
a) Variable ratio
b) Fixed interval
c) Variable interval
d) Fixed ratio

A

d) fixed ratio
(4B)

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15
Q

Which schedule of reinforcement requires the completion of a variable number of responses to produce a reinforcer?
a) Variable ratio
b) Fixed ratio
c) Fixed interval
d) Variable interval

A

a) Variable Ratio
(4B)

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16
Q

“A systematic approach to understanding behaviour of social important” best describes:
a) Applied Behaviour Analysis
b) Experimental Analysis of Behaviour
c) Behaviourism
d) Philosophy of Behaviour

A

a) Applied Behaviour Analysis
(3A)

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17
Q

“The practice of objective observation of the phenomena of interest” best describes:
a) Determinism
b) Behaviourism
c) Empiricism
d) Pragmatism

A

c) Empiricism
(3A)

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18
Q

“Those events that take place within an organism’s skin or are otherwise only accessible to the organism” best describes:
a) Private events
b) Public events
c) Explanatory fictions
d) Autoclitics

A

a) Private events
(3C)

19
Q

“A type of verbal behaviour in which the response form or topography controlled by a current unlearned or learner establishing operation” best describes:
a) Intraverbal
b) Echoic
c) Mand
d) Tact

A

C) Mand
(3C)

20
Q

“A stimulus that is auditory that evokes a response of speaking in a way that sounds similar to that stimulus” best describes:
a) Tact
b) Echoic
c) Mand
d) Intraverbal

A

b) Echoic
(3C)

21
Q

“A type of verbal behaviour with the response controlled primarily by an immediately prior nonverbal stimulus” best describes which of the following?
a) Echoic
b) Intraverbal
c) Tact
d) Mand

A

c) Tact
(3C)

22
Q

“If a behaviour is followed closely in time by a stimulus event and as a result the future frequency of that type of behaviour increases in similar conditions” best describes:
a) punishment
b) reinforcement
c) prompting
d) shaping

A

b) reinforcement
(4A)

23
Q

Providing a learner with an iPad following a correct response that results in an increase in correct responses best describes:
a) negative punishment
b) positive punishment
c) negative reinforcement
d) positive reinforcement

A

d) positive reinforcement
(4A)

24
Q

“When a response is followed by the presentation of a stimulus, and, as a result, similar responses occur more frequently in the future” best describes:
a) positive reinforcement
b) negative reinforcement
c) positive punishment
d) negative punishment

A

a) positive reinforcement
(4A)

25
Q

“The occurrence of a response produces the removal, termination, reduction, or postponement of a stimulus, which leads to an increase in the future occurrence of that response” best describes:
a) negative reinforcement
b) positive reinforcement
c) negative punishment
d) positive punishment

A

a) negative reinforcement
(4A)

26
Q

Providing a learner with a break following a correct response that increases correct responses is most likely an example of which:
a) positive punishment
b) negative punishment
c) negative reinforcement
d) positive reinforcement

A

c) negative reinforcement
(4A)

27
Q

Money is most likely an example of which of the following:
a) Generalized unconditioned reinforcer
b) Generalized conditioned reinforcer
c) Generalized conditioned punisher
d) Generalized unconditioned punisher

A

b) Generalized conditioned reinforcer
(4A)

28
Q

“A previously neutral stimulus change that has acquired the capability to function as a reinforcer through stimulus-stimulus pairing with one or more unconditioned reinforcers or conditioned reinforcers” best describes:
a) unconditioned reinforcer
b) conditioned punisher
c) unconditioned punisher
d) conditioned reinforcer

A

d) conditioned reinforcer
(4A)

29
Q

Food is an example of which of the following:
a) unconditioned reinforcer
b) conditioned reinforcer
c) conditioned punisher
d) unconditioned punisher

A

a) unconditioned reinforcer
(4A)

30
Q

“A stimulus change that can increase the future frequency of behaviour without prior pairing with any other form of reinforcement” best describes which:
a) conditioned reinforcer
b) conditioned punisher
c) unconditioned reinforcer
d) unconditioned punisher

A

c) unconditioned reinforcer
(4A)

31
Q

Which of the following is the primary behavioural principle responsible for the effectiveness of a response cost system?
a) shaping
b) prompting
c) reinforcement
d) punishment

A

d) punishment
(7E)

32
Q

Response cost should always be combined with which of the following:
a) punishment
b) shaping
c) prompting
d) reinforcement

A

d) reinforcement
(7E)

33
Q

What is one variable a technician should analyze when implementing flexible prompt fading?
a) Responses on previous trials
b) Parental reports
c) Supervision notes
d) Findings in Journal of Applied Behaviour Analysis

A

a) Responses on previous trails
(8C)

34
Q

Within flexible prompt fading the goal of the technician is to keep the learner at ___ accuracy (prompted or unprompted)
a) 75%
b) 80%
c) 100%
d) 50%

A

b) 80%
(8C)

35
Q

Which prompting system relies on the use of clinical judgement?
a) Most-to-least prompting
b) No-no prompting
c) Flexible prompt fading
d) Constant time delay

A

c) Flexible prompt fading
(8C)

36
Q

No-no prompt was orginially designed for use in a(n):
a) gross motor task
b) expressive labeling task
c) three choice discrimination
d) two choice discrimination

A

d) two choice discrimination
(8C)

37
Q

Which prompting systems involves providing a prompt and then fading prompts until the learner responds independently?
a) Least-to-most
b) Most-to-least
c) Simultaneous prompting
d) No-no prompt

A

b) Most-to-least
(8C)

38
Q

Which prompting system involves giving the learner the opportunity to respond independently prior to providing a prompt?
a) Errorless learning
b) Simultaneous prompting
c) Most-to-least
d) Least-to-most

A

d) Least-to-most
(8C)

39
Q

Which prompting system is time based with at least two time levels (e.g. 0 seconds and 10 seconds)
a) Constant time delay
b) Progressive time delay
c) Simultaneous prompting
d) Least-to-most

A

a) Constant time delay
(8C)

40
Q

Which prompting system involves providing a prompt with a 0 second delay and never increasing that delay?
a) Simultaneous
b) Most-to-least
c) Flexible prompt fading
d) Constant time delay

A

a) Simulataneous
(8C)

41
Q

The ADOS is used for which of the following?
a) To help IEP reports
b) To help diagnosis
c) As a curriculum tool
d) As a curriculum assessment

A

b) To help diagnosis
(14A)

42
Q

The GARS provides a rating of which of the following?
a) Social deficits
b) Cognitive skills
c) Autistic symptomatology
d) Language improvements

A

c) Autistic symptomatology
(14A)

43
Q

The SSiS can be used in aiding which of the following?
a) Measurement
b) Other assessments
c) Training
d) The development of treatment

A

d) The development of treatment
(14A)

44
Q

What should be the RBTs role in formal assessments?
a) Help in administration
b) Solo administration
c) Never administrate
d) Administrate with psychologist

A

a) Help in administration
(14A)

RBT (6 decks)

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