1 Star Difficulty Flashcards

1
Q
A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The three branches of the science of behaviour analysis are the:
a) experimental analysis of behaviour, behaviourism and Applied Behaviour Analysis
b) experimental analysis of behaviour, Acceptance and Commitment Therapy and Applied Behaviour Analysis
c) experimental analysis of behaviour, basic research and Applied Behaviour Analysis
d) experimental analysis of behaviour, gestalt and Applied Behaviour Analysis

A

a) experimental analysis of behaviour, behaviourism and Applied Behaviour Analysis
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is a component of good teaching?
a) Technical
b) Fun
c) Subjective
d) Emotional

A

b) Fun
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Who is commonly attributed for discovering the law of effect?
a) Skinner
b) Watson
c) Thorndike
d) Baer

A

c) Thorndike
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who is commonly considered the father of behaviourism?
a) Watson
b) Wolf
c) Risely
d) Pavlov

A

a) Watson
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a dimension of ABA as outlined by Baer, Wolf & Risley (1968)?
a) Empirical
b) Generality
c) Evidenced
d) Scientific

A

b) Generality
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What percentage of participants reached recovery in the Lovaas (1987) study?
a) 23%
b) 98%
c) 6%
d) 47%

A

d) 47%
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What was one of the primary lessons learned from Lovaas (1973)?
a) Parents should not be part of intervention
b) Need for parents to be trained
c) Children with autism cannot learn
d) Intervention can only be implemented to young children

A

b) Need for parents to be trained
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the Lovaas (1987) study, what was the criteria for best outcome?
a) IQ, school placement and diagnosis
b) IQ, school placement and funding
c) School placement, diagnosis and parents reporting
d) School placement, parent reporting and sibling reporting

A

a) IQ, school placement and diagnosis
(1B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is one aspect of the learner that is assessed when using clinical judgement?
a) Availability
b) Receptivity
c) Private events
d) Subjectivity

A

b) Receptivity
(1C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the crux of progressive ABA?
a) Protocols
b) Training
c) Intensive treatment
d) Clinical judgement

A

d) Clinical judgement
(1C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is a definition of a progressive approach to ABA?
a) Adherence to ABA protocols
b) Combining the science and art of ABA
c) The science of ABA
d) Combing various interventions

A

b) Combining the science and art of ABA
(1C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is one component of ridgid ABA?
a) Unvarying adherence to protocols
b) Early intensive intervention
c) Parent education and training
d) Implementing comprehensive curriculum

A

a) Unvarying adherence to protocols
(1C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

“The duration, rate, frequency, etc. of behaviour absent of any restrictions” is the definition of which of the following terms?
a) Free operant
b) Controlled operant
c) Operant
d) Respondent

A

a) Free operant
(3B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

“A stimulus change that follows a behaviour of interest” is the definition of which of the following terms?
a) Antecedent
b) Consequence
c) Establishing operation
d) Motivating operation

A

b) Consequence
(3B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

“Environmental conditions or stimulus changes that exist or occur prior to the behaviour of interest” is the definition of which of the following terms?
a) Consequence
b) Antecedent
c) Establishing operation
d) Motivating reinforcer

A

b) Antecedent
(3B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

“A group of responses with the same function” best describes a:
a) generalization class
b) response
c) generalized operant
d) response class

A

d) response class
(3B)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Having a learner select which items they like prior to teaching following a systematic protocol to identify hierarchy of potential preferences is known as which of the following?
a) Informal preference assessments
b) Formal preference assessments
c) Formal reinforcement assessments
d) Informal reinforcement assessments

A

b) Formal preference assessments
(4C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One problem with informal interviews to identify potential reinforcers is they are not:
a) evidence-based
b) useful
c) reliable
d) comprehensive

A

c) reliable
(4C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Providing free access to a variety of stimuli for the purposes of identifying potential reinforcers is best described by which of the following?
a) Free operant preference assessment
b) Paired stimulus preference assessment
c) Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment
d) In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

A

a) Free operant preference assessment
(4C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Providing a learner with a series of choices between two items in an effort to identify potential reinforcers best describes which of the following?
a) Free operant preference assessment
b) Multiple stimulus without replacement preference assessment
c) Paired stimulus preference assessment
d) In-the-moment reinforcer analysis

A

c) Paired stimulus preference assessment
(4C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Presenting an array of items and asking the learner select one item and then putting the item back in the array after the selection in an effort to identify potential reinforcers best describes which of the following?
a) In-the-moment reinforcer analysis
b) Paired stimulus preference assessment
c) Multiple stimulus preference assessment
d) Free operant preference assessment

A

c) Multiple stimulus preference assessment
(4C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A procedure in which the RBT makes assesses a variety of variables moment to moment to identify what could potentially function as a reinforcer is known as a(n):
a) paired stimulus preference assessment
b) in-the-moment reinforcer analysis
c) free operant preference assessment
d) multiple stimulus without replacement

A

b) in-the-moment reinforcer analysis
(4C)

24
Q

When compared to formal preference assessments, research on in-the-moment reinforcer analysis as shown it to be:
a) more efficient
b) more effective
c) as efficient
d) more socially valid

A

a) more efficient
(4C)

25
Q

Which of the following best describes when a learner earns tickets which are eventually exchanged for a toy?
a) Overcorrection
b) Positive practice
c) Punishment
d) Token economy

A

d) Token economy
(4F)

26
Q

What is one of the most important components of a token economy?
a) Using poker chips
b) Using effective reinforcers
c) Ensuring the board has 10 tokens
d) Conducting a preference assessment

A

b) Using effective reinforcers
(4F)

27
Q

Rainbow tokens most closely aligns with which schedule of reinforcement?
a) Fixed-interval
b) Variable-interval
c) Conjugate
d) Fixed-time

A

c) Conjugate
(4F)

28
Q

Which token economy is in place when the learner is unaware of how many tokens are required prior to exchanging?
a) Premack principle
b) Level system
c) Magic number
d) Conjugate

A

c) Magic number
(4F)

29
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon the learner engaging in a specific behaviour instead of the aberrant behaviour is known as which of the following?
a) Differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO)
b) Differential reinforcement of alternative behaviour (DRA)
c) Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviours (DRI)
d) Differential reinforcement of low rates of behaviours (DRL)

A

b) Differential reinforcement of alternative behaviour (DRA)
(7G)

30
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon the learner engaging in a behaviour that cannot be done at the same time as the targeted aberrant behaviour is known as which of the following?
a) Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviour (DRI)
b) Differential reinforcement of alternative behaviour (DRA)
c) Differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO)
d) Differential reinforcement of low rates of behaviour (DRL)

A

a) Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviour (DRI)
(7G)

31
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon the absence of aberrant behaviour is known as which of the following?
a) Differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO)
b) Differential reinforcement of low rates of behaviour (DRL)
c) Differential reinforcement of alternative behaviour (DRA)
d) Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviour (DRI)

A

a) Differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO)
(7G)

32
Q

Reinforcement contingent upon displaying lower rates of behaviour is known as which of the following?
a) Differential reinforcement of other behaviour (DRO)
b) Differential reinforcement of incompatible behaviour (DRI)
c) Differential reinforcement of alternative behaviour (DRA)
d) Differential reinforcement of low rates of behaviour (DRL)

A

d) Differential reinforcement of low rates of behaviour (DRL)
(7G)

33
Q

Which of the following procedures have been found to be more effective than Social Stories?
a) Teaching Interaction Procedure, video modeling and Cool Versus Not Cool
b) Teaching Interaction Procedure, first-then and Cool Versus Not Cool
c) Video modeling, Cool Versus Not Cool and first-then
d) Video modeling, first-then and Teaching Interaction Procedure

A

a) Teaching Interaction Procedure, video modeling and Cool Versus Not Cool
(7H)

34
Q

One potential problem with social stories is they have not been:
a) researched
b) shown to be as effective as other procedures
c) frequently implemented clinically
d) easy to implement

A

b) shown to be as effective as other procedures
(7H)

35
Q

What is one problem with a first-then strategy?
a) Visual support
b) Ineffective
c) Bribery land
d) Predictable

A

c) Bribery land
(7H)

36
Q

Which of the following are three types of video modeling?
a) Basic, advanced and POV
b) Basic, self and group
c) Basic, self and POV
d) Basic, advanced and group

A

c) Basic, self and POV
(7H)

37
Q

Having a client watch a video of an individual displaying the desired behaviour is known as video which of the following?
a) Modeling
b) Stimulus
c) Prompting
d) Instruction

A

a) Modeling
(7H)

38
Q

When using script fading, how many people are involved in the process?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3

A

d) 3
(7H)

39
Q

An audiotaped, written word, phase or sentence used to teach conversation and social behaviour is known as which of the following?
a) Social stories
b) Script fading
c) Social scripts
d) Scripting

A

b) Script fading
(7H)

40
Q

Having a student engage in a series of preferred tasks prior to presenting on nonpreferred task is known as which of the following?
a) Activity schedules
b) Behavioural momentum
c) Social stories
d) Script fading

A

b) Behavioural momentum
(7H)

41
Q

Interventions that manipulate the value of consequences are also known as which of the following?
a) Prompting based procedures
b) Stimulus based procedures
c) Antecedent based procedures
d) Generality based procedures

A

c) Antecedent based procedures
(7H)

42
Q

Specific prompts that are provided are commonly referred to as which of the following?
a) Most-to-least
b) Errorless learning
c) Prompting systems
d) Prompt types

A

d) Prompt types
(8B)

43
Q

Rules of when to prompt and what prompts to provide are commonly referred to as which of the following?
a) Controlling prompts
b) Prompt types
c) Prompts
d) Prompting systems

A

d) Prompting systems
(8B)

44
Q

Gestures, positional and looking at the targeted response are all examples of which type of prompts?
a) Controlling
b) Response
c) Stimulus
d) Non-controlling

A

c) Stimulus
(8B)

45
Q

Any behaviour the interventionist engages in that increases the likelihood that the learner will respond correctly is known as which of the following?
a) Prompting
b) Shaping
c) Extinction
d) Discrete trial teaching

A

a) Prompting
(8B)

46
Q

Behaviour continuing following the conclusion of teaching is commonly referred to as which of the following?
a) Overselectivity
b) Stimulus control
c) Generalization
d) Maintenance

A

d) Maintenance
(10B)

47
Q

Which of the following should be the best way to help promote maintenance?
a) Train and hope
b) Fade toward naturally occurring contingencies
c) Avoid punishment
d) Implement punishment

A

b) Fade toward naturally occurring contingencies
(10B)

48
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a quality classroom?
a) Sensory room/area
b) Having a schedule
c) Subjective data
d) Cubicles

A

b) Having a schedule
(15B)W

49
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of a quality school district?
a) RBT on staff
b) BCBA on staff
c) Buy in
d) Multi-disciplined

A

c) Buy in
(15B)

50
Q

Which of the following is an important skill a technician should display when working in schools?
a) Listening
b) Bringing in research
c) Providing feedback
d) Small term goals

A

a) Listening
(15C)

51
Q

When a group of parents come together to talk about issues related to ASD this is known as parent ___.
a) counseling
b) education
c) support
d) training

A

c) support
(15F)

52
Q

Teaching a parent about concepts related to ABA only in a didactic format is known as parent ___.
a) counseling
b) education
c) support
d) training

A

b) education
(15F)

53
Q

Teaching global approaches to deal with specific problems is known as which of the following?
a) Parent Counseling
b) Parent education
c) A prescriptive approach
d) A psychoeducational approach

A

d) A psychoeducational approach
(15F)

54
Q

Working on specific problems or areas is known as which of the following?
a) Parent education
b) A prescriptive approach
c) Parent counseling
d) A psychoeducational approach

A

b) A prescriptive approach
(15F)

55
Q

Which of the following is a problem with a prescriptive approach?
a) Failure to generalize behaviours
b) Does not teach concepts
c) Parent dissatisfaction
d) Staff dissatisfaction

A

a) Failure to generalize behaviours
(15F)

56
Q

The main purpose of this RBT training is to:
a) provide another resource about the RBT
b) improve the lives of individuals with autism
c) improve the lives of typically developing children
d) provide information on a conventional model

A

b) improve the lives of individuals with autism
(1A)