Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

CompTIA A+ 1101 (Core 1)_ > 2.4 Summarize services provided by networked hosts > Flashcards

2.4 Summarize services provided by networked hosts Flashcards

1
Q

What is the current version of SMB?

A

SMB3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is SMB1 disabled by default on current Windows versions?

A

It has security vulnerabilities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How can SMB be implemented on Linux-based devices & NAS appliances?

A

Via Samba software suite

This allows a Windows client to access a Linux host as though it were a Windows file or print server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What did the eraliest Windows network use instead of TCP/IP?

A

NetBIOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Meaning of NetBIOS?

A

Network Basic Input/Output System

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What did NetBIOS allow computers to do?

A

Address one another by name & establish sessions over protocols

protocols like SMB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What was NetBIOS re-engineered to work over?

A

TCP & UDP protocols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What term is used to describe the re-engineering of NetBIOS to function over TCP and UDP protocols?

A

NetBT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Meaning of NetBT?

A

NetBIOS over TCP/IP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What port does NetBT use for name services?

A

UDP/137

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does NetBT use UDP/137 for?

A

Name services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What port does NetBT use for session services?

A

TCP/139

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What does NetBT use TCP/139 for?

A

Session services

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is NetBT obselete?

A

Yes

Modern networks use IP, TCP/IP, & DNS for these functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why should NetBT be disables on most networks?

A

Poses a risk to security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

When should NetBT be used?

A

When network needs to support file sharing for pre-Windows 2000 versions

This is because pre-Windows 2000 systems rely on NetBIOS for file and printer sharing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What does FTP use TCP/21 for?

A

Establish a connection

Between client & server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does FTP use TCP/20 for?

A

Transfer data in Active or Passive mode

In FTP’s active mode, the server initiates the data connection to the client on port 20, but it can encounter firewall and NAT issues. Passive mode, where the client initiates both control and data connections to the server, is more firewall-friendly.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

2 FTP options that are encrypted?

A

SFTP & FTPS

FTPS = File Transfer Protocol Secure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Meaning of SFTP?

A

FTP over Secure Shell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which encrypted FTP version is widely used?

A

SFTP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does a web server do?

A

Provides client access using HTTP or HTTPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does HTTP enable clients to do?

Clients are typically web browsers

A

To request resources from an HTTP server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How does a server respond to an HTTP resource request from a client?

A

Returning requested data or responding with an error code

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What kind of webpages does HTTP serve?

A

HTML webpages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are HTML webpages?

A

Text files with coded tags describing how to format documents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does a web browser display HTML webpages?

A

Interprets the tags & other resources associated with the page

HTTP also enables hyperlinking to related documents and supports form submission (POST) for data transfer from client to server.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the functionality of HTTP often extended by?

A

Support for scripting & programmable features

(Web apps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Meaning of URL?

A

Uniform Resource Locators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are URLs used for?

A

Accessing resources on the Internet

They contain the necessary info. to identify & access an item

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What may a URL for an HTTP resource contain?

A
  • Protocol
  • Host location
  • File path
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Can the URL’s Host location be an IP address instead of the FQDN?

A

Yes, but IPv6 addresses must be enclosed in [ ]

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What does the URL’s File path specify?

A

The directory & file name locatoin of the resource (if required)

The file path may or may not be case sensitive, depending on how the server is configured

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do orgs. typically lease a web server or space on a server from?

A

ISP

Larger orgs. with Internet-connected datacenters may host websites themselves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the “intranet”?

A

Private network using web technologies for local access

It provides local access to internal resources for employees within an organization. It offers a secure environment for sharing information, collaboration, and communication exclusively among authorized internal users, helping to improve efficiency and streamline operations while maintaining data security.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the “extranet”?

A

Private network using web technologies for remote access

Enables remote access for authorized users who are external to the organization, such as business partners, suppliers, or customers. It provides a secure way to share specific resources and information with these external parties while maintaining the overall security and integrity of the internal network.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Meaning of SSL?

A

Secure Sockets Layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Why was SSL developed?

A

To address HTTP

Since HTTP was unencrypted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Meaning of TLS?

A

Transport Layer Security

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What was TLS developed from?

A

SSL

It was ratified as a standed by the IETF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

When is HTTP referred to as HTTPS?

A

When TLS is used with the HTTP application

Encrypted traffic is sent over TCP/443 rather than unencrypted TCP/80

TLS can be used to secure other TCP app protocols, like FTP, POP3/IMPA, SMTP, LDAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What term is used when TLS is used with UDP?

A

DTLS

DTLS = Datagram Transport Layer Security

Most often used in VPN solutions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

How is HTTPS implemented?

A

Web server is installed with a digital certificate issued by a trusted CA

CA = Certificate Authority

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What do certificates on web servers have?

A

Encrypted data to prove the identity of the server to the client

Assuming the client also trusts the CA (Certificate Authority)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

How is data in digital certificates encrypted?

A

Using a public/private encryption key pair

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Who possesses the private key in web server encryption?

A

Web server

The private key is kept a secret known only to the server

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How is the public key in web server encryption given to clients?

A

via the digital certificate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How are encrypted tunnels established in web server encryption?

A

Using the digital certificate’s key pair & a chosen cipher suite in TLS

Even if someone knows the public key, they can’t decrypt the tunnel’s contents without the server’s private key. This ensures secure communication, preventing third-party reading or modification.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

How does a browser open a secure session to an HTTPS server?

A

With a URL starting with https://

It displays a padlock icon in the address bar, indicating a trusted server certificate and a secure connection. Websites can enforce secure sessions, rejecting or redirecting plain HTTP requests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What scheme do email addresses follow?

A

URL scheme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What do email addresses compromise of?

A
  • Username
  • Domain name

Separated by an @ symbol

i.e. david.martin@comptia.org or david.martin@aol.com

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What does SMTP specify?

A

How email is delivered from 1 mail domain to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How does the sender’s SMTP server find the recipient’s SMTP server’s IP address?

A

By using the domain name of the recipient’s email address

SMTP servers for the domain are registered in DNS using Mail eXchange (MX) & host (A/AAAA) records

For user@example.com, the sender’s SMTP server queries DNS for the MX record of example.com. The DNS server returns mail.example.com, which is then resolved to an IP address for email delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is SMTP TCP/25 used for?

A

Message relay between SMTP servers, or MTAs

MTA = Message Transfer Agents

This means the process of transferring emails from a SMTP server to another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is SMTP TCP/587 used for?

A

Mail clients to submit emails to an SMTP server

STMP servers configured to support TCP/587 shoud use encryption & authentication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What do SMTP servers deliver emails to?

A

mailbox servers

i.e. POP3 or SMTP

A mailbox server could be a separate machine or a separate process running on the same computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is POP’s secure port?

A

TCP/995

58
Q

What happens when a user logs in to a POP email client?

A

Mailbox contents are downloaded to the local PC for processing

This allows the user to access and manage their emails locally, even when they are not connected to the internet.

59
Q

What does POP3 typically do to emails after downloading them to a device?

A

Deletes them from the mailbox server

Although some clients have the option to leave messages on the server

60
Q

How does IMAP differ from POP?

A

Allows simultaneous client access to the same mailbox with persistent connections

persistent connections enable clients to interact with the server efficiently, reducing overhead associated with connection setup and teardown.

61
Q

What can clients do to the mailbox with IMAP?

A

Manage the mailbox on the server & create multiple mailboxes

for instance, to organize messages in folders & to control when they are deleted

62
Q

How can IMAP TCP/143 be secured?

(Encrypted)

A

Using TLS

63
Q

Default port for IMAPS?

IMAPS = IMAP-Secure

A

TCP/993

64
Q

Meaning of SSO?

A

Single Sign-On

65
Q

What is SSO?

A

Centralized authentication for accessing multiple services with 1 login

66
Q

How does a directory database work?

A

Objects represent records while their attributes function as fields

attributes = things that are known about the object

67
Q

What standard are most directory databases based on?

A

X.500

X.500 standard is a set of protocols for directory services in a network. It defines the framework for developing and managing electronic directories that provide access to various resources such as email addresses and public keys.

68
Q

What does LDAP do?

A

Queries & updates an X.500 directory database

LDAP is widely supported in current directory products, such as Windows Active Directory and the open-source OpenLDAP

69
Q

Meaning of AAA?

A

Authentication, Authorization, & Accounting

70
Q

What do AAA servers do?

A

Consolidates authentication services across multiple access devices

AAA servers centralize authentication for various network devices and services, simplifying user logins and access management across the network.

71
Q

What components does AAA use?

A
  • Supplicant
  • Network Access Server (NAS) or Network Access Point (NAP)
  • AAA server

NAP = Nework Access Point

72
Q

What is the supplicant component in AAA?

A

Device requesting access

i.e. a user’s PC or laptop

73
Q

What is the Network Access Server (NAS) or Network Access Point (NAP) component in AAA?

Aka AAA clients & authenticators

A

Network devices that control access to the network

i.e. switches, APs, & VPN gateways

They forward data between the AAA server & the supplicant

74
Q

How is AAA often implemented?

A

Using RADIUS protocol

75
Q

Meaning of RADIUS?

A

Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service

76
Q

What does a terminal do?

A

Accepts input & displays output

Whereas the shell performs the actual processing

77
Q

What does a shell do?

A

Performs the actual processing

Whereas the terminal accepts input & displays output

78
Q

What is a terminal emulator?

A

Software that replicates the I/O function of TTY

(I/O = Input/Output) (TTY = TeleTYpe)

A TTY (Teletypewriter) is a device used for text communication over a network, often in the context of early computer systems. Terminal emulators might support connections to multiple types of shell

79
Q

What does a remote terminal emulator allow you to do?

A

To connet to the shell of a different host over the network

80
Q

What protocol is mainly used for secure remote access to UNIX, Linux servers, & various network appliances?

Network appliances like switches, routers, & firewalls)

A

SSH

81
Q

What is one of the most widely used SSH server implementations?

A

OpenSSH

82
Q

What is RDP?

A

Microsoft’s protocol for remote GUI connections to Windows

RDP clients for various OSs, including Linux, macOS, iOS, & Android, allow remote connection to Windows desktops from non-Windows devices. Additionally, there are open-source RDP server options like xrdp.

83
Q

What does SNMP consists of?

A

Management system & agents

84
Q

What do SNMP agents do?

A

Maintain a database called MIB

MIB = Management Information Base

85
Q

What is an SNMP agent?

A

Process running on a SNMP-compatible network device

i.e. switch router, server, etc.

86
Q

What info. do MIB databased hold?

This is the database maintained by an SNMP agent

A

Statistics relating to the activity of the device

i.e. the number of FPS handled by a switch

87
Q

What does it mean that SNMP agents can initiate a trap operation?

A

It informs the management system of a notable event

i.e. port failure

The threshold for triggering traps can be set for each value

88
Q

What does the SNMP management system do?

A

Polls agents for Management Information Base (MIB) info & displays it for review

Also displays trap operations as alerts for admin assessment & action

“Polls” in this context means that the monitoring system actively requests information from the SNMP agents at regular intervals.

89
Q

What does a log collector do?

A

Collects event messages from multiple devices into one location

90
Q

What is syslog?

A

Protocol & software that facilitates log collection

Syslog is the standard for logging distributed events. i.e. syslog messages can be generated by routers & switches, as well as UNIX or Linux servers & workstations

91
Q

What port does a syslog collector usually listen on?

A

UDP/514

92
Q

What does a syslog message compromise of?

A

PRI code

93
Q

What is a syslog message’s PRI code?

A

Header with timestamp & host name, & a message

PRI code calculated from facility & severity. Message includes source process tag and content, format varies.

94
Q

What else do proxy servers do besides translating IP addresses?

Proxy servers act as NATs, translating between LAN’s private IP and router’s WAN IP

A

Receive, check, & forward HTTP requests to destination server

A proxy can also be used for other types of traffic (i.e email)

95
Q

What does a proxy server do upon receiving a reply from the destination server?

A

Checks it & then forwards it back to the LAN computer

A proxy can also be used for other types of traffic (i.e email)

96
Q

2 services a proxy server can operate as?

A

Transparent or nontransparent service

97
Q

How does a transparent proxy server differ from a nontransparent one?

A

By not requiring any special configuration

A non-transparent proxy requires explicit configuration on client devices, including specifying the IP address and service port of the proxy server, to route traffic through it. On the other hand, a transparent proxy does not require any such configuration on client devices as it intercepts and redirects traffic automatically.

98
Q

How does a nontransparent proxy server differ from a transparent one?

A

By requiring the IP address & service port of the proxy server

A non-transparent proxy requires explicit configuration on client devices, including specifying the IP address and service port of the proxy server, to route traffic through it. On the other hand, a transparent proxy does not require any such configuration on client devices as it intercepts and redirects traffic automatically.

99
Q

How can a proxy perform a security function?

A

By acting as a content filter & applying rules to access requests

i.e. it can restrict overall time limits or impose time-of-day restrictions

100
Q

How can a proxy improve performance & reduce bandwidth?

A

By configuring it to cache content

101
Q

Meaning of IDS?

A

Intrusion Detection System

102
Q

Meaning of IPS?

A

Intrusion Prevention System

103
Q

How does an IDS work?

A

Identifying malicious traffic using programmed scripts

An IDS can raise an alert when a match is made

104
Q

What does an IPS do?

A

Takes action to block the source of malicious packets

105
Q

What do antivirus/antimalware do?

A

Scan network-transferred files for known malware signatures in binary data

106
Q

What do spam gateways do?

A

Uses SPF, DKIM, & DMARC to verify the authenticity of mail servers

107
Q

What are spam gateways configured with?

A

Filters that can identify unwanted messages

i.e. spoofed, misleading, or malicious messages

108
Q

How is a spam gateway installed as?

A

Network server

Unwanted messages are filtered out before they’re delivered to the user’s inbox

109
Q

What do content filters do?

A

Block outgoing access to unauthorized websites & services

110
Q

What do DLP systems do?

DLP = Data Leak/Loss Prevention

A

Scans outgoing traffic for confidential or personal data

DLP systems can verify whether the transfer is authorized & block it if it’s not

111
Q

Meaning of UTM?

A

Unified Threat Management

112
Q

What is a UTM?

A

Appliance that combines multiple security functions

113
Q

What do load balancers do?

A

Distribute clients requests across servers in a pool

114
Q

When should a load balancer be used?

A

With multiple servers providing the same function

i.e. web servers, email servers, web conferencing servers, & streaming media servers.

115
Q

Where is a load balancer placed?

A

In front of the server network

It distributes requests from the client network or Internet to the application servers

116
Q

Why is a load balancer’s address advertised as a virtual server to clients?

A

To provide high availability & scalable services

“A load balancer’s address is advertised as a virtual server” means that clients are given a single IP address or domain name to connect to, which represents the load balancer rather than any specific backend server.

117
Q

What is a legacy system?

A

System that’s no longer supported by its vendor

This could be hardware/software

This coluld be due to the vendor going out of business or formally deprecated use of the product

118
Q

Meaning of EOL?

A

End Of Life

119
Q

What is an EOL?

A

Product that is no longer supported

120
Q

Why are legacy systems often retained in networks?

A

To run complex or expensive-to-migrate services

A service may be too complex or expensive to migrate to a more modern platform

121
Q

Why is using legacy systems a security risk?

A

Due to lack of vendor patches for vulnerabilities

122
Q

What should you do when using legacy systems in a network?

A

Isolated them & protect & monitor their network connections

By “maximise isolation”, i mean to isolate them as far as possible

123
Q

What is an embedded system?

A

Device designed for a specific function

These systems can be as small & simple as a microcontroller in an intravenous drip-rate meter or as large & complex as an industrial control system managing a water treatment plan

124
Q

Where are embedded systems typically designed to operate in?

A

Within a private network

Meaning there is no connectivity to wider computer data networks. Embedded systems interacting with computer networks require specific network design considerations, particularly regarding security.

125
Q

What is an Industrial Control System (ICS)?

A

A computer control system to manage & automate industrial processes

Mechanisms for workflow & process automation

126
Q

What does an Industrial Control System (ICS) control?

A

Infrastructure machinery

i.e. power suppliers, water suppliers, health services, telecommunications, & national security services

127
Q

How do Industrial Control Systems (ICS) manage infrastructure machinery?

A

Via embedded PLCs

(PLC = Programmable Logic Controller) (equipment like plant devices)

A PLC is a specialized computer for industrial automation. It connects to actuators for mechanical control and sensors for local monitoring.

128
Q

What is an embedded system network referred to as?

A

Operational Technology (OT) network

To distinguish it from an IT network

129
Q

What is the output & configuration of a PLC performed by?

(PLC = Programmable Logic Controller)

A PLC is a specialized computer for industrial automation. It connects to actuators for mechanical control and sensors for local monitoring.

A

Human-Machine Interface (HMI)

A HMI may be a local control panel or software on a PC

130
Q

Meaning of SCADA?

A

Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition

131
Q

What does SCADA serve as?

SCADA is a control system architecture used in industrial settings for monitring & controlling processes & equipment

A

Control server for large, multi-site ICSs

ICS = Industrial Constrol System

SCADA typically runs as software on a comptuer

132
Q

Meaning of IoT?

A

Internet of Things

133
Q

What is IoT?

i.e. wearable technology, home appliances, home control systems, vehicles, etc.

A

Global network of sensor-equipped items with network connectivity

IoT devices have sensors, software, & network connectivity to transmit data

134
Q

What are IoT smart devices used for?

A

Home automation systems

135
Q

2 components that IoT smart device networks generally use?

A
  • Hub/control system
  • Smart devices
136
Q

Why do IoT devices usually require a communication hub?

A

To facilitate wireless networking

A hub could be implemented as a smart speaker operated by voice control or use an app for configuration

137
Q

Why may IoT devices need a control system?

A

They may be headless

Meaning they can’t operate directly using I/O devices

138
Q

3 functions IoT smart devices are capable of?

Smart devies like a smart lightbulb, refrigerator, thermostat/heating control, doorbell/video entry phone that you can operate & monitor remotely, etc.

A

Compute, storage, & network functions

These are all potentially vulnerable to malware

139
Q

What kernal do most IoT smart devices use?

A

Linux or Android Kernel

140
Q

What attacks are IoT smart devices vulnerable to?

A

Web app & network attacks

Integrated peripherals like cameras & mics can be compromised

This is becuase they’re effectively running mini-computers

141
Q

2 wireless protocols IoT devices may use?

A

Z-Wave or Zigbee

IoT smart devices may use these protocols even though the hub itself is usually connected to the Wi-Fi network

142
Q

What are protocols like Zigbee & Z-Wave designed for?

A

Operating on low-power devices with minimal CPU & storage

CompTIA A+ 1101 (Core 1)_ (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions