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550 unclass > 22 - IFR: ICAO Doc 8168 (PANSOPS) (2010 5th edition - 13. Nov. 2014 amd.) > Flashcards

22 - IFR: ICAO Doc 8168 (PANSOPS) (2010 5th edition - 13. Nov. 2014 amd.) Flashcards

1
Q

PANSOPS: Which different types of “alternate aerodrome” exist?

A
  • Take-off alternate: To be used shortly after take-off when it is not possible to use the aerodrome of departure.
  • En-route alternate: To be used if a diversion becomes necessary while en-route.
  • Destination alternate: To be used if it is impossible or inadvisable to land at the aerodrome of intended landing.

NOTE: The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a destination alternate aerodrome for that flight

(Part I, Section 1, Chapter 1)

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2
Q

PANSOPS: What does the DME distance indicate?

A

The line of sight distance (slant range)

(Part I - Section 1, Chapter 1)

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3
Q

PANSOPS: What obstacle clearance does Minimum Sector Altitude (MSA) provide?

A

1000´ within 25 NM

(Part I - Section 1, Chapter 1)

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4
Q

PANSOPS: Which methods can be used to reverse your course and establish you on an inbound track?

A
  • Racetrack procedure: Enable the aircraft to reduce altitude and/or establish the aircraft inbound.
  • Reversal procedure: Enable the aircraft to reverse direction during initial approach segment, by using procedure turns or base turns

(Part I - Section 1, Chapter 1)

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5
Q

PANOPS: What is the definition of “Threshold (THR)”?

A

The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.

(Part I, Section 1, Chapter 1)

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6
Q

PANSOPS: “All procedures depict _______. Pilots should attempt to maintain the track by applying ________ to heading for ___________.”

A

“All procedures depict tracks. Pilots should attempt to maintain the track by applying corrections to heading for known wind.”

(Part I - Section 2, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.1.3)

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7
Q

PANSOPS: “… for helicopters, speed should be reduced below ____km/h (___kt) only after the ____________ necessary for landing have been acquired and the decision has been made that an instrument ________________ will not be performed.”

A

“… for helicopters, speed should be reduced below 130 km/h (70 kt) only after the visual references necessary for landing have been acquired and the decision has been made that an instrument missed approach procedure will not be performed.”

(Part I - Section 2, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.1.8)

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8
Q

PANSOPS: What is the fix tolerance of a DME?

A

0,25 NM + 1,25% of distance to the antenna

(Part I, Section 2, Chapter 2, paragraf 2.4.2)

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9
Q

PANSOPS: During contruction of a turn area, which parameters are used for bank establishment time and pilot reaction time?

A

(Part I, Section 2, Chapter 3, Table I-2-3-1)

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10
Q

PANSOPS: The minimum obstacle clearence equals ____ at departure end of the runway (DER). From that point, it increases by ____ of the horizontal distance in the direction of flight assuming a maximum turn of ___.

A

The minimum obstacle clearence equals zero at departure end of the runway (DER). From that point, it increases by 0,8 % of the horizontal distance in the direction of flight assuming a maximum turn of 15°.

(Part I, Section 3, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.4.1)

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11
Q

PANSOPS: What is the minimum obstacle clearence in the turn initiation area and turn area?

A

90 m (295 ft)

(Part I, Section 3, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.4.2)

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12
Q

PANSOPS: “Unless otherwise published, a PDG of ___ per cent is assumed. The PDG is based on:

a) an obstacle identification surface (OIS) having a ___ per cent gradient or a gradient determined by the most critical obstacle penetrating the surface, whichever is the higher (see Figure I-3-1-2); and
b) an additional margin of ___ per cent.”

A

“Unless otherwise published, a PDG of 3.3 per cent is assumed. The PDG is based on:

a) an obstacle identification surface (OIS) having a 2.5 per cent gradient or a gradient determined by the most critical obstacle penetrating the surface, whichever is the higher (see Figure I-3-1-2); and
b) an additional margin of 0.8 per cent.”

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.5)

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13
Q

PANSOPS: Pilots should not accept radar vectors during departure unless?

A

a) They are above the minimum altitude required to maintain obstacle clearence in the event of engine failure.
b) The departure route is non-critical with respect to obstacle clearence

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.7)

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14
Q

PANSOPS: When does a SID terminate?

A

At the first fix/facility/waypoint of the en-route phase following the departure procedure.

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 2, Paragraf 2.1.2)

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15
Q

PANSOPS: Which types of SID exists?

A
  • Straight departure: Departure track is within 15° of allignment of the runway centre line.
  • Turning departure: Departure route requires a turn of more than 15°. Straight flight is assumed until reaching an altitude of at least 394 ft.

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 2, Paragraf 2.1.3)

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16
Q

PANSOPS: On a turning departure: If nothing else is written in the SID, when can you, during a Cat. H procedure, make your turn?

A

In 295 ft AGL (90m) above the elevation if the DER and the earliest initiation point are made at the beginning of the runway/final approach take-off area (FATO)

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 3, Paragraf 2.3.2)

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17
Q

PANSOPS: Where obstacles do not permit development of onmidirectional procedures, it is necessary to?

A
  • fly a standard instrument departure (SID) route

or

  • ensure that ceiling and visibility will permit obstacles to be avoided be visual means

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.1.2)

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18
Q

PANSOPS: When can you initiate a turn during an omnidirectional departure for Cat. A and Cat. H?

A
  • Cat. A: 600 m from the beginning of the runway at a altitude of 394 ft. AGL with a PDG of 3.3%
  • Cat. H: at 295 ft. AGL if the DER and the earliest initiation point are at the beginning of the runway/FATO with a PDG of 5%

(Part 1 - Section 3, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2)

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19
Q

PANSOPS: Which 4 omnidirectional departure procedures can you encounter?

A
  • Standard case: No obstacles penetrate the 2.5% obstacle identification surface (OIS), and 295´ of obstacle clearence prevails, a 3.3% climb to 394´ will satisfy the obstacle clearence requirements
  • Specified turn altitude: Due to obstacles, perform 3.3% climb to a specified altitude where omnidirectional turns can be made
  • Specified PDG: Procedure may define a minimum gradient of more than 3.3% to a specified altitude before turns are permitted.
  • Sector departures: Procedure may define sector(s) for which either a minimum PDG or a minimum turn altitude is specified (e.g. “climb straight ahead to altitude…. before commencing a turn to the east sector 0°-180°)

(Part I, Section 3, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.3)

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20
Q

PANSOPS: Unless stated otherwise, which PDG are you at least required to climb with during an SID?

A

minimum 3.3% PDG

(Part I - Section 3, Chapter 4, Paragraf 4.2.2)

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21
Q

PANSOPS: How many segments may an approach procedure have?

A
  • Arrival (Before IAF)
  • Initial (IAF -> IF)
  • Intermediate (IF -> FAF)
  • Final (FAF -> MAPt)
  • Missed Approach (MAPt -> Missed appraoch)

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.2.2.1)

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22
Q

PANSOPS: Which types of approachs exists?

A
  • Straight-in approach: Approach track is within 30° of runway centre line.
  • Circling approach

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.2.3.1)

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23
Q

PANOPS: What Category are helicopters classified as, when operated as aeroplanes?

A

Category A (less than 91 kt IAS)

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.3.10)

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24
Q

PANSOPS: Does the stall speed method of calculating aircraft category apply to helicopters?

A

No.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.3.10.1)

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25
Q

PANSOPS: Which techniques can be employed for vertical path control on non-precision approached?

A
  • Continuous descent final approach (CDFA): PANSOPS defines CDFA as the preferred technique. CDFA is a continuous descent to a point approx. 50 ft above threshold. When approaching MDA only two options exist: Continue the approach or missed approach. At no time is the aircraft flown i level flight at or near MDA.
  • Constant angle descent: Constant unbroken angle from FAF to a point approx. 50 ft above threshold. At MDA a decision shall be made to either continue or level off.
  • Stepdown descent (dive and drive): Descend immediately to not below the minimum stepdown fix altitude/MDA. Descent gradient must be less than 15%.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.7)

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26
Q

PANSOPS: On a continuous descent final approach (CDFA), are you supposed to go missed approach, if you reach the MAPt before descending near the MDA?

A

Yes.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.7.2)

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27
Q

PANSOPS: May you fly the turning part of the missed approach before reaching the MAPt?

A

No.

“Regardless of the type of vertical path control on a non-precision approach, the lateral “turning” portion of the missed approach shall not be executed prior to the MAPt.”

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.7.2.4)

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28
Q

PANSOPS: What is the maximum descent gradient during a stepdown descent (“dive and drive”)

A

Less than 15%

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.7.4)

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29
Q

PANSOPS: What is the optimum descent gradient for an approach procedure with FAF?

A

Optimum descent gradient: 3.0° (480ft/min with 90 kts GS)

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.9)

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30
Q

PANSOPS: How may you perform a reversal procedure?

A
  • Procedure turn
  • Base turn

These procedures does not permit a racetrack or holding manoeuvre to be conducted unless so specified.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.2)

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31
Q

PANSOPS: What are the two generally recognized manoeuvres to perform a procedure turn?

A
  • 45°/180° Procedure turn
  • 80°/260° Procedure turn

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.2.3)

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32
Q

PANSOPS: For category A, when do you start time for the 45 degrees straight leg on a 45/180 procedure turn?

A

From start of the turn, 1 minute.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.2.3)

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33
Q

PANSOPS: How is the limiting factor for an outbound track of a base turn specified?

A

By timing or DME distance from a facility

(Part 1 - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.2.3)

34
Q

PANSOPS: How may the limiting factor of an outbound track of a racetrack procedure be specified?

A

By timing (1, 2 or 3 minutes) or by DME distance

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.3.1)

35
Q

PANSOPS: How may you enter an racetrack procedure?

A

Aircraft are expected to enter the procedure in manner similar to a holding procedure entry.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.3.2)

36
Q

PANSOPS: What is the limiting time, when flying an off-set (teardrop) entry in a racetrack/holding entry?

A

1 min 30 sec when flying the 30° offset track

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.3.2)

37
Q

PANSOPS: Shall you intercept the inbound track before returning to the facility during a parallel entry in a racetrack/holding?

A

During racetrack: Yes

During holding: No

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.3.2)

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.4.4b)

38
Q

PANSOPS: As far as possible, on which side shall all manoevring, during an entry into a racetrack/holding procedure, be done?

A

On the manoeuvering side of the inbound track

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.2.3.2)

39
Q

PANSOPS: How may you enter an reversal procedure?

A

+/- 30° of the outbound track. If the sector does not include the reciprocal of the inbound track, the entry sector is expanded to include it.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.1.1)

40
Q

PANSOPS: Which bank angle is the approach procedures based on?

A

Average 25° or 3°/second, whichever is less

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.3)

41
Q

PANSOPS: When may you descend on the indbound track?

A

When established

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.4)

42
Q

PANSOPS: When are you considered established on an ILS/VOR approach?

A

Half scale deflection

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.4)

43
Q

PANSOPS: When are you considered established on a NDB approach?

A

+/- 5°

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.4)

44
Q

PANSOPS: When is outbound timing started during a racetrack procedure.

  • Procedure based on a facility?
  • Procedure based on a fix?
A
  • Procedure based on a facility:
    • Abeam the facility or attaining the outbound heading, whichever comes later.
  • _​_Procedure based on a fix:
    • Attaining the outbound heading

(Part I, Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.5)

45
Q

PANSOPS: What are the min/max descent rates to be used when descending on the outbound track of a racetrack or reversal procedure (Cat. A/B)?

A
  • Max: 804 ft/min
  • Min: N/A

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.7)

46
Q

PANSOPS: What are the min/max descent rates to be used when descending on the inbound track of a racetrack or reversal procedure (Cat. A/B)?

A
  • Max: 655 ft/min
  • Min: 394 ft/min

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 3, Paragraf 3.3.7)

47
Q

PANSOPS: When does the intermediate segment begin?

A
  • FAF exists: When aircraft is on the inbound track of the procedure turn, base turn or final indbound leg of racetrack.
  • No FAF: No intermediate segment. Inbound track is final segment.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 4, Paragraf 4.1.3)

48
Q

PANSOPS: Where is FAF on a NPA normally located in relation to the threshold?

A
  • Minimum: 3.0 NM
  • Optimum: 5.0 NM
  • Maximum: 10.0 NM

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.2.1)

49
Q

PANSOPS: What is the optimum final approach descent gradient for a NPA with FAF?

A

5.2%

Equals:

  • 3°
  • 318 ft/NM
  • 477 ft/min (@ 90 KTS GS)

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.2.2.1)

50
Q

PANSOPS: How can you verify the glidepath on a precision approach?

A

By outer marker/DME fix

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.4.3.1)

51
Q

PANSOPS: In reference to the fix, which provides glideslope verification on a precision approach, complete the following sentence:

“Descent below the fix crossing altitude ________ be made prior to crossing the fix”

A

“Descent below the fix crossing altitude should not be made prior to crossing the fix”

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.4.3.2)

52
Q

PANSOPS: In the event of loss of glide path during a precision approach, what does the procedure become?

A

A non-precision approach

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.4.3.4)

53
Q

PANSOPS: What defines a non-standard procedure?

A

Glide paths greater than 3.5°

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.5.4.1)

54
Q

PANSOPS: On an ILS, what is the optimum glide path angle?

A
  • Minimum: 2.5°
  • Optimum: 3.0° (318 ft/NM)
  • Maximum: 3.5°

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.5.2.2)

55
Q

PANSOPS: On a NPA without FAF, when may you descend to MDA?

A

When established inbound on final approach track.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.5.3)

56
Q

PANSOPS: During a precision-approach, how much can you deviate from centre line and glide-path without exceeding the protection area?

A

Centre line: Half-scale defection

Glide-path: Half course fly-up deflection

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 5, Paragraf 5.5.5.2)

57
Q

PANSOPS: When should a missed approach be initiated during a precision approach?

A

It should be initiated not lower than DA

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 6, Paragraf 6.1.3)

58
Q

PANSOPS: When should a missed approach be initiated in a non-precision approach?

A

At a specified point (DME/time) not lower than MDA

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 6, Paragraf 6.1.3)

59
Q

PANSOPS: If a missed approach is initiated before arriving at the missed approach point (MAPt), what shall the pilot normally do?

A

The pilot will normally proceed to the MAPt and then follow the missed approach procedure in order to remain within protected airspace.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 6, Paragraf 6.1.4)

60
Q

PANSOPS: If upon reaching the MAPt the required visual reference is not established, what is the pilot then required to do?

A

Initiate a missed approach at once in order to maintain protection from obstacles.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 6, Paragraf 6.1.6)

61
Q

PANSOPS: What is the missed approach climb gradient normally based on?

A

A climb gradient of 2.5%

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 6, Paragraf 6.1.7.1)

62
Q

PANSOPS: Are circling procedures applicable to helicopter?

A

No.

The helicopter pilot has to conduct a visual manouevre in adequate meteorological conditions.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 7, Paragraf 7.1.2)

63
Q

PANSOPS: During a circling procedure, what visual reference must be kept in contact?

A

The runway enviroment should be kept in sight.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 7, Paragraf 7.2.2)

64
Q

PANSOPS: During visual manoeuvring (circling), descent below MDA/H should not be made until?

A

a) visual reference has been established and can be maintained;
b) the pilot has the landing threshold in sight; and
c) the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and the aircraft is in a position to carry out a landing.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 7, Paragraf 7.3.3)

65
Q

PANSOPS: If visual reference is lost while circling to land, what should the pilot do?

A

Initiate a climbing turn towards the landing runway, immediately followed by interception and execution of the missed approach procedure.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 7, Paragraf 7.4.1)

66
Q

PANSOPS: For procedure identification, how is a helicopter approach identified?

A

By the navigation aid and the final approach track.

For example: “VOR 235”

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 8, Paragraf 8.5.1.2.4)

67
Q

PANSOPS: What does a procedure named VOR-A (or VOR-B, NDB-C ect.) indicate?

A

A circling approach

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 8, Paragraf 8.5.1.2.5)

68
Q

PANSOPS: How is a procedure identified, when two or more procedures to the same runway cannot be distinguished by the navigation aid type only?

A

A single letter suffix, starting with the letter Z.

For example: VOR Z Rwy 20, VOR Y Rwy 20, ect.

(Part I - Section 4, Chapter 8, Paragraf 8.5.1.3.1)

69
Q

PANSOPS: During holding, all turns are to be made with bank angle/rate of turn of?

A

25° or 3°/sec, whichever requires the lesser bank.

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.3.2)

70
Q

PANSOPS: When does outbound timing begins during holding?

A

Over or abeam the fix, whichever occurs later.

If the abeam position cannot be determined, start timing when the turn to outbound is completed.

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.3.4)

71
Q

PANSOPS: Entry to holding patterns is based on?

A

Based on heading.

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.4.1)

72
Q

PANSOPS: When entering holding, which entry sectors exists?

A
  • Sector 1: Parallel entry
  • Sector 2: Offset entry
  • Sector 3: Direct entry

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.4)

73
Q

PANSOPS: When entering holding, what is the entry zone of flexibility?

A

5° on either side of the sector boundaries

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.4.1)

74
Q

PANSOPS: How is holding timed? (Still air condition below 14000 ft)

A

1 minute outbound (or to DME distance when specified)

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.5.1)

75
Q

PANSOPS: What is the maximum holding speed for helicopters?

A
  • Up to 6000 ft: 100 kt
  • Above 6000 ft: 170 kt

(Part I - Section 6, Chapter 1, Table II-6-1-2)

76
Q

PANSOPS: “The procedures described for noise abatement have been designed for application to _____ _______.”

A

“The procedures described for noise abatement have been designed for application to turbojet aeroplanes.”

(Part I - Section 7, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.3)

77
Q

PANSOPS: Noise abatement shall not be a determining factor in runway nomination under what circumstances?

A

a) RWY condition affected (e.g. by snow, slush, ice, water, mud, rubber, oil or other substances);
b) for landing in conditions:

  • 1) ceiling is lower than 150 m (500 ft) and visibility 1 900 m; or,
  • 2) when the approach requires vertical minima greater than 100 m (300 ft) above aerodrome elevation and:
    • i) the ceiling is lower than 240 m (800 ft) above aerodrome elevation; or
    • ii) the visibility is less than 3000m;

c) for take-off when the visibility is less than 1 900 m;
d) when wind shear has been reported or forecast or when thunderstorms are expected to affect the approach or departure;
e) when the crosswind component, including gusts, exceeds 28 km/h (15 kt), or the tailwind component, including gusts, exceeds 9 km/h (5 kt).

(Part I - Section 7, Chapter 2, Paragraf 2.1.4)

78
Q

PANSOPS: “Helicopter pilots using a Category A procedure which authorizes both straight-in and circling minima may manoeuvre at the _______ minimum descent height (MDH) if visibility permits.”

A

“Helicopter pilots using a Category A procedure which authorizes both straight-in and circling minima may manoeuvre at the Straigt-in minimum descent height (MDH) if visibility permits.”

(Part I - Section 8, Chapter 1, Paragraf 1.3)

79
Q

PANSOPS: During straight departures, within which laterally tollerance of the centre line, is it important that helicopters cross the DER when using departure procedures designed for aeroplanes?

A

Cross DER within 150 m laterally.

(Part I - Section 8, Chapter 2, Paragraf 2.2)

80
Q

PANSOPS: When flying the procedure as a Cat. A aeroplane, what is the minimum final approach speed?

A

70 kt.

(Part I - Section 8, Chapter 2, Paragraf 2.3.2)

550 unclass (19 decks)

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