213: Chemical Peels Flashcards

1
Q

What are the Fitzpatrick skin phototypes?

A

I: Always burn, never tan; II: Always burn, sometimes tan; III: Sometimes burn, always tan; IV: Never burn, always tan; V: Moderate pigmented skin; VI: Darkly pigmented skin.

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2
Q

What are the indications for superficial, medium, and deep chemical peels for Fitzpatrick skin phototypes?

A

Superficial Peel: I, II, III (+); Medium Peel: I, II, III (+); Deep Peel: IV, V, VI (±).

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3
Q

What are the relative contraindications for medium and deep chemical peels?

A

Active skin disease; Recent facial surgery; History of facial keloids; History of post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation; Radiation to head and neck; Active skin infection.

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4
Q

What are the absolute contraindications for medium and deep chemical peels?

A

Open wounds, excoriations; Isotretinoin within last 6 months; Pregnancy; Unrealistic expectations; Poor patient-physician relationship; Bacterial and viral infections.

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5
Q

What are the preoperative care steps for chemical peels?

A

Topical pretreatment with retinoid, glycolic or lactic acid; Consider hydroquinone; Sun avoidance; Consider acyclovir or valacyclovir.

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6
Q

What are the postoperative care steps for chemical peels?

A

Cleanse skin up to 4 times/day; Use diluted acetic acid as cleansing agent; Pat dry and apply bland emollient; Daily sunscreen use; Avoid excessive sun exposure.

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7
Q

What are the indications for a Superficial Chemical Peel?

A

Acne (comedonal acne); Enlarged pores; Post-inflammatory hyperpigmentation (PIH); Melasma; Mild photodamage; Fine textural concerns.

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8
Q

What is the recovery time for a Superficial Chemical Peel?

A

Complete recovery typically occurs in 2 to 4 days.

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9
Q

What are the key characteristics of a Medium Depth Chemical Peel?

A

Indications: mild to moderate photoaging, pigmentary disorders, lentigines, epidermal growths, rhytides, and actinic keratoses; Penetrates through the papillary dermis to the upper reticular dermis.

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10
Q

What are the stages of healing for Medium-depth and Deep peels?

A
  1. Inflammation; 2. Coagulation; 3. Reepithelialization; 4. Fibroplasia.
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11
Q

What are the indications for a Deep Chemical Peel?

A

Deep rhytides; Severe photoaging (Glogau categories III, IV); Destruction of the entire epidermis.

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12
Q

What is the significance of TCA in Medium Depth Chemical Peels?

A

TCA (Trichloroacetic Acid) is used in concentrations of 45-60% and can cause white frosting due to keratocoagulation.

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13
Q

What are the potential risks associated with Baker-Gordon phenol in Deep Chemical Peels?

A

Requires monitoring and IV fluid administration due to potential cardiac, renal, and hepatic toxicities.

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14
Q

Which type of chemical peel is recommended for a patient with comedonal acne and mild photodamage?

A

A superficial chemical peel is recommended.

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15
Q

What are the key differences in the healing stages between medium-depth and deep chemical peels?

A

Both heal through inflammation, coagulation, reepithelialization, and fibroplasia, but deep peels involve destruction of the entire epidermis.

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16
Q

Which type of chemical peel is most effective for a patient with severe photoaging (Glogau category IV)?

A

A deep chemical peel, such as the Baker-Gordon phenol peel, is most effective.

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17
Q

Why is salicylic acid considered the preferred agent for dyschromia in superficial chemical peels?

A

It is the least inflammatory of peeling agents.

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18
Q

Describe the histological changes observed after a medium-depth chemical peel.

A

Diminished solar elastosis, fibroblast proliferation, increased collagen formation, and reorganization of elastic fibers.

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19
Q

What is the role of glycolic acid in superficial chemical peels?

A

Promotes fibroblast proliferation, collagen formation, and melanin dispersion; must be neutralized to prevent overexposure.

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20
Q

Which type of chemical peel is appropriate for actinic keratoses?

A

A medium-depth chemical peel is appropriate.

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21
Q

What are the indications for using a Monheit peel?

A

Indicated for mild to moderate photoaging and pigmentary disorders; consists of Jessner solution combined with 35% TCA.

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22
Q

Explain the mechanism of action of alpha-hydroxy acids (AHAs) in chemical peels.

A

AHAs disrupt keratinocyte cohesion, leading to exfoliation and regeneration.

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23
Q

What are the potential complications of using TCA 50% in medium-depth chemical peels?

A

High risk of scarring; no longer used.

24
Q

Why are combination peels preferred over single-agent peels for medium-depth treatments?

A

Lower risk of postprocedural dyschromias and scarring while enhancing efficacy.

25
Q

Describe the four stages of healing after medium-depth and deep chemical peels.

A

1) Inflammation and coagulation; 2) Reepithelialization; 3) Fibroplasia.

26
Q

What is the primary advantage of the Baker-Gordon phenol peel in deep chemical peels?

A

Provides the most permanent skin rejuvenation.

27
Q

What are the risks associated with the Baker-Gordon phenol peel?

A

Cardiac, renal, and hepatic toxicities; managed through monitoring and IV fluid administration.

28
Q

How does the TCA CROSS technique work for treating atrophic scars?

A

Involves applying high-concentration TCA to scars, promoting dermal expansion and collagen proliferation.

29
Q

What are the key differences between Jessner solution and glycolic acid in chemical peels?

A

Jessner solution contains multiple acids; glycolic acid is a single-agent AHA.

30
Q

Which chemical peel is recommended for a patient with melasma?

A

A superficial chemical peel, such as one with salicylic acid.

31
Q

Why is it important to neutralize glycolic acid during a chemical peel?

A

To prevent overexposure.

32
Q

What are the histological changes observed after a deep chemical peel?

A

Dermal expansion, increased collagen proliferation, and elevation of atrophic scars.

33
Q

How does the lipophilic nature of salicylic acid enhance its effectiveness in chemical peels?

A

Allows penetration and dissolution of the stratum corneum.

34
Q

What are the contraindications for using a deep chemical peel?

A

Cardiac, renal, or hepatic conditions.

35
Q

Which type of chemical peel is recommended for lentigines?

A

A medium-depth chemical peel.

36
Q

How does the healing process differ between superficial and medium-depth chemical peels?

A

Superficial peels heal within 2-4 days; medium-depth peels take longer.

37
Q

What are the key features of the Coleman peel?

A

Combines 70% glycolic acid with 35% TCA for medium-depth treatments.

38
Q

Why is the Baker-Gordon phenol peel considered the most aggressive chemical peel?

A

Destroys the entire epidermis.

39
Q

How does the Monheit peel differ from the Brody peel in medium-depth treatments?

A

Monheit uses Jessner solution with 35% TCA; Brody combines solid CO2 with 35% TCA.

40
Q

What are the benefits of using alpha-hydroxy acids (AHAs) in chemical peels?

A

Promote exfoliation, fibroblast proliferation, and collagen formation.

41
Q

Which chemical peel is recommended for a patient with fine textural concerns?

A

A superficial chemical peel.

42
Q

What are the key differences in the indications for superficial and deep chemical peels?

A

Superficial peels target acne and mild photodamage; deep peels target severe photoaging.

43
Q

How does the reepithelialization stage contribute to the healing process after a chemical peel?

A

Involves formation of new epithelial cells.

44
Q

What is microdermabrasion and what are its indications?

A

A closed-system mechanical resurfacing procedure for enlarged pores, fine rhytides, mild photodamage, and acne scarring.

45
Q

What is the purpose of manual dermasanding?

A

Uses sterile sandpaper to ablate the epidermis; rinse thoroughly to prevent complications.

46
Q

What is motorized dermabrasion and what are its indications?

A

A mechanical resurfacing technique for moderate to severe photodamage, textural changes, rhinophyma, and scar revision.

47
Q

What are the surgical landmarks for motorized dermabrasion?

A

Papillary dermis, upper reticular dermis, mid-deep reticular dermis.

48
Q

How do surgical landmarks guide motorized dermabrasion?

A

Help determine the depth of abrasion.

49
Q

Which mechanical resurfacing procedure is most suitable for rhinophyma?

A

Motorized dermabrasion.

50
Q

What precautions should be taken during manual dermasanding?

A

Thoroughly rinse the abraded skin.

51
Q

How does microdermabrasion differ from other mechanical resurfacing techniques?

A

Ablates only the superficial epidermis.

52
Q

Which procedure is recommended for a patient with acne scarring?

A

Microdermabrasion.

53
Q

How does microdermabrasion differ from other mechanical resurfacing techniques?

A

Microdermabrasion is a closed-system procedure that ablates only the superficial epidermis, making it suitable for mild conditions like enlarged pores and fine rhytides, unlike deeper techniques like motorized dermabrasion.

54
Q

What procedure is recommended for a patient with mild acne scarring?

A

Microdermabrasion is recommended for mild acne scarring as it gently ablates the superficial epidermis, improving skin texture.

55
Q

What are the indications for using motorized dermabrasion?

A

Motorized dermabrasion is indicated for moderate to severe photodamage and scar revision. It uses handheld devices with burrs, unlike manual dermasanding, which uses sterile sandpaper.

56
Q

What are the potential complications of silica-carbide crystals in manual dermasanding?

A

Silica-carbide crystals can embed in the skin, causing granulomas or tattoos if not thoroughly rinsed off.

57
Q

What are the indications for microdermabrasion?

A

Microdermabrasion is indicated for enlarged pores, fine rhytides, and mild photodamage. It uses abrasive aluminum oxide crystals to ablate the superficial epidermis.