119: Cutaneous Lymphoma Flashcards

1
Q

What are primary cutaneous lymphomas?

A

Primary cutaneous lymphomas are a heterogeneous group of extranodal non-Hodgkin lymphomas that arise from malignant clonal transformation of skin homing or resident T cells or B lymphocytes.

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2
Q

How do primary cutaneous lymphomas differ from nodal non-Hodgkin lymphomas?

A

They are defined entities with distinct clinical behavior and prognosis, requiring different treatment approaches compared to nodal non-Hodgkin lymphomas.

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3
Q

What is the incidence trend of cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCLs) in the United States?

A

The incidence of CTCLs has increased significantly, with reports of 6.4 cases per million people between 1993 and 2002, and 7.7 cases per million people between 2001 and 2005.

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4
Q

What is the median age at diagnosis for cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCLs)?

A

The median age at diagnosis is in the mid-50s, with a fourfold increase in incidence for individuals over 70 years of age.

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5
Q

What are the two main forms of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL) and their prevalence?

A

The two most common forms of CTCL are Mycosis Fungoides (MF) and Sézary syndrome, which together account for 65% of CTCL cases.

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6
Q

What are the second most common forms of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL)?

A

The second most common forms (27%) include primary cutaneous CD30+ lymphoproliferative disorders such as lymphomatoid papulosis and cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphoma.

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7
Q

What are the distinct populations of T cells involved in primary cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

There are four functionally distinct populations of T cells involved: 1. Central memory T cells (T_CM) 2. Effector memory T cells (T_EM) 3. Tissue-resident memory T cells (T_RM) 4. Migratory memory T cells (T_MM).

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8
Q

What endogenous factors are associated with Mycosis Fungoides (MF) and Sézary syndrome?

A

Distinct HLA class II molecules, specifically HLA-DRB111 and DQB103, are significantly overrepresented in patients with Mycosis Fungoides and Sézary syndrome.

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9
Q

What exogenous factors are implicated in cutaneous lymphomas?

A

Viruses are considered etiologic factors in at least two cutaneous lymphomas, specifically Mycosis Fungoides (MF) and Sézary syndrome.

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10
Q

What does a T-cell clone derived from tissue-resident memory cells (TRM) indicate about Mycosis Fungoides?

A

It indicates a tendency of Mycosis Fungoides to form stable inflammatory skin lesions.

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11
Q

What role does Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) play in cutaneous T-cell lymphomas (CTCLs)?

A

EBV is associated with CD30 lymphoproliferation and immunosuppression, which is related to a poor prognosis.

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12
Q

How do bacterial infections, specifically Staphylococcus aureus, influence cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL)?

A

Staphylococcus aureus can cause chronic antigenic stimulation in CTCL patients, leading to disease exacerbation.

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13
Q

What are the common environmental and occupational risk factors associated with Mycosis Fungoides (MF)?

A

Common risk factors include exposure to carcinogens in the work environment, particularly for glass formers, potters, and paper and wood industry workers.

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14
Q

What are the key components shared by clinical entities encompassed by cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

The key components include: 1. The epidermal and/or dermal microenvironment 2. A clonal T-cell population 3. A modulated antitumor response.

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15
Q

What distinguishes malignant T cells in Mycosis Fungoides (MF) from those in Sézary syndrome?

A

Malignant T cells in MF have the surface phenotype of nonrecirculating T RM, while Sézary syndrome T cells have a surface phenotype of T CM.

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16
Q

What is the significance of high-throughput TCR sequencing in the diagnosis of cutaneous T-cell lymphoma (CTCL)?

A

High-throughput TCR sequencing allows for the discrimination of malignant T-cell clones from benign inflammatory skin diseases.

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17
Q

What is the suspected role of occupational exposure to carcinogens in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Carcinogens in the work environment are suspected to provide long-term antigenic stimulation, initiating clonal expansion of malignant T cells.

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18
Q

What are the molecular pathogenesis factors associated with Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma (CTCL)?

A
  • Recurrent deletions of 10q and 17p
  • Deletions of TP53 and CDKN2a
  • Amplification of 8q and 17q, including MYC
  • Somatic mutations in 17 genes in CTCL
  • Frequent deletion and damaging somatic copy number variants in chromatin-modifying genes
  • Mutations in TCR signaling pathway components.
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19
Q

How do cytokines influence the progression of Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma (CTCL)?

A
  • Cytokines IL-2, IL-7, and IL-15 activate JAK1/JAK3, leading to the activation of STAT5 and STAT3.
  • STAT5 activates IL-4 expression, fostering Th2 phenotype.
  • Th2 responses are mechanisms of tumor-induced immunosuppression.
  • Activation of STAT3 promotes survival of malignant T cells.
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20
Q

What is the significance of miRNA-21 in the context of Cutaneous T-Cell Lymphoma (CTCL)?

A
  • miRNA-21 is involved in the survival of malignant T cells due to its antiapoptotic activities.
  • Its expression is induced by STAT3 transcriptional activity.
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21
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Mycosis Fungoides (MF)?

A
  • MF is categorized as patch, plaque, or tumor stage.
  • Patients may have multiple types of lesions simultaneously.
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22
Q

What is the definition and demographic information regarding Mycosis Fungoides (MF)?

A
  • Mycosis Fungoides is the most common form of primary cutaneous lymphoma, accounting for approximately 40% of all cutaneous lymphomas.
  • It typically arises in mid to late adulthood, with a median age at diagnosis of 55-60 years.
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23
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a 55-year-old patient with erythematous, scaly macules and patches?

A

The most likely diagnosis is Mycosis Fungoides (MF), specifically in the early patch stage.

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24
Q

What are the characteristics of the patch stage in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

The patch stage is characterized by sharply demarcated, scaly, elevated lesions that may regress spontaneously or coalesce.

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25
Q

What are the symptoms associated with erythrodermic Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Symptoms include involvement of 80% of body surface area, bright red appearance, and characteristic islands of uninvolved skin.

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26
Q

What histopathological features are observed in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Histopathological features include band-like infiltrate in the upper dermis and hyperconvoluted cerebriform nuclei.

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27
Q

How does hypopigmented Mycosis Fungoides present in darker-skinned individuals?

A

Hypopigmented Mycosis Fungoides presents as lesions that develop in patients with dark skin and often responds to therapy with repigmentation.

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28
Q

What are the common symptoms experienced by patients with Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Common symptoms include fever, chills, weight loss, malaise, insomnia, and intense pruritus.

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29
Q

What does the reappearance of hypopigmented lesions indicate in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

The reappearance of hypopigmented lesions often indicates a relapse of Mycosis Fungoides.

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30
Q

What stage is characterized by sharply demarcated, scaly, elevated lesions in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

This is the plaque stage of Mycosis Fungoides.

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31
Q

What diagnostic approach should be taken for early-stage Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Multiple biopsy specimens should be taken to pursue a diagnosis.

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32
Q

What stage is indicated by nodules that ulcerate and become secondarily infected in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

This is the tumor stage of Mycosis Fungoides, indicating a more aggressive form of the disease.

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33
Q

What does the ‘deck chair’ sign indicate in erythrodermic Mycosis Fungoides?

A

The ‘deck chair’ sign indicates sparing of folded skin areas.

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34
Q

What histological finding is associated with intraepidermal Pautrier microabscesses in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Intraepidermal Pautrier microabscesses are associated with the patch, plaque, and erythrodermic stages.

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35
Q

What histological feature characterizes neoplastic T cells in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

The neoplastic T cells are characterized by hyperconvoluted cerebriform nuclei.

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36
Q

What does partial loss of pan–T-cell antigens such as CD7 and CD3 indicate in Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Partial loss of pan–T-cell antigens may be a feature of Mycosis Fungoides but is not pathognomonic.

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37
Q

What does a T-cell clone found in only half the biopsies imply about early-stage Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Molecular tests for T-cell clonality are not of significant diagnostic value in early stages.

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38
Q

What is the role of TOX in the diagnosis of Mycosis Fungoides and Sézary syndrome?

A

TOX helps in distinguishing early MF lesions from inflammatory skin disorders and contributes to the diagnosis of CTCL.

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39
Q

What are the key factors influencing the prognosis of Mycosis Fungoides?

A

The prognosis depends on type and extent of skin involvement, presence of lymph node involvement, and visceral disease.

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40
Q

What are the survival rates for patients with different stages of Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Median overall survival was 63 months with 2-year and 5-year survival rates of 77% and 52%, respectively.

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41
Q

What treatment options are available for early-stage Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Treatment may include skin-directed therapies alone or combined with systemic biologic response modifiers.

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42
Q

What is the median overall survival for patients with Stage IIB disease?

A

The median overall survival for patients with Stage IIB disease was 86 months.

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43
Q

How does Stage III disease survival compare to Stage IIB disease?

A

Stage III disease has slightly improved survival compared to Stage IIB disease.

44
Q

What is the survival rate for Stage IV disease?

A

Stage IV disease had significantly worse survival: 48 months for Stage IVA and 33 months for Stage IVB.

45
Q

What treatment options are available for early-stage Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Treatment for early-stage Mycosis Fungoides may include skin-directed therapies alone or combined with systemic biologic response modifiers (e.g., interferon α or γ, retinoids) and targeted therapies.

46
Q

What is the 5-year survival rate for a patient with early-stage Mycosis Fungoides?

A

A patient with Mycosis Fungoides has a 5-year survival rate of 80%-100%.

47
Q

What stage is a patient likely in if they have a 5-year survival rate of 40%?

A

The patient is likely in an advanced stage with lymph node involvement.

48
Q

What is the median overall survival for a patient with Sézary Syndrome?

A

A patient with Sézary Syndrome has a median overall survival of 33 months.

49
Q

What are the characteristics of Folliculotropic MF?

A

Folliculotropic MF is characterized by folliculotropic T-cell infiltrates, predominantly affects adults, and presents with patches, plaques, and unusual hair loss.

50
Q

What is the prognosis for Folliculotropic MF?

A

5-year survival rates are approximately 60% for follicular MF and 41% for folliculotropic MF by 15 years.

51
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Sézary Syndrome?

A

Clinical findings include diffuse erythroderma, generalized lymphadenopathy, and circulating malignant T cells with cerebriform nuclei.

52
Q

What laboratory findings are typical for Sézary Syndrome?

A

Laboratory findings include histologic features similar to Mycosis Fungoides, clonal T cells generally CD3+, CD4+, and CD8−, and loss of CD7 expression in 2/3 of cases.

53
Q

What is Granulomatous Slack Skin?

A

Granulomatous Slack Skin is a rare condition characterized by localized areas of bulky folding of skin, primarily affecting the axillae and groin.

54
Q

What is the prognosis for Granulomatous Slack Skin?

A

The prognosis is generally poor, with neoplastic cells expressing a CD3+CD4+CD8− phenotype.

55
Q

What are the clinical findings of Lymphomatoid Papulosis?

A

Clinical findings include chronic, recurrent, and self-healing papulonecrotic or papulonodular skin eruptions.

56
Q

What histopathological features are seen in Lymphomatoid Papulosis?

A

Atypical cells express one or more T-cell antigens and the lymphoid activation antigen CD30.

57
Q

What does a CD4-to-CD8 ratio of more than 10 indicate in Sézary Syndrome?

A

An expanded CD4+ T-cell population resulting in a CD4-to-CD8 ratio of more than 10 is a diagnostic criterion for Sézary Syndrome.

58
Q

What is the primary cause of mortality in Sézary Syndrome?

A

The primary cause of mortality in Sézary Syndrome is infectious complications due to very little normal immunity left.

59
Q

What is the diagnosis for a patient with diffuse erythroderma and circulating malignant T cells?

A

The diagnosis is Sézary Syndrome, with an unfavorable prognosis and a 5-year overall survival rate of 24% to 43%.

60
Q

What does loss of CD7 and CD26 expression indicate in Sézary Syndrome?

A

Loss of CD7 and CD26 expression is frequently observed in Sézary Syndrome and is useful in identifying Sézary cells.

61
Q

What is the prognosis for Folliculotropic Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Folliculotropic Mycosis Fungoides has a worse prognosis, with 5-year survival rates of approximately 41%.

62
Q

What distinguishes Pagetoid Reticulosis from classic Mycosis Fungoides?

A

Pagetoid Reticulosis is distinguished by its solitary lesion, more prominent epidermotropism, and lack of extracutaneous dissemination.

63
Q

What histological findings support a diagnosis of granulomatous slack skin?

A

Histology shows a dense granulomatous infiltrate in the dermis, macrophages, multinucleated giant cells, and loss of elastic fibers.

64
Q

What is the significance of aberrant expression of CD158k/KIR3DL2 in Sézary Syndrome?

A

Aberrant expression of CD158k/KIR3DL2 is a useful marker for identifying Sézary cells.

65
Q

What is the prognosis for primary cutaneous aggressive epidermotropic CD8+ cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma?

A

The prognosis is generally favorable with a 10-year survival rate of nearly 100%, but monitoring is required.

66
Q

What are the treatment options for solitary or localized skin lesions in Cutaneous Anaplastic Large-Cell Lymphoma?

A

The treatment of choice is excision or radiotherapy, with other options including PUVA in combination with interferon-α.

67
Q

What is the most common phenotype observed in Cutaneous Anaplastic Large-Cell Lymphoma?

A

The most common phenotype observed is CD4+ T-helper phenotype.

68
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Subcutaneous Panniculitis-Like T-Cell Lymphoma?

A

Clinical findings include subcutaneous nodules and plaques, predominantly affecting the legs and trunk.

69
Q

What is the significance of TCR rearrangement in lymphomatoid papulosis?

A

Monoclonal TCR rearrangement may be prognostic for disease more likely to develop lymphomatoid papulosis-associated lymphomas.

70
Q

What is the long-term management strategy for lymphomatoid papulosis?

A

Long-term follow-up without active treatment is recommended for patients with few, nonscarring lesions.

71
Q

What is the treatment of choice for localized lesions in primary cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphoma?

A

Excision or radiotherapy is the treatment of choice for solitary or localized skin lesions.

72
Q

What chromosomal rearrangement is associated with lymphomatoid papulosis?

A

The IRF4/DUSP locus on chromosome 6p25 is associated with this variant of lymphomatoid papulosis.

73
Q

What does a tumor expressing CD30 but lacking ALK indicate?

A

This indicates that primary cutaneous anaplastic large-cell lymphomas are usually negative for ALK.

74
Q

What are the histopathological features of subcutaneous infiltrates in T-cell lymphoma?

A

Features include a mixture of neoplastic pleomorphic cells and rimming of individual fat cells by neoplastic T cells.

75
Q

What is the prognosis for α/β type of subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma?

A

The α/β type responds well to systemic corticosteroids, leading to an excellent prognosis with a 5-year survival rate of 85%.

76
Q

What are the clinical findings associated with Extranodal Natural Killer/T-Cell Lymphoma, Nasal Type?

A

Clinical findings include destruction of the nasal region and skin lesions such as subcutaneous tumors and ulcers.

77
Q

What are the histopathological characteristics of Primary Cutaneous Aggressive Epidermotropic CD8+ Cytotoxic T-Cell Lymphoma?

A

Characteristics include band-like infiltrates and high frequency of Ki67 antigen expression.

78
Q

What is the prognosis for Primary Cutaneous Aggressive Epidermotropic CD8+ Cytotoxic T-Cell Lymphoma?

A

Even with multiagent chemotherapy, the course is aggressive with a median survival of approximately 32 months.

79
Q

What defines Cutaneous γ/δ T-Cell Lymphoma?

A

It comprises peripheral T-cell lymphomas with a clonal proliferation of mature, activated γ/δ T cells.

80
Q

What is the initial treatment approach for subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma?

A

Systemic corticosteroids are the initial treatment approach for the α/β type.

81
Q

What is the typical prognosis for extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type?

A

The prognosis is poor, as this aggressive disease is often lethal within months.

82
Q

What is the median survival for primary cutaneous aggressive epidermotropic CD8+ cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma?

A

The median survival for this aggressive lymphoma is 32 months.

83
Q

What does expression of βF1 indicate in subcutaneous panniculitis-like T-cell lymphoma?

A

Expression of βF1 indicates a TCR α/β phenotype.

84
Q

What does the presence of EBV in tumor cells indicate in extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma?

A

It indicates a viral association characteristic of extranodal NK/T-cell lymphoma, nasal type.

85
Q

What is unusual about the metastasis pattern in primary cutaneous aggressive epidermotropic CD8+ cytotoxic T-cell lymphoma?

A

Metastatic spread to unusual sites like the CNS is common, but lymph node involvement is not typically observed.

86
Q

What are the three major patterns of involvement in histopathology for cutaneous lymphomas?

A

The three major patterns are epidermotropic, dermal, and subcutaneous.

87
Q

What is the prognosis for patients with Primary Cutaneous Acral CD8+ T-Cell Lymphoproliferation?

A

The prognosis is favorable.

88
Q

What are the clinical features of indolent cutaneous, CD8+ lymphoid proliferation?

A

Features include solitary skin lesions on the face or acral sites.

89
Q

What is the median survival for aggressive disease resistant to multiagent chemotherapy?

A

Median survival is 15 months.

90
Q

What is a new discriminative marker for indolent CD8+ lymphoid proliferation?

A

CD68 could be a new discriminative marker.

91
Q

What is the typical prognosis for cutaneous γ/δ T-cell lymphoma?

A

The prognosis is poor, with a median survival of 15 months.

92
Q

What is the prognosis for primary cutaneous acral CD8+ T-cell lymphoproliferation?

A

The prognosis is excellent, with complete remission lasting for years.

93
Q

What does strong positivity for TCR δ indicate in cutaneous γ/δ T-cell lymphoma?

A

It indicates a γ/δ origin of the lymphoma.

94
Q

What marker can help distinguish indolent CD8+ lymphoid proliferation from other CD8+ cutaneous lymphomas?

A

CD68- could be a discriminative marker.

95
Q

What are the key signaling pathways involved in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

Key pathways include JAK-STAT, NF-κB, TCR, Apoptosis, Cell Cycle, Genome Integrity, and Cytoskeletal Dynamics.

96
Q

What is the role of epigenetic regulators in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

Epigenetic regulators influence gene expression without altering the DNA sequence.

97
Q

What are the key regulators involved in apoptosis?

A

FAS and TNFRSF10A pathways trigger apoptotic signals.

These pathways are crucial in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

98
Q

What role do epigenetic regulators play in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma?

A

Epigenetic regulators influence gene expression without altering the DNA sequence.

Key regulators include ARID1A (chromatin remodeling), DNMT3A (DNA methylation), and KMT2C (histone modification).

99
Q

What is the function of ARID1A?

A

Chromatin remodeling.

ARID1A is a key epigenetic regulator in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

100
Q

What is the function of DNMT3A?

A

DNA methylation.

DNMT3A is a key epigenetic regulator in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

101
Q

What is the function of KMT2C?

A

Histone modification.

KMT2C is a key epigenetic regulator in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

102
Q

How does the JAK-STAT pathway affect T-cells?

A

JAK-STAT pathway activation can lead to cell survival or apoptosis depending on the context.

This pathway’s role is crucial in the fate of T-cells in cutaneous T-cell lymphoma.

103
Q

What role does NF-κB signaling play in T-cell survival?

A

NF-κB signaling can promote cell survival, counteracting apoptotic signals.

The balance between NF-κB and apoptotic signals determines T-cell fate in lymphoma.

104
Q

What is the significance of the balance between apoptotic and survival pathways?

A

The balance determines the fate of T-cells in the lymphoma context.

This balance is crucial for understanding cutaneous T-cell lymphoma progression.

105
Q

What are the main components of the cell cycle regulation?

A

Key regulators include Rb, p16, and CDKN2A.

These components are important in cell cycle control.

106
Q

What is the role of TP53 and ATM in genome integrity?

A

TP53 and ATM are critical for maintaining genome integrity.

They help in DNA damage response and repair mechanisms.

107
Q

What are the key players in cytoskeletal dynamics?

A

Key players include RhoA, ERK, and AKT.

These molecules are involved in regulating cytoskeletal structure and function.