2024 Master Question File Even Flashcards
What happens when a pilot pushes the CREW SUPPLY PUSHBUTTON?
Valve opens to supply low-pressure oxygen to the masks
How does the passenger fixed oxygen system work and how long does it last?
Chemical oxygen generators last for approximately 15 minutes
What does the illumination of the SYS ON light mean? Does this mean that all the masks have
deployed?
The signal has been sent to release the oxygen mask doors, but some masks may have to be deployed
manually.
What causes automatic deployment of the masks?
Cabin altitude reaching approximately 14,000 feet
How is the crew oxygen mask microphone deactivated when the mask is stowed?
The RESET control slide will accomplish this – it does not happen automatically.
What indication would a pilot have of a crew oxygen cylinder thermal discharge?
The green disk on the lower left side of the forward fuselage would be missing.
Could the passenger fix oxygen mask provided oxygen for anything other than depressurization?
No, unless there is a written procedure for its use.
On the ground, if there is an amber half frame around the CKPT OXY PSI box, where would you
look to see if you have enough oxygen for the flight?
FCOM – Limitations – Oxygen
(GPWS) What does pressing the SYS pushbutton do?
All basic GPWS alerts (mode 1 to 5) are inhibited.
What does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton indicate on the GPWS panel?
Any failure of GPWS mode 1 through 5
What effect, if any, does an amber FAULT light in the SYS pushbutton have on the TERR mode?
No effect at all
Describe a situation when a pilot might press LDG FLAP 3.
To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing in CONF 3.
• In this case, LDG MEMO displays FLAPS…CONF 3 instead of CONF FULL
Describe a situation when a pilot might press the FLAP MODE pushbutton
• To avoid nuisance warning in case of landing with flaps setting reduced
• FLAP SYS 1 (2) FAULT would require selection of FLAP MODE off
What effect, if any, does the failure of TERR mode have on basic GPWS?
No effect whatsoever
What type of flight control system does the A320 family aircraft utilize?
Fly-By-Wire system
Describe how the flight controls are controlled and activated.
Electrically Controlled and Hydraulically Activated
How is NORMAL LAW indicated on the PFD?
• Green “=” for pitch, bank, and over speed limits
• Amber/black (ALPHA PROT) airspeed tape
How is ALTERNATE LAW indicated on the PFD?
• Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
How is DIRECT LAW indicated on the PFD?
• Amber “USE MANUAL PITCH TRIM”
• Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
How is MECHANICAL BACKUP indicated on the PFD?
• Red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY”
• Amber Xs (indicating lack of NORMAL LAW protections)
When operating in NORMAL LAW in flight mode, what does the sidestick command for pitch and
roll?
• Pitch – G load
• Bank – Roll rate
What is the significance of the Sidestick Priority (Red Arrow) Light?
The other pilot has gained sidestick authority
Name the Flight Control Computers and the number of each.
• ELAC – Elevator Aileron Computer (2)
• SEC – Spoiler Elevator Computer (3)
• FAC – Flight Augmentation Computer (2)
What does SEC 3 control?
• Spoiler Control – one flight spoiler and one ground spoiler on each wing
What should happen to the THS after landing?
• Reset to zero
Describe some of protections a pilot will have in NORMAL LAW?
• High Speed
• High Angle of Attack (AOA) Protection
• Load Factor Limitation +2.5G / -1.0G (+2.0G / 0.0G With Flaps/Slats)
• Pitch Attitude Protections (30° UP / 15° DN)
• Bank Angle Protections (67°)
Describe High Speed Protection.
• If VMO/MMO plus a predetermined factor is exceeded, the system induces a pitch-up input to limitaircraft speed. 3/4 G pitch up
What, if anything, can a pilot do to override high-speed protection pitch up?
It is not possible to override a protection while still in NORMAL LAW. In this case, the aircraft would
need to be forced into ALTERNATE LAW (by turning 2 ADRs off, for example).
What is ALPHA MAX?
The maximum angle of attack allowed in NORMAL LAW, indicated by the top of the red strip on the
airspeed scale.
How does High Angle of Attack Protection operate?
When the angle of attack exceeds ALPHA PROT, AP disconnect, speed brakes retract (if extended), nose up pitch trim ceases and angle of attack is now proportional to sidestick deflection, not to exceed ALPHA MAX even with full aft sidestick deflection.
What protections and stabilities, if any, does a pilot have in ALTERNATE LAW?
Load Factor
• High-speed stability
• Low speed stability
What protections, if any, does a pilot have in DIRECT LAW?
None
When, if at all, does flare mode activate in ALTERNATE LAW? Describe the whole process.
There is no flare mode if operating in ALTERNATE LAW. The aircraft proceeds directly from
ALTERNATE LAW to DIRECT LAW when the gear is selected down, and flare mode will not be
available.
If in ALTERNATE LAW, when will the aircraft revert to DIRECT LAW?
If the controls degrade to ALTERNATE LAW for any reason other than recovery from abnormal attitude, DIRECT LAW automatically becomes active with gear extension and autopilots not engaged. In this case, full use of autopilot is recommended until they must be disconnected.
When is there a direct relationship between sidestick and flight control surface deflection?
When in DIRECT LAW
On the ground (Ground Mode)
It’s common Airbus philosophy that the Airbus cannot stall in NORMAL LAW. However, there are
conditions in which it can. Describe how this can happen.
A good pilot will operate under the philosophy that anything can happen. Preventative systems such as (ALPHA PROT, ALPHA MAX, etc.) could interpret bad data as valid data and subsequently fail to recognize the actual angle of attack or flight path of the airplane. Therefore, it is hard to point to exact scenarios when the Airbus can stall in NORMAL LAW. We need to understand anything is possible and we should recognize stall indications and recover regardless of the active control law.
How would the aircraft enter ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
By exceeding approximately double the NORMAL LAW limits
What is the purpose of ABNORMAL ATTITUDE LAW?
Allows the aircraft to be recovered from an unusual attitude.
If the flight crew is flying at 300 knots and they happen to pull full back on the sidestick, how high
can they pitch up?
30° up
If the pilot selects 100 knots on the speed knob, how slow would the aircraft fly if the autopilot and
auto thrust are engaged?
VLS
Describe, in detail, what would happen if the pilot slowly pulled the thrust levers to idle in Normal
Law.
• As airspeed decays, the THS adjusts the pitch attitude to maintain altitude.
• If the angle of attack increases to a threshold value, known as ALPHA PROT, the pitch function of the sidestick changes. Stick movement commands a specific angle of attack instead of a G load change.
• Since nose up pitch trim ceases, the pilot must hold continuous back pressure in order to fly slower than the speed for ALPHA PROT
Continuing the scenario above, describe what would happen if the flight crew continued to pull
back on the sidestick. How slow would the aircraft go?
The speed corresponding to ALPHA MAX
• With the stick full aft, the elevators will adjust the pitch attitude to maintain a maximum safe angle of attack (ALPHA MAX). This maximum angle of attack, induced by the pilot, is slightly lower than the stall angle of attack; therefore, the aircraft theoretically cannot be stalled in NORMAL LAW
At some point during this demonstration, the AUTOTHRUST automatically applies TOGA power.
What is this protection, and how does it work?
ALPHA FLOOR is a function of AUTOTHRUST. It will activate at any airspeed based on angle of attack and automatically apply TOGA thrust regardless of thrust lever position.
ALPHA FLOOR is available if the AUTOTHRUST is functional (it does not need to be active), an engine is running (not both), and the aircraft is in NORMAL LAW.
• Angle of attack protection does not depend on ALPHA FLOOR to function.
• On NEO aircraft, ALPHA FLOOR is inhibited above M 0.6
Describe what would happen if a flight crew attempted to overstress the aircraft while in NORMAL
LAW
Maneuver protection prevents a pilot from overstressing the aircraft by limiting flight control inputs.
• If G loads become greater than normal, they are displayed in amber on the lower ECAM above the digital clock.
• When the sidestick is pushed forward, less than 1G is commanded. A given pitch input always results in the same pitch response regardless of airspeed.
• When the stick is returned to neutral, the new pitch is held constant regardless of airspeed changes.
What will happen if the pilot over speeds the aircraft? Are there any protections that are available
to the pilots?
An over speed causes the flight control computers to provide a nose up input to reduce aircraft damage due to excess speed. This protection limits the maximum airspeed by increasing the pitch attitude even if full forward stick is held.
• The speed at which this protection activates is shown on the airspeed indicator as a green “=” sign.
• An over speed warning is generated as VMO is exceeded (specifically at VMO+4). This warning can only be silenced by the EMER CANCEL pushbutton.
• If the stick is released, the speed will return to VMO/MMO. The protection will allow a momentary
increase in airspeed up to VMO+16/MMO+0.04 permit any necessary maneuvering but then the speed will again slow to the limit.
• Positive spiral static stability is introduced to 0° bank angle (instead of 33° in normal law) so that with the sidestick released, the aircraft always returns to bank angle of 0°. The bank angle limit is reduced from 67° to 40°.
• If high-speed protection is active, positive spiral stability occurs at all bank angles, and control pressure is required to hold any bank angle greater than zero.
• It is possible to over speed the aircraft. The computers merely limit the maximum attainable speed
When a pilot rolls into a bank, what is provided by the Flight Control Laws?
In “flight” mode of NORMAL LAW, roll control is a roll rate demand. Sidestick inputs commands the
ailerons, spoilers 2-5, and the rudder to achieve the commanded roll rate with bank angle protection, turn coordination, and Dutch roll damping.
• The roll rate demanded by the pilot is proportional to sidestick deflection. When the sidestick is neutral, the ailerons and spoilers are positioned to maintain the roll rate at 0° per second. This results in a constant bank angle.
• When the sidestick is displaced laterally, increasing roll rates are commanded. At full deflection, a roll rate of 15° per second is commanded in NORMAL LAW. The ailerons and spoilers are positioned as
necessary to achieve the commanded roll rate.
• The sidestick position cannot be used as a reference to determine the actual positions of flight control surfaces.
• In normal turns (up to 33°) pitch trim is automatic and assists the pilot in maintaining altitude.
• If the bank is increased beyond 33° and the sidestick is released, the aircraft would return to 33° of bank. This is known as positive spiral stability.
• Positive spiral stability is a characteristic programmed into the flight control computers, which returns the aircraft to a more stable condition (0° if high speed or angle-of-attack protection is active).
• Beyond 33° of bank, positive spiral stability is active and automatic pitch trim is inhibited. To maintain a bank angle greater than 33°, continuous side stick pressure must be used. Also, continuous back pressure will be needed to maintain altitude since automatic pitch trim is inhibited.
The pilots find themselves in ALTERNATE LAW. Describe the indications and available protections,
and flight control logic.
In most cases, a single system component failure will not cause a flight control degradation (jammed stabilizer causes a degradation).
• Indications would be amber Xs and an EW/D message. The ECAM states PROT LOST, but maneuver protection is still available.
• Autopilot availability in ALTERNATE LAW depends on the failures that caused the degradation.
Generally speaking, if the failures DO NOT affect a primary flight control surface, the autopilot should be available.
• Pitch is the same as NORMAL LAW, roll is direct (not roll rate demand), and yaw loses turn
coordination.
• Attitude, high speed, and angle of attack protections are lost. They are replaced by high speed stability and low speed stability, respectively.
• High speed stability activates just prior to the over speed warning. Nose down trim is inhibited.
• Low speed stability activates just prior to the stall warning. Nose up trim is inhibited.
• The pilot can override the stabilities and over speed or stall the aircraft.
• Instead of commanding a specific roll rate, there is a direct relationship between sidestick position and control surface position. As a result, roll sensitivity now changes with aircraft speed and amount of sidestick deflection.
• Bank angle protection is not available in ALTERNATE LAW. Roll commands are carried out directly
without modification.
• Depending on the failure combination, the maximum roll rate may be as much as twice what it was in NORMAL LAW.
• Attitude protection is lost and the green “=” signs on the PFD are replaced with amber Xs. There are now no limits on how far a pilot can pitch or roll the aircraft. The aircraft can roll beyond the amber Xs. Positive spiral stability is also lost.
• In ALTERNATE LAW, turn coordination is always lost regardless of FAC status. Yaw damping, rudder trim and rudder limiting is available if a FAC is operational.
The pilots find themselves in DIRECT LAW. Describe the indications, protections, and flight control
logic.
When in ALTERNATE LAW, there is no landing mode that would provide consistent control during
landing for all possible failure combinations. Consequently, the flight controls transition to DIRECT LAW when the landing gear is extended and autopilot is off.
• DIRECT LAW is very unlikely in flight. It usually results from lowering the gear while in ALTERNATE
LAW.
An ECAM message is generated and says “PROT LOST”. Unlike in ALTERNATE LAW, this is now true.
There are no protections or stabilities available in DIRECT LAW.
• The message “USE MAN PITCH TRIM” in amber is displayed on the FMA because automatic pitch trim is lost.
• Pitch control is direct. Load factor demand is lost. Pitch sensitivity or control is a factor of airspeed and the amount flight control deflection. Roll control is the same as ALTERNATE LAW (direct relationship with no protections).
The pilots find themselves in MECHANICAL BACKUP. What functions are available?
MECHANICAL BACKUP control is provided for the rudder and THS in the event of a complete loss of
flight control computers or electrical power, provided that there is hydraulic pressure.
• Although the aircraft can be flown indefinitely in this condition, it is intended to be used only as long as it takes to restore the computers.
• Note the EW/D warning message and red “MAN PITCH TRIM ONLY” indication on the FMA. There isn’t a specific mechanical backup ECAM message.
• The side sticks are inoperative. Pitch is controlled with the trim wheel via the mechanical connection to the pitch system.
• Roll and yaw are controlled through the rudder pedals and the mechanical connection to the rudder.
• In reality, the failure of only four (4) flight control computers may result in mechanical backup: Both ELACs and SEC 1 and 2 fail, and all computerized pitch control is lost. In this case, because SEC 3 is still available, the side sticks can control roll using one spoiler on each wing, but pitch control is mechanical.
What is the ADIRS?
Air Data and Inertial Reference System
What type of information does the Air Data Reference System provide?
Barometric altitude, airspeed, over speed warnings, temperature, angle of attack, mach.
What type of information does the IR provide?
Attitude, Flight Path Vector (FPV), track, heading, acceleration, angular rates, groundspeed and aircraft position.
If there was an IR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data
appropriately?
ATT/HDG to Capt 3
If there was an ADR1 FAULT, what should be done with the switching panel to display backup data
appropriately?
AIR DATA to Capt 3
Explain the ADIRS Power-up and Initialization.
Switch from OFF to NAV
• ON BAT light illuminates and then extinguishes
• White ALIGN light illuminates for the duration of alignment (only on A319; 502-534)
• In A319; 535,536, A320s, and A321s, the E/WD memo section displays “IRS IN ALIGN” during
alignment and replaces the ALIGN lights on the overhead panel.
What are some indications of an ADIR having reverted to battery power on the ground?
An external horn sounds
• The ON BAT light comes on
• An ADIRU & AVNCS light illuminates in amber on the external power panel.
What is the significance of a steady FAULT light on the IR?
IR has failed and cannot be recovered
What is the significance of a flashing FAULT light on the IR?
Navigation function is lost. Attitude and Heading may be recovered in ATT mode.
Describe what would happen if an ADR was selected OFF?
The pilot would lose barometric altitude, airspeed, Mach, angle of attack, temperature and over speed warnings from that one ADR.
• The ECAM would instruct the pilot to select the AIR DATA SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate.
• At that point the affected pilot’s side would return to normal.
What functions are lost when an IR is turned OFF?
There are two ADIRS control panels installed on the fleet. On the older panel with a keypad and digital display, the pilot would lose the IR part (Inertial Reference) which supplies attitude, flight path vector, track, heading, accelerations, angular rates, ground speed, and aircraft position, along with all the ADR information. The ECAM instructs the pilot to select the ATT HDG SWTG to CAPT 3 or F/O 3 as appropriate. At that point the affected pilot’s side returns to normal.
• The newer panel with no keypad and digital display allows the pilot to turn off only the IR, and in this case, only the IR information would be lost, and the ADR information would still be available.
When would a pilot perform a complete alignment versus a fast alignment?
Complete Alignment:
• Before the first flight of the day.
• When there is a crew change.
• When the departure airport is located between latitudes 2o north and 2o south.
• If GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route
If GPS is not available and the expected flight time is more than 3 hours.
Fast Alignment:
• If a complete alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the FMGC position is greater than 5nm.
What could cause the flashing white ALIGN light to illuminate on the ground?
No
Bad
Move
PPOS not entered within 10 minutes of alignment or within 3 minutes of fast-alignment.
• Large difference in LAT/LONG between shutdown position and entered position.
• Aircraft movement during alignment.
What does the illumination APU MASTER SW FAULT indicate?
Automatic APU shutdown has occurred.
What is the significance of the APU AVAIL light illuminating?
APU is running above 99.5 percent or 2 seconds after N speed reaching 95 percent. In practical terms it is ready to accept and support ELEC and/or AIR load.
What condition in the APU system would cause an external horn to sound on the ground?
APU fire
With the APU green AVAIL light ON and the EXT PWR green AVAIL light on, which system is
powering the aircraft?
2 Avails = APU powering the aircraft.
If possible, how would the APU be used if it has already started the cool-down cycle?
Pressing the APU MASTER SW pushbutton.
When running the securing checklist why is it important to wait 2 minutes after the APU avail light
goes out before switching off the batteries?
Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.
If one generator fails, what is the maximum altitude that you can start the APU?
FL 410
If your aircraft is in an emergency electrical configuration, what is the maximum altitude to start the APU?
FL 250
How is the landing field elevation entered into the pressurization system in automatic, semi-
automatic and manual modes?
Automatic = FMGC (LDG ELEV must be in AUTO)
• Semi-automatic = by LDG ELEV selector button
• Manual = By selecting the MODE SEL to MAN and then using the MAN V/S CTL toggle switch
What does selecting the DITCHING pushbutton ON accomplish?
Closes all openings below the waterline
When would a pilot push the ditching pushbutton?
When ditching
• When directed by the deicing checklist
How many controllers are in the pressurization system?
Two, only one is used at a time and they swap roles after each landing.
How can a pilot manually switch controllers?
Switch MODE SEL to MAN for 10 seconds, then back to AUTO
What does an amber FAULT light in the MODE SEL pushbutton indicate?
Both automatic pressure controllers are faulty.
What protects the airframe from excessive cabin differential pressure?
Two pressure relief valves
If PACK FLOW is selected to LO, NORM or HIGH and only the APU is providing BLEED AIR or one
pack is selected OFF, what will the packs provide?
HIGH flow rate, since the flow rate function is automatic.
If the HOT AIR valve faults, what will happen to the temperature control system?
All trim air valves close and PACK 1 controls the cockpit temperature to the last selected value. PACK 2 controls the cabin to the averages selected by the FWD and AFT CABIN temperature selector knobs.
How are the PACKS controlled and operated?
Electrically controlled and pneumatically operated.
What are some potential causes for a PACK FAULT light?
PCS
Pack outlet overheat
Compressor outlet overheat
Switch disagreement with PACK flow control valve
What are some potential causes for ENG BLEED FAULT light?
ASOLO
APU bleed on and Bleed valve not closed
Start valve open and bleed valve open
Overpressure
Low pressure/Leak in wing or engine
Over temperature
What is the logic for the X-BLEED rotary selector?
SHUT = the valve is closed.
• AUTO = open if the APU bleed valve is open; closed if APU bleed valve is closed or there is a wing,
pylon or APU leak (except during an engine start).
• OPEN = the valve is open.
What does APU BLEED FAULT illumination indicate?
APU bleed leak.
What does selecting the RAM AIR pushbutton accomplish?
What is the RAM AIR pushbutton used for?
Ram air inlet opens if the differential pressure is less than 1 PSI.
Smoke/fumes removal in cabin
Ventilation of cabin with a dual pack failure
How is the Bleed leak detection different on CEO and NEO aircraft?
If a Bleed Air Monitoring Computer (BMC) fails on NEO airplane, over temperature protection is lost on the affected side. Has no effect on CEO.
When should you select LO pack flow?
On the 319, when the number of passengers is below 138.
• On the 320, when the number of passengers is below 141.
• On the 321, select ON ECON FLOW when the number of passengers is below 168.
Generally, what is the total fuel capacity?
42,000 lbs (41,285)
Why is it possible for there to be a value higher than 42,000 lbs indicated on the ECAM FOB?
The fuel can expand by 2% without venting overboard
How many fuel pumps are on the aircraft and where are they located?
There are seven total fuel pumps: two center tank pumps, four wing tank pumps, (two in each wing) and one APU fuel pump. On some aircraft, the center tank pumps are jet pumps, which transfer fuel from the center tank into the wing tanks.
• The APU pump is used when fuel feed pressure is low (due to loss of tank pumps or loss of normal AC electrical supply)
Explain the flow of fuel from before engine start to climb (assume full tanks).
At engine start the fuel is fed from the wing tanks
• After an engine is started, the center tank pumps turn on and continue to run for 2 minutes.
• If slats are selected within those 2 minutes, the center tank pumps will continue to run until the time has elapsed, then they will stop.
• If the slats are extended at any other time, the center pumps will shut off.
• At takeoff, the engines feed fuel from their respective wing tanks.
• When slats are retracted to zero, the fuel is fed from the center tank.
• When the center tank runs low, the pumps continue to run for 5 min
What is the difference between CTR TK Pump on a A319 and some older A320’s (601 - 628) versus
CTR TK XFR (transfer) on the A321 and newer A320’s (629 – 656, 690 - 696, 901 - 915)?
CTR TK Pumps are identical to the main tank fuel pumps. The CTR TK XFR are jet pumps that transfer center tank fuel to the main L (R) pumps.
What does a fault light in one of the L(R) TK PUMPS pushbuttons indicate?
Low delivery pressure
(Fuel) What does a fault light in the MODE selector indicate?
Failure of the AUTO mode
• Center tank has more than 550 lbs and either wing tank has less than 11,000 lbs
How would a pilot know that fueling is in progress?
REFUELG message appears on the ECAM. This does not mean the fuel is entering the tanks, merely
that the refueling door is open.
Describe IDG cooling and how it relates to the FADEC.
Some of the fuel supplied to each engine goes from the high-pressure fuel line in that engine, through the integrated drive generator (IDG) heat exchanger (where it absorbs heat), to the fuel return valve, and back to either the wing tank or outer tank, depending on the aircraft.
• This operation ensures IDG cooling when the oil temperature is high or when at low engine power.
• The FADEC controls the fuel return depending on the temperature of the IDG – the higher the
temperature, the higher the flow
What happens if returned IDG cooling fuel fills the wing tanks while the center tanks are feeding?
The center tank pumps will cut off until the wing tank quantity is reduced by 1,100 lbs.
What is the approximate fuel capacity of each outer fuel tank, when installed?
When the inner tank quantity reaches approximately 1,650 lbs.
If only one inner tank reaches 1,650 lbs, what happens to the other transfer valve?
All four transfer valves open.
Once opened to transfer fuel, how are the fuel transfer valves closed?
Automatically at the next refueling operation as long as there is AC power on the aircraft.
Describe the layout of the fuel tanks.
The fuel tank layout depends on the specific aircraft.
• Fuel is stored in a center tank and wing tanks:
◦ On 319s and 320s, the wing tanks are divided into inner tanks, outer tanks, and vent tanks.
Differences:
◦ On 321s, the wing tanks are not divided into inner and outer tanks, but still have vent tanks.
What are the three HYD systems called?
GREEN – engine driven
• BLUE – electrically driven
• YELLOW – engine or electrically driven
When does the BLUE pump normally operate?
After the first engine is started
If the BLUE system lost pressure, how would pressure be restored?
The RAT must be deployed. It does not deploy automatically upon BLUE system loss of pressure, so if needed, it must be manually deployed with the RAT MAN ON pushbutton.
What can be done to correct low ACUM PRESS indication?
On the ground, coordinate with ground personnel and turn on the YELLOW ELEC pump
With no HYD system power, how can the FWD CARGO door be opened?
By using a hand pump
What causes the PTU to operate in if in AUTO?
Differential pressure of 500 psi between GREEN and YELLOW systems
When is the PTU inhibited?
On the ground with ENG MASTER levers split and either the nose wheel steering disconnected or the parking brake ON
• For 40 seconds after cargo door is operated
What are some users of the GREEN system?
Landing gear
• Normal brakes
• Slats and flaps
• ENG 1 thrust reverser
What are some users of the BLUE system?
Emergency generator
• Slats
What are some users of the YELLOW system?
Flaps
• Nose wheel steering
• Alternate brakes
What do the priority valves do in the HYD systems?
Removes hydraulic power from the heavy users and protects the flight controls.
What would cause a FAULT light in the ENG 1 pump?
Pump low pressure
• Over temp in reservoir
• Low air pressure in reservoir
• Low quantity
If the FAULT light illuminates in the ENG 1 pump, what would identify the specific reason for the
FAULT?
ECAM will display the reason
What must the flight crew be aware of when doing a Manual Start on the ground or an Auto Start in the Air?
The crew must abort the start if something goes wrong
What are the primary differences between a manual and a normal automatic start?
The FADEC provides full monitoring during a manual start and will provide appropriate ECAM cautions and procedures to follow in the event of a start fault
• Automatic start interruption and auto-crank are not available
With the ENG MODE selector in IGN/START what occurs when the ENG MAN START pushbutton is
pressed?
The start valve opens
• Both pack flow control valves close
What is the primary difference between the IAE V2500 and PW1100G engine?
The NEO PW1100G engine includes a Fan Drive Gear System (FDGS) which allows the low pressure
turbine to operate at higher rotational speeds for peak efficiency while the engine’s fan can operate at lower speeds for optimum propulsion efficiency and lower noise levels.
When would a First Officer manually abort an AUTOMATIC start on the ground, and what FCOM
procedure would you apply when after selecting the master switch to off?
The ground crew reports a tailpipe fire, Accomplish the FCOM Abnormal/Emergency Procedures
“Engine Tailpipe Fire” procedure.
• In the case of electrical power supply interrupted during the start sequence (indicated by loss of the ECAM DUs), FCOM supplemental procedure Engine Ventilation (Dry Cranking).
What is the approximate time the engine will dry crank during an Automatic engine start?
IAE V2500 = Approximately 30 Seconds
• PW1100G = Approximately 2 Minutes
When would a pilot select the EXTRACT to OVRD?
Heavy Rain on the ground
• When directed to by the ECAM
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the BLOWER FAULT pb light?
Low blower pressure
• Duct overheat
• Computer power supply failure
• Smoke warning activated
What are some potential causes for the illumination of the EXTRACT FAULT light?
Low extract pressure
• Computer power supply failure
• Smoke warning activated
What condition in the avionics ventilation system would cause an external horn to sound?
BLOWER FAULT or EXTRACT FAULT on the ground with both engines stopped.
Describe the avionics ventilation system.
It is a fully automated system that considers the skin temperature and adjusts inlet and outlet flaps to optimize cooling and airflow.
During normal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE remains closed
OPEN CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION – Both the inlet and the outlet flaps are fully open (aircraft is on ground and the skin temperature is above a set threshold)
CLOSED CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION – Both the inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed. The SKIN
EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE and SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE is open, allowing air to
the cargo under floor, eventually exiting via the outflow valve (aircraft is on the ground or in-flight and the skin temperature below a set threshold).
INTERMEDIATE CIRCUIT CONFIGURATION – The inlet flap is fully closed, the outlet small flap is open (aircraft is in-flight and the skin temperature is above a set threshold).
During abnormal operations, the AIR COND INLET VALVE always opens providing fresh ventilation air.
BLOWER or EXTRACT FAULT – Both inlet and outlet flaps are fully closed, SKIN EXCHANGE INLET
BYPASS VALVE closed.
SMOKE CONFIGURATION – Once the BLOWER and EXTRACT pushbuttons have been selected to
OVRD, the blower fan will stop, the extract fan will continue to run. The inlet flap closes, the small outlet flap opens, the SKIN EXCHANGE ISOLATION VALVE closes and the SKIN EXCHANGE INLET BYPASS VALVE closes.
When would the pilots use the maintenance panel?
If a MEL requires its use.
• If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON
Do the pilots use the maintenance panel?
Only if an MEL required pressurization of the BLUE system on the ground with the engines OFF.
• If the engine oil quantity indication does not appear on the ENG SD page. Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR pbs on the overhead maintenance panel to ON.
Which pushbutton on the maintenance panel would be used to pressurize the BLUE system on the
ground?
The BLUE PUMP OVRD pushbutton
If a mechanic pressed the APU AUTO EXTING TEST pushbutton what would occur?
The APU would shut down.
What are the two modes of flight guidance?
Managed guidance
• Selected guidance
What is the managed mode of flight guidance used for?
Long-term lateral, vertical, and speed profiles as determined by the FMGS.
What is the selected mode of flight guidance used for?
Temporary lateral, vertical, and speed commands as selected with the FCU.
Does selected or managed guidance have priority?
Selected guidance
What does ACTIVATE/CONFIRM APPR phase do for the pilot if in managed speed?
Allows autothrust and speed target to follow a predetermined schedule, based on flap selection:
◦ F0 = green dot
◦ F1 = S speed
◦ F2 = F speed
◦ F3 = F speed or VAPP (depending on landing flap selection)
◦ Full = VAPP
• If using managed speed, GSMINI is available. If using selected speed, GSMINI is not available.
What happens if the pilots forget to ACTIVATE/ CONFIRM the APPR phase while in the descent
phase?
Once you manage speed, the autothrust system will target 250 kts below 10,000 ft.
What time of day would a pilot have to switch to a new Navigation Database?
0901z
Can the crew modify data in the navigation database?
The crew has limited ability to create pilot stored navigational data
How would a flight crew determine the validity of the navigation database?
On the A/C STATUS page.
What input does each FMGC normally use for position determination?
A hybrid IRS/GPS position.
What is the normal operational mode of the FMGS?
Dual mode, with one FMGS as master and the other FMGS as slave
How does autopilot selection influence master FMGS logic?
If one autopilot is engaged, the respective FMGS is master
• If both autopilots are engaged, FMGS 1 will be the master
If no autopilot is engaged FMGS 1 is the master
If an amber OFF SIDE FM CONTROL message is displayed on the ND what action should the crew
take?
An FMGS has failed and both NDs must be set to the same mode and range. The full procedure can be found in the FCOM.
In cruise flight with AP1 engaged, what would happen if AP2 was selected?
The AP2 would takeover, and AP1 would disengage. It is only possible to engage both autopilots in the approach phase after selection of the APPR pushbutton while conducting a ILS approach.
What is the difference between the large and small fonts utilized in the MCDU?
Large – Pilot entries and modifiable data
• Small – Default or computed, non-modifiable data
If the FLEX TEMP is not entered on the TAKEOFF page of the MCDU, and the thrust levers are
positioned in the FLEX detent, what will occur and what should be done?
A ECAM CAUTION will be generated
• Thrust levers should be moved into the TOGA detent and continue the takeoff
What are some causes for an AUTOLAND light?
Excessive LOC or GS deviation or signal failure
• Radio altimeter difference of greater than 15 feet
• Both autopilots fail
Explain the sidestick operation and the associated glare shield SIDESTICK PRIORITY light.
Normally only one sidestick should be operated at any given time.
• Should there be dual inputs, an aural “DUAL INPUT” will be annunciated over the speaker and the
SIDESTICK PRIORITY green CAPT and F/O lights will flash. Side stick inputs are algebraically
summed.
• Any time a pilot monitoring has to assume control, it MUST be verbally annunciated (“I HAVE
CONTROL”). An aural alert “PRIORITY LEFT (RIGHT)” will be annunciated over the speaker and the
SIDESTICK PRIORITY red arrow light will illuminate in front of the pilot losing authority
• If the pilot previously flying does not relinquish control (or if there is a malfunction present) the light in front of the pilot with priority lights up it will go out when the other pilot returns the stick to the neutral position, the sidestick can be rendered inoperative by holding the takeover push button for 40 seconds.
• The pilot having lost sidestick authority can regain it by momentarily pressing the takeover pushbutton
• Red Arrow light is illuminated on the pilot losing authority
The Green CAPT / FO lights flash when both pilots move the sidestick simultaneously.
If no hydraulic power is available, what is the impact on the THS?
The THS is jammed.
What happens to the THS after landing?
The trim automatically resets to zero.
What controls the engines in all operating regimes?
FADECs (Full Authority Digital Engine Controls)
What is the power source for the FADEC?
The system has its own alternator making it independent of the aircraft electrical system when N2 is above10%
• If this alternator fails, the FADEC automatically switches to aircraft electrical power
The FADEC detects a fault during automatic start. What crew intervention is required?
There is no crew intervention necessary. The FADEC will discontinue the start, dry crank to clear the fuel from the engine, and attempt a restart (if warranted) automatically
How many igniters fire during a normal automatic ground start sequence?
One igniter with the other serving as a backup
• The FADEC automatically alternates the igniters (A or B) at each start
How many igniters fire on manual or in-flight starts?
Two, both A and B
On the ground, how can the A/THR be armed?
By setting the thrust levers in the TOGA or FLEX gate (with a FLEX temperature inserted in the MCDU)
• At least one FD must be ON for A/THR to arm during takeoff
What is the active range of the A/THR?
Just above IDLE to the CL detent (2 engines)
• Just above IDLE to the MCT detent (1 engine)
What determines the maximum thrust the A/THR system will be able to command?
The thrust lever angle
What is the proper method of disconnecting A/THR?
A/THR pushbutton
• Instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
• Thrust levers to IDLE
What is the proper method of disconnecting A/THR?
Set the thrust lever angle to the existing EPR and push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons
How would the A/THR be disconnected for the remainder of the flight?
Press and hold the instinctive disconnect pushbutton for 15 seconds. The A/THR cannot be re-engaged once this is done. ALPHA FLOOR is also lost if this is done
What happens to thrust and what annunciates on the FMA during ALPHA FLOOR?
Thrust – TOGA
FMA – “A.FLOOR”
When does the aircraft leave ALPHA FLOOR and what does the FMA change to?
Upon reaching a lower angle of attack. The FMA changes to “TOGA LK”
What should the pilot do to get out of TOGA LOCK?
Push the instinctive disconnect pushbuttons and move the THRUST LEVERS to the CL detent, if not
already in the climb detent
• Afterwards re-engage the autothrust
When will ALPHA FLOOR activate?
When the aircraft reaches a high AOA
When would Thrust Lock occur?
Thrust levers in CL detent and A/THR pushbutton on the FCU is pushed, or
• A/THR disconnects due to a failure
How is A/THR normally armed?
By advancing the thrust levers to TOGA or FLX
What would be the normal FMA indications during a takeoff roll using FLEX thrust on a RWY with a
localizer?
What would the FMA indications be during a takeoff roll using TOGA thrust on a runway without a
localizer?
MAN FLX, SRS, RWY, A/THR (blue)
MAN TOGA, SRS, A/THR (blue)
What would the FMA indications be during takeoff roll if the A/THR didn’t arm on a runway with a
localizer? Should the takeoff be aborted?
SRS, RWY
• Continuing the takeoff is a safe option, but the thrust levers must be moved to the climb detent at thrust reduction altitude and the crew must manually engage A/THR.
How should A/THR be turned off?
Match the blue thrust lever angle indicators to the present thrust setting on the EWD and push the
instinctive disconnect pushbuttons or move THRUST LEVERS to IDLE
What should the pilot do to get out of THRUST LOCK?
Move it out of the climb detent
What controls the engine LP fuel valves?
Engine MASTER switch
• ENGINE FIRE pushbutton
What does a FAULT light on the ENG panel indicate?
The position of the HP fuel shut off valve is abnormal, or
• Automatic start sequence of the associated engine aborts, or
• There is a malfunction of the thrust control.
When does continuous ignition automatically operate?
CEO and NEO
PW1100G
◦ Engine flame-out detected.
◦ Surge detected.
◦ Thrust control malfunction detected.
◦ Ignition delay during start.
• IAE V2500
◦ Engine anti-ice PB switch at ON.
◦ Max TO thrust selected (EPR or Rated N1 mode).
◦ Flex to thrust selected (EPR mode).
◦ EIU data failed (ignition and/or bleed config data).
◦ Approach idle selected.
◦ Inflight unscheduled sub idle or surge.
◦ Master lever cycled from ON to OFF then back to ON position
What is the required engine warm up time?
IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown < 2hrs = 3 Mins.
• IAE V2500/PW1100G Shutdown ≥ 2hrs = 5 Mins
What is the required engine cooldown time after landing?
3 min
What does the green cooling indication mean on the E/WD for NEO Aircraft?
It’s displayed when an auto dry crank is required to cool the engines before engine start.
If icing conditions exist on the ground, how is the Engine Run-up procedure different for NEO and
non-NEO aircraft?
IAE V2500 = Accelerate to Minimum of 50% N1 at intervals not more than 15 minutes apart
• PW1100G = Accelerate to Minimum of 60% N1 at intervals not more than 30 minutes apart
If during start, the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine, what should be done by the
flight crew?
PW1100G = Abort the engine start sequence, Maintenance action is Required
How is Approach Idle different on NEO vs non-Neo aircraft?
Non-NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
◦ Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are extended (flap lever not at 0 position)
• NEO Minimum Approach Idle Speed occurs when:
◦ Aircraft is in flight and the flaps are at CONF 3 or FULL or when the landing gear is down.
How are the flaps and slats affected if only GREEN hydraulic system pressure available?
The flaps and slats will still operate, but at half speed
What system prevents flap or slat asymmetry?
Wing Tip Brakes (WTB)
If the WTBs activate due to a flap asymmetry, how are the slats affected?
The slats can still operate normally - only flap operation is inhibited.
What flap/slat configurations correspond to position 1 on the FLAPS lever and how do they differ?
CONF 1+F is used for takeoff and provides both slats (position 1) + flaps
• CONF 1 is used in-flight and is slats only
When will the Automatic Retraction System (ARS) operate?
During acceleration in CONF 1+F, the flaps (not slats) will automatically retract to 0 at 210 knots.
What is ALPHA LOCK?
This function inhibits retracting slats from 1 to 0 at a high angle of attack and low airspeed.
What happens to the ailerons when the flaps are extended?
The ailerons droop
Discuss the ground spoiler logic on a rejected takeoff
If the ground spoilers are armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will automatically extend as soon as both thrust levers are set to idle.
• If the ground spoilers are not armed and the speed exceeds 72 knots, the ground spoilers will
automatically extend as soon as reverse is selected on one engine (the other thrust lever remains at idle).
• Therefore, selecting at least idle reverse will always provide ground spoiler deployment.
Discuss the ground spoiler logic on landing.
Full extension:
The ground spoilers will automatically extend when the following conditions are met:
◦ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
▪ Both main landing gears on ground,
▪ Both thrust levers at or below idle position, or Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the
other thrust lever below MCT position).
◦ Speed brake lever in the retracted position but ground spoilers not armed and:
▪ Both main landing gears on ground,
▪ Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
The ailerons are fully-extended, provided one aileron servocontrol is available on each side, when:
◦ The ground spoilers are fully extended
◦ Flaps are not in clean CONF
◦ Pitch attitude is lower than 2.5 °
◦ Flying manually
◦ In normal law only.
• Partial extension:
In order to accelerate the full spoiler extension, the Phased Lift Dumping (PLD) function allows the
ground spoilers to deploy with a reduced deflection when the following conditions are met:
◦ Speed brake lever not in the retracted position or ground spoilers armed and:
▪ One main landing gear on ground,
▪ Both thrust levers at or below idle position.
◦ Speed brake lever in the retracted position, but ground spoilers not armed and:
▪ One main landing gear on ground,
▪ Reverse selected on at least one engine (and the other thrust lever below MCT position).
In order to reduce the bounce severity at landing in the case of an inappropriate thrust lever handling
during flare, ground spoilers are also partially deployed when the following conditions are met:
◦ Ground spoilers armed,
◦ Both main landing gears on ground,
◦ Both thrust levers at or below the Climb position.
• Retraction:
The ground spoilers retract:
◦ After landing,
◦ After a rejected takeoff, when the ground spoilers are disarmed.
◦ During a touch and go, when at least one thrust lever is advanced above 20°.
When will the ground spoilers automatically retract?
During a touch and go/balk landing and at least one thrust lever is advance above 20%
What are some conditions that inhibit speed brake extension?
Angle of Attack protection is active
• Thrust levers above the MCT position
• ALPHA FLOOR is active
In flight, what happens if a spoiler fault is detected or electrical power is lost?
The spoilers automatically retract.
Is there any landing configuration when speed brake extension is inhibited?
A319/A320 – Flaps FULL
• A321 – Flaps 3 and FULL
How would a flight crew analyze windshear with the RADAR system off?
If the PWS switch is in AUTO, reactive windshear detection is still available, even though the RADAR
system is off
When are predictive windshear (WINDSHEAR AHEAD) alerts inhibited?
On takeoff above 100 knots and up to 50 feet.
• During landing below 50 feet
When hand flying the aircraft how can the rudder be trimmed, if at all possible?
What happens if the rudder trim is manipulated with the autopilot engaged?
What is the RESET button used for?
What would be felt in the rudder pedals from the yaw damping or turn coordination functions?
Using the RUD TRIM
Nothing
To quickly reset the rudder trim to 0. This will not operate with the autopilot engaged
Nothing. There is no feedback from these systems on the rudder pedals.
How many turns does it take to lower the gear manually?
Rotate the handle clockwise three times until reaching the mechanical stop.
What is the purpose of CPDLC (Controller/Pilot Datalink Communication)?
The CPDLC application enables an exchange of specific ATC messages between the flight crew and air traffic controller.
What preventative measure can be taken by the crew to help prevent takeoff data from improperly
uplinking?
Clearing the ACARS cache (by swapping databases) as directed by the FCOM may reduce the
occurrence of bad Takeoff data uplinks.
Which VHF is used for ACARS?
VHF 3
