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Professional Studies > 2020 > Flashcards

2020 Flashcards

1
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - Retentions are partially released for the first time

A

Practical Completion

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2
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - The Architect considers the contract prices submitted by the contractors

A

Procurement

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3
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - Liquidated damages become payable on several occasions

A

Contract Administration & Observation

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4
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - Variation Price Requests are costed

A

Contract Administration & Observation

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5
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - The Client agrees the Architect’s proposed fee

A

Pre-design

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6
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - The architect assists the client to expand and clarify the initial outline brief

A

Concept and Preliminary Design

Pre-design

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7
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - The specification is completed by the consultant team

A

Detailed design

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8
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - The ‘Contractor’s Performance Bond’ is released

A

At Practical Completion

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9
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - A Schedule of payment is prepared by either the Architect or the Quantitiy Surveyor

A

Contract Administration & Observation

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10
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - Door Schedules are produced and double checked

A

Detailed design

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11
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to
occur - The latest stage that a Resource Consent application should be made for a project that is not a Permitted Activity under the Auckland Unitary Plan, so that the Client’s risk and expenditure is kept to a minimum

A

Developed design

Concept design

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12
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - Consultants required for the project are identified for the project

A

Concept and preliminary design

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13
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - Minor defects are remedied to the satisfaction of the Architect

A

Defects Liability Period

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14
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to

occur - the Architect first considers the approximate amount of documentation that might be required for a project

A

Pre-design

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15
Q

Name the Project Stage where this is most likely to
occur - An indicative cost for the project is prepared by the Quantity Surveyor to see if the project is viable with respect to costs and brief requirements

A

Concept and preliminary design

Start of developed design

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16
Q

The Code of Minimum Standards of Ethical Conduct for Architects:

a) Is enforced by NZRAB, the NZ Registered Architects’ Board
b) Is enforced by MBIE, Ministry of Business, Innovation and Employment
c) Is enforced by NZIA, the NZ Institute of Architects
d) Is enforced by both the NZIA and NZRAB

A

a) Is enforced by NZRAB, the NZ Registered Architects’ Board

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17
Q

The NZIA is responsible for:

a) Setting up the NZ Registered Architects Board
b) The disciplining Architects
c) The registration of Architects
d) Providing support to architects in practice

A

d) Providing support to architects in practice

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18
Q

What New Zealand legislation protects the titles of ‘Architect’ and ‘Registered Architect’?

a) The Architects Act 2005
b) The Registered Architects Act 2005
c) The Registered Architects’ Rules 2006
d) The Registered Architects Act 2006

A

b) The Registered Architects Act 2005

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19
Q

The NZRAB is responsible for:

a) Writing the Architects’ Act
b) The registration of Architects and writing the Architects’ Act
c) The registration of Architects
d) Providing support documents to Architects

A

c) The registration of Architects

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20
Q

To register as an architect in New Zealand, an applicant needs to have
completed which of the following as a minimum:
a) Be competent across all the experience areas
b) Be competent across all the experience areas and hold a recognised qualification such as MArch (Prof) degree
c) Be competent across all the experience areas and hold a recognised qualification such as MArch (Prof) degree and have completed 480
hours minimum practical experience
d) Be competent across all the experience areas and hold a recognised qualification such as MArch (Prof) degree and have completed 5,250 hours minimum practical experience

A

d) Be competent across all the experience areas and hold a recognised qualification such as MArch (Prof) degree and have completed 5,250 hours minimum practical experience

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21
Q

Where is it specifically written that an Architect must have their terms of appointment recorded in writing, agreed to, and a formal instruction to proceed issued by the client?

a) In the Code of Minimum Standards of Ethical Conduct for Architects
b) On the NZIA website
c) On the NZIA website and in the Registered Architects Act
d) In the Registered Architects’ Act

A

a) In the Code of Minimum Standards of Ethical Conduct for Architects

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22
Q

Which of the following consultants are most usually employed as separate consultants as opposed to sub-consultants?

a) The Architect
b) The Quantity Surveyor
c) The Architect and the Quantity Surveyor
d) The Architect, Quantity Surveyor and the contractor

A

c) The Architect and the Quantity Surveyor

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23
Q

An Architect running a small design firm requires which of the following
management skills:
a) Practice and project management
b) Practice, project and human resources management
c) Project, financial and human resources management
d) Practice, project, financial and human resources management

A

d) Practice, project, financial and human resources management

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24
Q

The most common forms of architectural practice in New Zealand are:

a) Sole practitioners, partnerships and companies
b) Sole practitioners and limited liability companies
c) Sole practitioners and companies
d) Sole practitioners, limited liability companies and partnerships

A

b) Sole practitioners and limited liability companies

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25
Q

PI (Professional Indemnity) Insurance:
a) Is held by the Contractor, as required under NZIA SCC
b) Is held by the Client, as required by the NZIA AAS
c) Is held by the Architect, as required by the NZRAB
d) Is held by the Architect, as required by the NZRAB and required of the
Contractor if they are undertaking any design work

A

d) Is held by the Architect, as required by the NZRAB and required of the Contractor if they are undertaking any design work

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26
Q

A separate Contractor is engaged and paid for by:

a) The Principal
b) The Architect
c) The Contractor
d) The Quantity Surveyor

A

a) The Principal

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27
Q

The standard position in New Zealand for copyright ownership of the Architect’s drawings is:

a) The Architect always holds the copyright
b) The Client holds the copyright once they have paid the Architect
c) The Client holds the copyright irrespective of payment, unless a separate agreement is entered into
d) The Architect and the Client hold joint copyright

A

c) The Client holds the copyright irrespective of payment, unless a separate agreement is entered into

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28
Q

Which of the following statements relating to the charging of fees is the most correct?
a) Time charges are best used where required services are of an unknown
extent and duration
b) Lump sum fees are best used where services are of an unknown extent
and duration
c) Time charge fees are best used where services are of a known extent
and duration
d) Percentage fees are best used where the client is a developer

A

a) Time charges are best used where required services are of an unknown extent and duration

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29
Q

A29. A Project manager most commonly: (1 mark)

a) Administers the contract and organises the consultant team
b) Is the client’s representative for the project
c) Administers and observes the contract
d) Employs the architect

A

a) Administers the contract and organises the consultant team

30
Q

Land can be owned:
a) as general land, general land owned by Maori, Maori customary land
and Maori freehold land
b) Only as general land or general land owned by Maori
c) Only as general land and Maori customary land
d) Only as general land

A

a) as general land, general land owned by Maori, Maori customary land and Maori freehold land

31
Q

The Maori concept of ‘Mauri’ is best described as:
a) Referring to the life essence or life force of the land
b) Having the same meaning as Sovereignty as used in The Treaty of Waitangi
c) The mana and Rangatiratanga of the people
d) The guardianship and stewardship of the natural and physical resources
passed down from the ancestors

A

a) Referring to the life essence or life force of the land

32
Q

If a Certificate of Title has the statement ‘Limited as to Title’ on it, it means:

a) The boundaries cannot be correctly identified without a topographical survey
b) The title cannot be correctly identified without a topographical survey
c) The ownership cannot be correctly verified without a full title search back through previous owners
d) The boundaries cannot be correctly verified without a full title search back through previous owners

A

c) The ownership cannot be correctly verified without a full title search back through previous owners

33
Q

An Estate in Fee Simple:

a) Means it has a freehold title
b) Means it has a leasehold title
c) Means it has a unit title
d) Means it has a life interest

A

a) Means it has a freehold title

34
Q

A Freehold Title to land implies:
a) The property is owned for a set number of years
b) The property is owned for an undetermined number of years
c) The property is owned for the lifetime of the occupier
d) The property and buildings on it are owned for an undetermined number
of years

A

Both B and D marked as correct

b) The property is owned for an undetermined number of years

d) The property and buildings on it are owned for an undetermined number
of years

35
Q

A Leasehold Title to land implies:

a) The property is owned for a fixed number of years
b) The property is owned for an undetermined number of years
c) The property is owned for the lifetime of the occupier
d) The property and buildings are owned for a fixed number of years

A

Both A and D marked as correct

a) The property is owned for a fixed number of years
d) The property and buildings are owned for a fixed number of years

36
Q

A ‘Covenant running with the Land’ is:

a) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable irrespective of who owns the land
b) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable for only the current owner
c) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable for only the future owners
d) An agreement to do something on the land that is enforceable irrespective of who owns the land

A

a) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable irrespective of who owns the land

37
Q

An ‘Easement’ on a Title:

a) Gives a right enjoyed by one person in respect of another person’s land
b) Is only the same as a right of way access across another person’s land
c) Only allows for drainage to travel over another person’s land
d) Only allows for electricity cables to travel over another person’s land

A

a) Gives a right enjoyed by one person in respect of another person’s land

38
Q

A cross-lease title means:

a) Two different owners own their own land and each leases their own house from the other land owner
b) A number of different owners co-own the land and have freehold titles to their individual houses
c) Two or more different owners co-own the land and each leases their own house from the other land owners
d) A number of different owners own their own land and each leases their own house from the other land owners

A

c) Two or more different owners co-own the land and each leases their own house from the other land owners

39
Q

The NZ legal system:

a) Is based on the Australian legal system
b) Is based on the English Westminster model
c) Is based on court decisions made only in NZ
d) Is based on statute law

A

b) Is based on the English Westminster model

40
Q

The ‘Law of Torts’

a) Is derived from New Zealand Statutes
b) Is derived from English Case Law
c) Is derived from English and New Zealand Case Law
d) Is derived from English and New Zealand Statutes

A

c) Is derived from English and New Zealand Case Law

41
Q

A contract can exist where:
a) The terms are agreed only in written format
b) The terms are agreed verbally and do not relate to social obligations
c) The terms are agreed either verbally or written down
d) The terms are agreed only in written format and consideration is
included

A

c) The terms are agreed either verbally or written down

42
Q

For a contract to exist the following minimum conditions must be met:
a) An offer, communicated acceptance and consideration exist
b) An offer and acceptance exist
c) An offer, communicated acceptance and valuable consideration all exist, plus the parties intended to enter into a contract, are legally capable and have given genuine consent to this legal contract
d) An offer, communicated acceptance and valuable consideration all exist, plus the parties intended to enter into a contract, are legally capable and have given genuine consent to this legal contract and have
written down the terms and conditions

A

c) An offer, communicated acceptance and valuable consideration all
exist, plus the parties intended to enter into a contract, are legally
capable and have given genuine consent to this legal contract

43
Q

At the end of the Concept Design stage of a project, indicative outline costs of a project can be prepared by:

a) The Quantity Surveyor using a single line estimate
b) The Quantity Surveyor using an abbreviated elemental estimate
c) The Quantity Surveyor using an abbreviated elemental estimate or the Architect using a single line estimate
d) The Quantity Surveyor using a detailed elemental estimate or the Architect using an abbreviated elemental estimate

A

c) The Quantity Surveyor using an abbreviated elemental estimate or the
Architect using a single line estimate

44
Q

When a client relays a budget to the Architect, which of the following needs to be established:

a) If the Consultants’ fees are included or additional
b) If GST is included or additional
c) If GST and Consultants’ fees are included or additional
d) If GST, Consultants’ fees, project costs and fit out items are included or
additional

A

d) If GST, Consultants’ fees, project costs and fit out items are included or additional

45
Q

The most accurate estimates for building costs at the Detailed Design stage of a project are produced by:

a) The Quantity Surveyor
b) The Cadastral Surveyor
c) The Architect
d) The Contractor

A

a) The Quantity Surveyor

46
Q

An abbreviated elemental cost estimate for a housing project:

a) Is based on using rates per metre squared to calculate costs
b) Is based on costing 4-5 key elements
c) Is based on costing 12-13 key elements
d) Is based on costing 20-50 key elements

A

c) Is based on costing 12-13 key elements

47
Q

A Schedule of Quantities:

a) Is always used on large constructon projects
b) Is prepared by the architect
c) Saves time for the chosen contractors when pricing tenders
d) Is used to establish the costs of a project in the developed design stage

A

c) Saves time for the chosen contractors when pricing tenders

48
Q

Fit out items:
a) Are always included in the Architect’s price of the building
b) Are always excluded in the Architect’s price of the building
c) Are either included or excluded as noted in the Architect’s price of the
building
d) Are either included or excluded as noted in the cost plan of the building

A

d) Are either included or excluded as noted in the cost plan of the building

49
Q

Which following statement most accurately describes the main purpose
of the Building Act 2005?

a) The Act protects both individuals and their property and regulates the
performance and construction of building work
b) The Act primarily protects individuals and regulates the performance
and construction of building work.
c) The Act protects the property of individuals
d) The Act primarily protects individuals

A

b) The Act primarily protects individuals and regulates the performance and construction of building work

50
Q

Architects can check to see if a Building Consent is not required in:

a) Building Act, Schedule 4
b) Building Code, Section A
c) Building Act, Schedule 1
d) Building Regulations

A

c) Building Act, Schedule 1

51
Q

A Certificate of Public use is required:

a) When a public building does not yet have a Code Compliance Certificate but the public can safely use all or parts of the building
b) In addition to the Code Compliance Certificate for all public buildings
c) When a residential building does not yet have a Code Compliance Certificate but the public can safely use all or parts of the building
d) When a public Building does not yet have a Code Compliance Certificate

A

Both A an D marked as correct

a) When a public building does not yet have a Code Compliance Certificate but the public can safely use all or parts of the building
d) When a public Building does not yet have a Code Compliance Certificate

52
Q

The NZ Building Code:

a) Must be followed in all instances, including the Acceptable Solutions
b) Must be followed for all new work even if a Building Consent is not required
c) Must be followed in all instances for new and existing work
d) Must be followed in all instances, especially for Waivers

A

b) Must be followed for all new work even if a Building Consent is not required

53
Q

Alterations to existing Buildings require which of the following?
a) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire
b) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities
c) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, and the alterations will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the Building Code
d) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, and the alterations will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the
Building Code, and structural upgrade and means of escape from fire upgrade will always be required

A

c) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, and the alterations will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the Building Code

54
Q 
The obtaining of the necessary consents under the Building Act is the
legal responsibility of:
a) The owner
b) The contractor
c) The architect
d) The project manager
A

a) The owner

55
Q

Determinations can be issued:
a) By the Building Consent Authority where the TA disagrees with the
proposed details
b) By the Building Consent Authority for change of use projects
c) By MBIE for change of use projects
d) By MBIE where the TA disagrees with the proposed details

A

d) By MBIE where the TA disagrees with the proposed details

56
Q

In a ‘Construction Management Procurement model’:

a) the Construction Manager employs the architect
b) the Construction Manager employs the works contractors
c) the Client employs the works contractors
d) the Project Manager employs the works contractors

A

c) the Client employs the works contractors

57
Q

A ‘GMP’ or Guaranteed Maximum Price contract means:

a) The Contractor guarantees the maximum price irrespective of scope changes
b) The Contractor guarantees the maximum price only if there are no scope changes
c) The Contractor guarantees the maximum price only if the scope changes by less than 5%
d) The Contractor guarantees the maximum price only if the scope changes by less than 10%

A

b) The Contractor guarantees the maximum price only if there are no scope changes

58
Q

In a design and build contract:
a) The Architect employs the Contractor
b) The Contractor employs the Architect, either as part of their company or
as a consultant to the construction company
c) The Contractor employs the Architect, always as a part of their
company
d) The Principal employs the Contractor and the Architect

A

b) The Contractor employs the Architect, either as part of their company or as a consultant to the construction company

59
Q

NTT’s (Notices to Tender) are:
a) Sent out to only the Contractors who ask questions to clarify the
contract documents
b) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions
c) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions, and are dated
d) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions, and are dated and numbered

A

d) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions, and are dated and numbered

60
Q

Where exactly in the NZIA SCC 2018 Contract would one look to find the following information:

The items that the principal will supply to the contractor for the project:

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

b) Specific Conditions of Contract

61
Q

Where exactly in the NZIA SCC 2018 Contract would one look to find the following information:

Instructions on what to do under the contract if the Contractor dies:

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

a) Standard Conditions of Contract

62
Q

Where exactly in the NZIA SCC 2018 Contract would one look to find the following information:

The length of time for the Defects Liability period under the contract:

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

b) Specific Conditions of Contract

63
Q

Where exactly in the NZIA SCC 2018 Contract would one look to find the following information:

Additional health and Safety requirements for the Contractor under the contract:

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

c) Special Conditions of Contract

64
Q

A Provisional Sum written into the contract documents at the time of tender:

a) Places monetary amounts into the budget for a particular item and it includes all the Contractor’s costs, expenses and profits
b) Places monetary amounts into the contract for the contractor to carry out a specific item including installation and it includes all the Contractor’s costs and profits
c) Places monetary amounts into the contract for materials to be delivered to site for a specific item and it includes an allowance for the Contractor’s costs and profits
d) Places monetary amounts into the contract for materials to be delivered to site for a specific item and it does not include an allowance for the Contractor’s costs and profits

A

b) Places monetary amounts into the contract for the contractor to carry out a specific item including installation and it includes all the Contractor’s costs and profits

65
Q

Under the SCC Contract, in the event of a dispute arising, the following procedures are available:

a) Mediation which can be challenged, and then Arbitration is entered into, which is binding
b) The Architect makes a ruling that can be challenged, and then Mediation is entered into, which can also be challenged, leaving Arbitration as the binding decision-making process
c) The Architect makes a ruling that can be challenged, and then Mediation is entered into, which is binding
d) The Architect makes a ruling that is binding

A

b) The Architect makes a ruling that can be challenged, and then Mediation is entered into, which can also be challenged, leaving Arbitration as the binding decision-making process

66
Q

Practical Completion:

a) Falls at the end of the Contract Period, including any extensions of time
b) Falls at the end of the contract Period, including any extensions of time, and when all the works are fully completed
c) Falls at the end of the contract Period, including any extensions of time, and when all the works are fully completed, except for minor defects and omissions and agreed deferred works
d) Falls at the end of the contract Period, including any extensions of time, and when all the works are fully completed, except for minor defects and omissions and agreed deferred works and the client has moved into the building

A

c) Falls at the end of the contract Period, including any extensions of time, and when all the works are fully completed, except for minor defects and omissions and agreed deferred works

67
Q

The Defects Liability Stage ends when: (1 mark)

a) The minor defects are all corrected and omissions completed
b) At the end of the stated time in the contract for the Defects Liability Period and when all the minor defects are corrected and omissions are completed
c) At the end of the stated time in the contract for the Defects Liability Period and when all the minor defects are corrected
d) At the end of the stated time in the contract for the Defects Liability Period

A

b) At the end of the stated time in the contract for the Defects Liability Period and when all the minor defects are corrected and omissions are completed

68
Q

Payment for off-site materials can be made under the contract:

a) Only if written into the specific conditions that this is allowable
b) Only if the materials are being delivered to site within the next month
c) Only if written into the specific conditions that this is allowable and they will be delivered to site within the next month
d) Only if written into the specific conditions that this is allowable and there is a good reason why this should happen as there is potential risk for the Principal

A

Both A and D marked correct

a) Only if written into the specific conditions that this is allowable
d) Only if written into the specific conditions that this is allowable and there is a good reason why this should happen as there is potential risk for the Principal

69
Q

A Variation to the Contract:

a) Can be made by the Architect at any time prior to the end of the Defects Liability Period
b) Can be made by the Architect at any time prior to the awarding of Practical Completion if the Contractor has requested this
c) Can be made by the Architect at any time prior to the awarding of Practical Completion irrespective of whether or not the Contractor claims them
d) Can be made by the Architect at any time prior to the end of the Defects Liability Period irrespective of whether or not the Contractor claims
them

A

c) Can be made by the Architect at any time prior to the awarding of Practical Completion irrespective of whether or not the Contractor claims them

70
Q

A70. The setting out of the project works on site is the responsibility of:

a) The Architect
b) The Principal
c) The Project Manager
d) The Contractor

A

d) The Contractor

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