Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Professional Studies > 2019 > Flashcards

2019 Flashcards

1
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - A ‘Variation’ to the contract is issued

A

Contract Administration and Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to
occur - A geotechnical survey is instructed for establishing the nature of the land beneath the proposed building footprint

A

Concept & Preliminary Design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - A ‘Bonus for Early Completion’ of the project is paid out

A

At Practical Completion or start of Defects Liability Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - The last stage where the amount of contract works insurance required for the project can be established

A

Start of Procurement; end of Detailed Design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - The ‘Principal’s Bond’ is released

A

Final account

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - The Client presents their design brief to the Architect for the first time

A

Pre-design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to
occur - The earliest stage that a Resource Consent application can be made to establish the likelihood of consent success for a project typology that is not a Permitted activity under the Auckland Unitary Plan and to minimise the Client’s financial input into a project that may not proceed

A

Concept & Preliminary Design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - Minor defects are remedied to the satisfaction of the Architect

A

Defects Liability Period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to occur - The Quantity Surveyor can establish a reasonably accurate and comprehensive cost plan for the proposed project, incorporating all of the Consultants’ design requirements to meet the Client’s brief

A

Detailed Design

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which Project Stage is this most likely to

occur - The Contractor issues a ‘Progress Payment’ claim

A

Contract Administration and Observation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The NZIA is responsible for:

a) Providing support to architects in practice
b) The registration of Architects
c) Disciplining Architects
d) Setting up the NZ Registered Architects Board

A

a) Providing support to architects in practice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A Quantity Surveyor:

a) Can provide site legal information
b) Can provide site levels
c) Can provide site sub-soil information
d) Can provide a schedule to assist contractors to cost a project

A

d) Can provide a schedule to assist contractors to cost a project

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The titles of ‘Architect’ and ‘Registered Architect’ are protected under what legislation?

a) The Architects Act 2005
b) The Registered Architects Act 2005
c) The Registered Architects’ Rules 2006
d) The Code of Minimum Standards of Ethical Conduct for Architects

A

b) The Registered Architects Act 2005

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

‘General’ is a term that refers to:

a) General costs for all of the project costs
b) All the project establishment costs that are not actual building costs
c) General time frames for the project
d) The Contractor’s profit margin

A

b) All the project establishment costs that are not actual building costs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Where a project’s duration and extent of work is known in advance, the client is likely to accept the Architect’s fee charging methodology as:

a) A time charge fee
b) A lump sum fee with additional works as a percentage fee
c) A percentage fee with additional works as a lump sum fee
d) A percentage or lump sum fee with additional works as a time charge fee

A

d) A percentage or lump sum fee with additional works as a time charge fee

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Where is it specifically written that an Architect must have their terms of appointment recorded in writing, agreed to, and a formal instruction to proceed issued by the client?

a) In the Code of Minimum Standards of Ethical Conduct for Architects
b) On the NZIA website
c) On the NZIA website and in the Registered Architects Act
d) In the Registered Architects’ Act

A

a) In the Code of Minimum Standards of Ethical Conduct for Architects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A separate Contractor is engaged and paid for by:

a) The Principal
b) The Architect
c) The Contractor
d) The Quantity Surveyor

A

a) The Principal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

To successfully manage an architectural practice, which of the following management skills are necessary?

a) Practice and financial management skills
b) Project, human resources and practice management skills
c) Project, human resources, financial and practice management skills
d) Practice, human resources and financial management skills

A

c) Project, human resources, financial and practice management skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

To become registered as an Architect in New Zealand, which of the following conditions need to be met?

a) Adequate practical work experience
b) A recognised architectural degree and a minimum length of practical work experience
c) A recognised architectural degree and adequate practical work experience that is equal to or more than the minimum experience length requirement
d) A recognised architectural degree, adequate practical work experience that is equal to or more than the minimum experience length requirement and evidence of competency in all of the experience areas

A

d) A recognised architectural degree, adequate practical work experience that is equal to or more than the minimum experience length requirement and evidence of competency in all of the experience areas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which of the following are the most common typologies available today for New Zealand Architects to structure their architectural practices?

a) Partnerships and companies
b) Sole practitioners and limited liability companies
c) Sole practitioners and companies
d) Sole practitioners, limited liability companies and partnerships

A

b) Sole practitioners and limited liability companies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The most common role that a Project Manager undertakes is as:

a) The Client’s representative
b) The Architect’s representative
c) The project administrator
d) The project administrator as well as the Client’s representative

A

c) The project administrator

22
Q

Clearly defined development activity groups with respect to planning requirements can be found:

a) In the Auckland Unitary Plan
b) In the Building Act
c) Schedule one of the Building Act
d) In the Auckland District plan

A

a) In the Auckland Unitary Plan

23
Q

Which organisation is responsible for the disciplining of Architects?

a) MBIE - the Ministry of Business, Innovation and Employment
b) NZIA - the New Zealand Institute of Architects
c) NZRAB - the New Zealand Registered Architects Board
d) NZIA and NZRAB

A

c) NZRAB - the New Zealand Registered Architects Board

24
Q

PI (Professional Indemnity Insurance):
a) Is held by the Contractor, as required under NZIA SCC
b) Is held by the Client, as required by the NZIA AAS
c) Is held by the Architect, as required by the NZRAB
d) Is held by the Architect, as required by the NZRAB and required of the
Contractor if they are undertaking any design work

A

d) Is held by the Architect, as required by the NZRAB and required of the Contractor if they are undertaking any design work

25
Q

The standard position in New Zealand for copyright ownership of the Architect’s drawings is:

a) The Client holds the copyright irrespective of payment
b) The Client holds the copyright once they have paid the Architect
c) The Architect always holds the copyright
d) The Architect and the Client hold joint copyright

A

a) The Client holds the copyright irrespective of payment

26
Q

The Maori concept of ‘Mauri’ is best described as:

a) Referring to the life essence or life force of the land
b) Having the same meaning as Sovereignty as used in The Treaty of Waitangi
c) The mana and Rangatiratanga of the people
d) The guardianship and stewardship of the natural and physical resources passed down from the ancestors

A

a) Referring to the life essence or life force of the land

27
Q

Land that is categorised as having “Maori Land” ownership:

a) Can be sold to any group of people, Maori and non-Maori
b) Can be sold to any group of Maori, related or not to the current land owners
c) Can be sold but the purchase rights must first be offered to relatives of the current Maori land owners
d) Can be willed to non-blood relatives provided they are Maori

A

c) Can be sold but the purchase rights must first be offered to relatives of the current Maori land owners

28
Q

If a Certificate of Title has the following statement on it ‘Limited as to Title’ it means:

a) The boundaries cannot be correctly identified without a topographical survey
b) The title cannot be correctly identified without a topographical survey
c) The ownership cannot be correctly verified without a full title search back through previous owners
d) The boundaries cannot be correctly verified without a full title search back through previous owners

A

c) The ownership cannot be correctly verified without a full title search back through previous owners

29
Q

A29. Land owned as an ‘Estate in Fee Simple’ means:

a) The land has a Freehold title as ownership is of unknown duration
b) The land has a Freehold title as ownership is of a known duration
c) The land has a Leasehold title as ownership is of an unknown duration

d) The land has either a Freehold, Life Estate or a Unit or Strata title as
ownership is of unknown duration

A

d) The land has either a Freehold, Life Estate or a Unit or Strata title as ownership is of unknown duration

30
Q

A ‘Covenant running with the Land’ is:

a) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable irrespective of who owns the land
b) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable for only the current owner
c) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable for only the future owners
d) An agreement to do something on the land that is enforceable irrespective of who owns the land

A

a) An agreement to either do or not do something on the land that is enforceable irrespective of who owns the land

31
Q

A31. At the Concept Design stage of a project, outline indicative costs of the project can most easily be given by:

a) The Quantity Surveyor using a detailed elemental estimate or the Architect using an abbreviated elemental estimate
b) The Quantity Surveyor using a single line estimate
c) The Quantity Surveyor using an abbreviated elemental estimate
d) The Quantity Surveyor using an abbreviated elemental estimate or the Architect using a single line estimate

A

d) The Quantity Surveyor using an abbreviated elemental estimate or the Architect using a single line estimate

32
Q

$/m2 cost estimates:

a) Are often used by Architects to establish the first order of cost for a project where set rates are used
b) Are often used by Architects to establish the first order of cost for a project where rates need to be carefully chosen to suit the project
c) Are often used by Quantity Surveyors to establish the first order of cost for a project
d) Are often used by Architects right the way through all of the project stages

A

b) Are often used by Architects to establish the first order of cost for a project where rates need to be carefully chosen to suit the project

33
Q

An abbreviated elemental cost estimate for a housing project:

a) Is based on using rates per metre squared to calculate costs
b) Is based on costing 4-5 key elements
c) Is based on costing 12-13 key elements
d) Is based on costing 20-50 key elements

A

c) Is based on costing 12-13 key elements

34
Q

When a client relays a budget to the Architect, which of the following needs to be established:

a) If the Consultants’ fees are included or additional
b) If GST is included or additional
c) If GST and Consultants’ fees are included or additional
d) If GST, Consultants’ fees, project costs and fit out items are included or additional

A

d) If GST, Consultants’ fees, project costs and fit out items are included or
additional

35
Q

When a Building Consent requires a Waiver or modification, this is issued by which of the following groups?

a) The Territorial Authority - TA
b) The Building Consent Authority - BCA
c) The Ministry of Business, Innovation and Employment - MBIE
d) The Regional Council

A

a) The Territorial Authority - TA

36
Q

To check if a Building Consent is required or not for a particular project, one would look:

a) In the Auckland Unitary Plan
b) In the Building Act, Section 1
c) In the Building Act, Schedule 1
d) In the Building Code

A

c) In the Building Act, Schedule 1

37
Q

A ‘Building Warrant of Fitness’ for a building that has Compliance Schedule features:

a) Is issued annually by the Owner to the BCA, commencing at the end of the first year after building completion
b) Is issued annually by the Owner to the BCA, commencing at the completion of the building
c) Is issued annually by the BCA to the Owner, commencing at the completion of the building
d) Is issued annually by the BCA to the owner, commencing at the end of the first year after building completion

A

a) Is issued annually by the Owner to the BCA, commencing at the end of the first year after building completion

38
Q

Under the Building Act, a ‘Change of Use’ to existing buildings requires which of the following conditions to be met to enable Building Consent to be granted?

a) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire and access for persons with disabilities
b) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, and the change of use will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the Building Code

c) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, plus protection of other property, and sanitary facilities requirements, and the
change of use will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the Building Code

d) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, plus protection of other property, sanitary facilities requirements, structural
performance and fire-rating performance and the change of use will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the Building Code

A

d) The building will comply as nearly as possible with the Building Code for means of escape from fire, and access for persons with disabilities, plus protection of other property, sanitary facilities requirements, structural
performance and fire-rating performance and the change of use will not reduce the existing compliance levels with the Building Code

39
Q

In a design and build contract:

a) The Architect employs the Contractor
b) The Contractor employs the Architect, either as part of their company or as a consultant to the construction company
c) The Contractor employs the Architect, always as a part of their company
d) The Principal employs the Contractor and the Architect

A

b) The Contractor employs the Architect, either as part of their company or as a consultant to the construction company

40
Q

Using the Tender process to procure a Contractor:

a) Enables the lowest price to always be achieved
b) Enables the best Contractor to be sourced based on the assessment criteria setup at the time of opening tenders
c) Enables the best Contractor to be sourced based on the assessment criteria setup at the time of tender preparation
d) Enables the best Contractor and the lowest price to always be achieved

A

c) Enables the best Contractor to be sourced based on the assessment criteria setup at the time of tender preparation

41
Q

NTT’s (Notices to Tender) are:

a) Sent out to only the Contractors who ask questions to clarify the contract documents
b) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions
c) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions, and are dated
d) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions, and are dated and numbered

A

d) Sent out to all Contractors to clarify the contract documents irrespective of who asked the questions, and are dated and numbered

42
Q

In evaluating tenders, the following processes are followed:

a) Tenders are negotiated to ensure the lowest price is understood
b) Tenders are clarified to ensure the lowest price is understood
c) Tenders are clarified to ensure comparisons are equitable and the lowest price is understood
d) Tenders are negotiated to ensure comparisons are equitable and the lowest price is understood

A

c) Tenders are clarified to ensure comparisons are equitable and the lowest price is understood

43
Q

A rule that deletes one of the standard reasons where an extension of time can be claimed under the contract

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

c) Special Conditions of Contract

44
Q

If Retentions are applicable in this Contract

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

b) Specific Conditions of Contract

45
Q

The procedures to follow if the Contractor goes into liquidation while the project is in progress

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

a) Standard Conditions of Contract

46
Q

The amount for Liquidated Damages within this Contract

a) Standard Conditions of Contract
b) Specific Conditions of Contract
c) Special Conditions of Contract

A

b) Specific Conditions of Contract

47
Q
  1. The ‘Defects Liability Period’:
    a) Starts at Practical Completion of the project and finishes after 12 months
    b) Starts at Practical Completion of the project and finishes after 3 months
    c) Starts at Practical Completion of the project and finishes at the end of the time length defined in the contract documents.
    d) Starts at Practical Completion of the project and finishes at the end of the time length defined in the contract documents and when all the minor defects and omissions are completed
A

d) Starts at Practical Completion of the project and finishes at the end of the time length defined in the contract documents and when all the minor defects and omissions are completed

48
Q

Under the SCC Contract, in the event of a dispute arising the following procedures are available:

a) Mediation which can be challenged, and then Arbitration is entered into, which is binding
b) The Architect makes a ruling that can be challenged, and then Mediation is entered into, which can also be challenged, leaving Arbitration as the binding decision-making process
c) The Architect makes a ruling that can be challenged, and then Mediation is entered into, which is binding
d) The Architect makes a ruling that is binding

A

b) The Architect makes a ruling that can be challenged, and then Mediation is entered into, which can also be challenged, leaving Arbitration as the binding decision-making process

49
Q

A ‘Prime Cost Sum’ written into the contract documents at the time of tender:

a) Is a Monetary Allowance that does not include installation costs, just the Contractor’s costs and profit of purchase and supply to site of materials
b) Is a Monetary Allowance that includes the Contractor’s costs and profit for supply and installation of specified parts of the contract works
c) Is a Monetary Allowance that includes the Contractor’s costs for supply and installation of specified parts of the contract works excluding the Contractor’s profit
d) Is a Monetary Allowance that does not include installation costs, just the Contractor’s costs of purchase and supply to site of materials, excluding the Contractor’s profit

A

a) Is a Monetary Allowance that does not include installation costs, just the Contractor’s costs and profit of purchase and supply to site of materials

50
Q

The Client can occupy the building under which of the following situations?

a) Practical Completion has not occurred but the Contractor gives permission for the Client to occupy the building
b) Practical Completion has not occurred but the Contractor gives permission for the Client to occupy the building; or Practical Completion has been granted by the Architect
c) Practical Completion has occurred and the Contractor gives permission for the Client to occupy the building
d) Practical Completion has occurred, the Code Compliance Certificate has been issued and the Contractor gives permission for the Client to occupy the building

A

b) Practical Completion has not occurred but the Contractor gives permission for the Client to occupy the building; or Practical Completion has been granted by the Architect

Professional Studies (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions