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2018 Flashcards

1
Q

Symmetric alopecia appears on a 3 years old female guinea pig.
What is your possible diagnosis?
A. Hyperthyreosis
B. Ovarian cysts
C. Zn-deficiency
D. Castratio-responsive alopecia

A

B. Ovarian cysts

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2
Q

A rodent patient has pruritic dermatitis, and the skin scraping is
negative. Which is the best idea to do?
A. B-lactam antibiotics + glucocorticoids
B. Anti-parasitic treatment
C. Washing with anti-fungal shampoo 2-3 times a day
D. Intracutan allergy test

A

B. Anti-parasitic treatment

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3
Q

Which is the most common cause of fur chewing in chinchillas?
A. Bad husbandry, small cage
B. Vitamin and mineral deficiency
C. Disturbing the mother and the litter
D. Low fiber diet

A

D. Low fiber diet

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4
Q

Which species does not have marking glands?
A. Syrian golden hamster
B. Roborowsky dwarf hamster
C. Mongolian gerbil
D. Degu

A

D. Degu

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5
Q

What is the etiology of malocclusion in rodents?
A. Genetic predisposition
B. Iatrogenous harm
C. Malnutrition
D. All three is possible

A

D. All three is possible

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6
Q

What is typical of mucoid enteritis?
A. Disease of old rabbits caused by E. coli
B. Yeast owergrowth in the intestines of weaning rabbits
C. Mucous-like faeces in chinchillas caused by Clostridium spp.
D. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes in the caecum

A

D. Disease of young rabbits with an unknown origin, with pH changes in the caecum

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7
Q

What is the antibiotic that can be used orally in rodents?
A. Sulfometoxazol
B. Amoxicillin-clavulanic acid
C. Clindamycin
D. None of them

A

A. Sulfometoxazol

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8
Q

What is not the etiology of CRD in rats?
A. Mycoplasma pulmonis infection
B. Latent virus infections
C. High ammonia level in the air
D. Traumatic injury

A

D. Traumatic injury

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9
Q

What is typical of hypercalcuria in rabbits?
A. Physiological under 2 months
B. Needs surgical treatment
C. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge
D. Can be treated by lowering the pH of the urine

A

C. The urinary bladder is full of crystal-sludge

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10
Q

Which is true for ovarian cysts in guinea pigs?
A. You need an US-examination for the diagnosis
B. It can be palpated during routine physical examination
C. You need to prove your diagnosis by needle aspiration
D. You need to prove your diagnosis by measuring progesterone levels

A

B. It can be palpated during routine physical examination

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11
Q

Which is true for the reproduction of guinea pigs?
A. It is recommended to breed them in an intensive-way
B. High calcium levels in the diet
C. Males must be kept separately after parturition
D. Males are also taking care of the youths

A

C. Males must be kept separately after parturition

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12
Q

Which is true for pregnancy toxicosis in rodents?
A. Low calcium diet plays a big role in the etiology
B. It is not possible to prevent the disease
C. IV. glucose, and hepato-protectans are effective treatments
D. Usually poor prognosis in spite of the treatment

A

D. Usually poor prognosis in spite of the treatment

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13
Q

You diagnose a swelling of the mammary gland on a 2 years old rat. What to do next?
A. Give Enrofloxacin, because bacterial mastitis is common
B. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results
C. Glucocorticoid treatment
D. Observing the size, control examination once a year

A

B. Cytology, surgical removal, based on cytology results

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14
Q

How can a rabbit get infected with Encephalitozoonosis?
A. The infectious form spreads with the urine
B. It is an arthropod-born disease
C. The infectious form spreads with the faeces
D. Only by eating the meat of an infected individual

A

A. The infectious form spreads with the urine

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15
Q

When was the ferret domesticated?
A. More than 2000 years ago
B. Approximately 1000 years ago
C. Approximately 500 years ago
D. Approximately 100 years ago

A

A. More than 2000 years ago

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16
Q

When can you neuter a female ferret?
A. Only if she is older than 9 months
B. Only after the first oestrus
C. Only during the first oestrus
D. At any time, when she is full-grown

A

B. Only after the first oestrus

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17
Q

What is overproduced in Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?
A. Sexual steroid
B. Mineralocorticoid
C. Glucocorticoid
D. Adrenalin

A

A. Sexual steroid

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18
Q

Which is false about the GnRH analogues used for treatment of
Ferret Adrenal Gland Disease Complex?
A. In small dose they stimulate the secretion of LH and FSH
B. In high dose they reduce the amount of the GnRH receptors
C. When injected or implanted, they reduce the secretion of the LH and FSH
D. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

A

D. They directly affect the melatonin secretion

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19
Q

What drug is used for medical treatment of insulinoma?
A. Diazoxid
B. Deslorelin
C. Dehidropiandrosteron
D. Suprelorin

A

A. Diazoxid

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20
Q

Which is false about the ferret’s gastrointestinal tract?
A. Cannot use carbohydrates efficiently
B. Cannot digest fiber
C. Minimal gut flora
D. Meat only food is the best for ferrets

A

C. Minimal gut flora

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21
Q

A 9 moths old, non-neutered female ferret has alopecia, but her skin
is intact. Which causes is the most likely?
A. Insulinoma
B. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
D. Prolonged oestrous

A

D. Prolonged oestrous

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22
Q

A spayed female ferret has vulvar swelling, alopecia (intact skin)
four years after the neutering. Which cause is the most likely?
A. Insulinoma
B. Ovarian-remnant syndrome
C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex
D. Prolonged oestrous

A

C. Adrenal Gland Disease Complex

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23
Q

Prolonged oestrus in ferrets…
A. …will disappear when the heat ends
B. …will lead to parthenogenesis
C. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression of the bone-marrow function
D. …can cause the death of the animal, because it induces adrenal gland tumour

A

C. …can cause the death of the animal, because of the suppression of the bone-marrow function

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24
Q

Which is true for the ovary of birds?
A. Only exists on the left side
B. Only exists on the right side
C. Both sides are the same
D. Ovulation only to the left oviduct from both ovaries

A

A. Only exists on the left side

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25
Q

Which is false for the nutrition of parrots?
A. Based on sunflower-seeds causes nutritional imbalances
B. Pulses and tropical fruits can be added to the food
C. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances
D. Feeding seeds with high fat content can cause hepatic disease

A

C. The nutrition based on commercial pellets can cause addiction and nutritional imbalances

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26
Q

Which one you must not miss, while examining a bird?
A. Body temperature
B. Palpation of the pulse
C. Breathing rate
D. Observing the uropygeal gland

A

C. Breathing rate

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27
Q

Which is true for polyuria in birds?
A. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis
B. It is easy to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine
C. It can only be differentiated from diarrhoea with lab work
D. It is difficult to differentiate from diarrhoea, because birds do not excrete urine

A

A. Excreting much yellowish urine allows easy diagnosis

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28
Q

Spaying of the legs appears in a juvenile African grey parrot. What to do next?
A. Careful neurologic examination, vaccination of all birds against Marek-disease
B. Measuring uric-acid level, ultrasonography of the kidneys
C. X-ray to exclude rachitis
D. Biotin supplementation

A

C. X-ray to exclude rachitis

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29
Q

You take a swab-sample from the crop for Trichomonas examination.
What do you do with the sample?
A. Put it in transport medium and put it in the fridge
B. Put it in transport medium, and keep it on room temperature
C. Make a smear sample and fixate it
D. Examine a native smear directly

A

D. Examine a native smear directly

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30
Q

What is/are the best sites of venepuncture in birds?
A. Vena caudalis tibialis and vena cephalica
B. Sinus venous occipitalis
C. Vena jugularis and vena cutanea ulnaris
D. Vena medialis metatarsalis

A

C. Vena jugularis and vena cutanea ulnaris

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31
Q

How is the erythrocyte morphology in birds?
A. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
B. Round cells, without nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm
C. Square cells, oval nucleus, and small amount of homologous cytoplasm
D. Huge, amoeboid cells, small amount of homologous cytoplasm

A

A. Oval cells, dark nucleus, homologous abundant cytoplasm

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32
Q

What is typical for creatinine in birds?
A. It has no clinical significance
B. It is sensitive to kidney damage
C. After kidney damage it elevates earlier than urea
D. Even if it has no clinical significance, you should measure it in
every case

A

B. It is sensitive to kidney damage

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33
Q

What is/are the cause(s) if the feather plucking syndrome?
A. Boredom only
B. Boredom and Ectoparasites only
C. Only psychiatric causes
D. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes

A

D. Lots of infectious and non-infectious causes

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34
Q

The main symptom of liver damage in birds are…
A. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak/nails
B. Abdominal pain and pruritus
C. Regurgitation and CNS signs
D. Fever and increased appetite

A

A. Greenish urates, ascites and abnormal beak/nails

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35
Q

What are hepatoprotectants in birds?
A. Ursodeoxycholic acid, lactulose, metronidazole
B. Ursodeoxycholic acid, famotidine, sucralfate
C. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E
D. Ursodeoxycholic acid, ciproheptadin, chloramphenicol

A

C. Ursodeoxycholic acid, S-adenosylmethionine, silymarin, vitamin E

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36
Q

The course of treatment of kidney disease is…
A. Fluid therapy, ciproheptadin, melatonin
B. Fluid therapy, silimarin, metrondiasole
C. Fluid therapy, ketofen, gentamycin
D. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A

A

D. Fluid therapy, allopurinol, omega-3 fatty acids, vitamin A

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37
Q

Etiology of avian tuberculosis…
A. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium avium
C. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
D. Mycobacterium bovis

A

B. Mycobacterium avium

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38
Q

Possible treatment of megabacteriosis?
A. Amphotericin b
B. Metronidazole
C. Fenbendazole
D. Enrofloxacin

A

A. Amphotericin b

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39
Q

What is the etiology of Macaw wasting disease (PDD)?
A. Intestinal hypomotility
B. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus
C. Less activity of the pancreatic enzymes
D. Fungal infection of the gastrointestinal tract

A

B. Degeneration of the ganglions in the wall of the proventriculus

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40
Q

Which is false?
A. Snakes are shedding periodically
B. Lizard are shedding periodically
C. Ceratophagia is physiological in lizards
D. There is no shedding in turtles

A

D. There is no shedding in turtles

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41
Q

The nutrition of tortoises is based on…
A. Lettuce and tomatoes
B. Plants and flowers collected in the garden
C. Banana
D. Fruits

A

B. Plants and flowers collected in the garden

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42
Q

Which is false for the hibernation of Hermann’s tortoise?
A. It needs water during hibernation
B. The ideal temperature is 4-8 degrees celsius
C. It is only recommended for breeders
D. High fibre diet is optimal before hibernation

A

C. It is only recommended for breeders

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43
Q

Where to give great amount of fluid to a turtle?
A. Intracoelomial
B. Vena jugularis, through IV catheter
C. Subcutaneously to the hind legs
D. Subcutaneously to the front legs

A

A. Intracoelomial

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44
Q

Which is not connected with the etiology of nutritive
osteodystrophia?
A. Low calcium diet
B. Vitamin D deficiency
C. High potassium diet
D. High phosphorus diet

A

C. High potassium diet

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45
Q

Which is important in the pathogenesis of vitamin A deficiency?
A. Enterocyte proliferation
B. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes
C. Pathological fat infiltration in the liver
D. Necrosis in the renal tubuli

A

B. Metaplasia in the surface of the mucous membranes

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46
Q

How to treat otitis media in turtles?
A. No treatment, it disappears spontaneously sooner or later
B. Surgical debridement, antibiotics
C. Eardrops
D. Systemic antibiotic treatment based on sensitivity

A

B. Surgical debridement, antibiotics

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47
Q

Follicular stasis in a green iguana can be treated with…
A. Synthetic progestagens
B. Surgery
C. Optimal husbandry
D. Calcium + oxytocine injection

A

B. Surgery

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48
Q

Which characteristic of reptiles can affect negatively the success of a surgical procedure?
A. Great resistance against hypoxia
B. Low blood pressure
C. Small total blood volume
D. Great resistance against infections

A

C. Small total blood volume

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49
Q

Which can cause stomatitis in tortoises?
A. Herpes virus infection
B. Ophiomyssus natricis infection
C. Iron toxicosis
D. Too hot feeding place

A

A. Herpes virus infection

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50
Q

What can you see in a turtle patient with wet shell rot?
A. Reddish-brownish drawing like areas on the plastron
B. Blue colour on the plastron
C. Green and purple drawing on the plastron
D. Nothing, it is symptomless

A

A. Reddish-brownish drawing like areas on the plastron

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51
Q

What is the etiology of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes?
A. Iridovirus infection
B. Cryptosporidium serpentis
C. Rhabdias sp. infection
D. Unknown

A

B. . Cryptosporidium serpentis

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52
Q

Symptoms of the RNS disease are…
A. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge
B. Diarrhoea, inflammation in the cloaca
C. Arthritis, limb weakness
D. …

A

A. Upper respiratory infection with nasal discharge

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53
Q

Which can cause pneumonia vermiosa?
A. Rhabdias sp.
B. Kalicephalus sp.
C. Oxyuris sp.

A

A. Rhabdias sp.

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54
Q

What is a possible treatment of septicaemia in turtles?
A. Vitamin C
B. Ivermectin
C. Enrofloxacin

A

C. Enrofloxacin

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55
Q

Why should we protect the integrity of the plumage of an injured
bird?
A. Because of animal welfare reasons
B. This is the only way if we want a successful release to the wild
C. If the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (auto mutilation, feather pecking)

A

C. If the plumage is damaged abnormal behaviour starts (auto mutilation, feather pecking)

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56
Q

Which is false? When the neurological examination of the bird takes place…
A. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis
B. The judgement of the pain perception must be the last act
C. The loss of pain perception means a very weak prognosis

A

A. The loss of pain perception means a fair prognosis

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57
Q

The treatment of lead intoxication can be carried out with…
A. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin
B. Ca-EDTA, atropine
C. D-penicillamin, atropine

A

A. Ca-EDTA, D-penicillamin

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58
Q

Which statement is true? Atropin can be given “routinely” for
intoxicated birds, if…
A. Lead intoxication is suspected
B. Copper intoxication is suspected
C. Organic phosphate intoxication is suspected

A

C. Organic phosphate intoxication is suspected

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59
Q

Which method would you choose in a zoo for interventions with serious pain?
A. Neuroleptanalgesia
B. Standing sedation
C. Physical restraint

A

A. Neuroleptanalgesia

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60
Q

Which statement is true about primates?
A. Keeping of them must be avoided, because of zoonosis
B. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high priority
C. Because of the risk of zoonosis, certain species can be treated only in protection masks and spectacles

A

B. Because of the risk of zoonosis, personal safety must get a high priority

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61
Q

Which birds can be infected by Histomonas, and what is the vector?

A

Galliform birds, heterakis gallinae worms

62
Q

What are the clinical signs of histomonosis?

A

Black head, and yellowish foamy diarrhoea

63
Q

What is the therapy of histomonosis?

A

Klion (metronidazol)

64
Q

Which birds can suffer from lymphoma?

A

Canaries and parrots

65
Q

What is the causative agent of lymphoma?

A

Retroviridae virus

66
Q

What non-infectious agents can cause serous nasal discharge in
birds?

A

Pollen, dust, smoke, and fungal spores

67
Q

What infectious agents can cause serous nasal discharge in birds?

A

Viruses: Paramyxovirus
Bacteria: Mycoplasma and Chlamydophila

68
Q

What is the cause of purulent nasal discharge in birds?

A

Secondary bacterial infections

69
Q

Which species causes mycoplasmosis of exotic pheasants?

A

Mycoplasma gallisepticum

70
Q

Is Mycoplasma species resistant or sensitive?

A

Sensitive (virulence for maximum 1-2 days)

71
Q

How can you treat mycoplasmosis in birds?

A

Nutritional: Vitamins, proteins and probiotics
Antibiotics: Enrofloxacin

72
Q

What is the causative of Amazon tracheitis?

A

Parrot herpersvirus 2 and 3 (chicken are also sensitive)

73
Q

What are the clinical symptoms of Amazon tracheitis?

A

Lethargy, loss of appetite, dyspnoea and nasal discharge, and conjunctivitis in peracute cases

74
Q

How can you treat Amazon tracheitis in birds?

A

Change the place of the cage, treat secondary bacterial infections with antibiotics and
vitamins, and inhalation therapy

75
Q

What are the causative and clinical symptoms of paramyxovirus infection in canaries?

A

Causative: PMV-1

Clinical symptoms: Conjunctivitis, specific noises at respiration, sneezing and
shaking the head

76
Q

Which part of the respiratory tract of birds is common for poxvirus, mycobacterium avium and trichomonas, and what is the treatment?

A

Part: Trachea
Treatment: Clean the house/cage of the bird and give Ivermectin

77
Q

What is the causative agent of syngamus infection of pheasants, and what is the intermediate host?

A

Causative agent: Syngamus tracheae
Intermediate host: Ring worms and earth worms

78
Q

What is the diagnosis and therapy of Syngamus infection in pheasants?

A

Diagnosis: Fecal examination and larval examination
Therapy: Mebendazol or Fenbendazol

79
Q

Which bacteria are likely to cause changes in the bird lung?

A

Tuberculosis, E.coli

80
Q

Which stains are good for differential diagnosis of bacterial infections in the bird lung?

A

Grocott, HE, PAS and ZN

81
Q

What are the causatives of serous, purulent and chronic fibrinous airsacculitis in birds?

A

Serous: Virus, Mycoplasma
Purulent: Bacteria
Chronic fibrinous: Bacteria, Fungi

82
Q

What is the causative of infectious diseases of the pericardial sac in birds?

A

Microfilaria

83
Q

Which pathogens can cause bleeding in the pericardium?

A

Bacteria: Paterurella multocida, E. rhusiopathiae, E.coli

Viral: Bird flu and other

84
Q

Which bird is very sensitive to Nephritis virus?

A

Tragopans

85
Q

What is the causative of kidney coccidiosis in young geese?

A

Eimeria truncata

86
Q

Which bacteria can cause inflammation of the testis in birds?

A

Salmonella species: Necrotic inflammation
Mycobacteria: Tubercles in the testis

87
Q

Which birds are more likley to suffer from infectious diseases in the copulatory organs?

A

Ducks and geese due to bad keeping tehniques

88
Q

Do chelonians have a diaphragm?

A

no

89
Q

What does the term poikilotherm mean?

A

Cold blooded

90
Q

Why does it not make any sense to take the temperature of a reptile?

A

Because their temperature is equal to the external temperature

91
Q

What is the optimal enviromental temperature for reptiles?

A

22-27°C

92
Q

How many phases of shedding can be differentiated in snakes?

A

5

93
Q

What is a common cause of shedding problems?

A

Keeping

94
Q

Is bigger always better when it comes to the size of the terrarium?

A

no

95
Q

How many hours of light is necessary each day?

A

8-10

96
Q

In case of tropical species of reptiles, how high humidity do they
need?

A

90%

70-90%

97
Q

What kind of terrarium type do you have concerning habitat?

A

Rain forest, Savannah, Mediterranean, Desert

98
Q

What kind of terrarium type do you have concerning way of living?

A

Higher style, Flat style, Aqua-terrarium

99
Q

Which reptiles are considered herbivourous?

A

Testudinidae, Green iguana

100
Q

Which reptiles are considered carnivorous?

A

Snake, Sweet water turtle and Monitors

101
Q

Which reptiles are considered omnivorous?

A

Some Geckos, Agamas

102
Q

What are the positions for x-rays in a soft shelled turtle?

A

DV, LL, Cranio-caudal

103
Q

Which sites can be used for blood sampling in a chelonian?

A

Sub-carpaxial sinus, dorsal coccygeal vein, vena jugularis, other, peripheral veins or
heart

104
Q

Which sites can be used for blood sampling in lizards?

A

Ventral coccygeal vein, heart, abdominal veins

105
Q

Which sites can be used for blood sampling in snakes?

A

Ventral coccygeal vein, heart and vena palatina

106
Q

What can be the consequence of too high humiditiy?

A

Dermatitis

107
Q

What can be the consequence of too low humidity?

A

Shedding problems

108
Q

Poxvirus dermatitis is common in which species?

A

Kaiman, Green iguana and Sceloporus spp

109
Q

What are the clinical signs of poxvirus dermatitis?

A

Small brownish papules, localisation

110
Q

What are the most common tick infection of reptiles?

A

Ophinonyssus natricis

111
Q

What are the clinical signs of Ophinonysussus natricis infection?

A

Anaemia, sheeding problems

112
Q

What is the correct therapy if suspecting Ophinonyssus natricis infections?

A

Ivermectin, Frontline

113
Q

Shell diseases is most common in which type of chelonian?

A

Aqua chelonian (more common than tortoises)

114
Q

In what reptiles do you most commonly find stomatitis?

A

Snakes and larger lizards, venomous snakes especially

115
Q

How does stomatisis looks like?

A

Yellowish fibrin layer, under the fibrin you find bleeding mucosa

116
Q

Treatment of stomatitis?

A

Change the keeping enviroment and remove fibrin layer, and Enrofloxacin 4 mg/kg for 4-5 days + vitamin C injection every day

117
Q

When does stomatitis commonly in terrestrial tortoises?

A

After hibernation and shipping

118
Q

Which animals are commonly affected by hypertrophic gastritis?

A

Snakes, Geckos

119
Q

What is the pathogen, which causes hypertorphic gastritis in
reptiles?

A

Cryptosporidium serpentis

120
Q

What are the clincal signs of hypertrophic gastritis in snakes?

A

Weight loss, good appetite but vomiting and water-like smelly diarrhoea

121
Q

What are the clinical signs of hypertrophic gastritis in geckos?

A

Weight loss and refusal to eat

122
Q

Treatment for hypertrophic gastritis?

A

Spiramycin, 160 mg/kg for 7 days, repeat 2 weeks later

123
Q

How to prevent hypertrophic gastritis?

A

Change in hygiene

124
Q

What are the causative agents for acute mucoid enterocolities?

A

Parvo and Adenovirus, Proteus and Shigella

125
Q

What are the causative agents for necrotic enterocolities?

A

Entamoeba invadens, Trichomonas and Hexamita spp

126
Q

What is the pathogen causing ulcerative enteritis?

A

Kalicephalus species

127
Q

Which species are highly susecptible to enteritis caused by Entamoeba?

A

Herbivorous reptiles, carnivorous species

128
Q

What are the clinical signs of entamoeba enteritis?

A

Loss of appetite, diarrhoea and lethargy

129
Q

What are the different forms of viral pneumonia?

A

Acute respiratory: Wide breaths with open mouth and sneezing
Chronic respiratory: Pneumonia
CNS form: Incoordination
Asymptomatic form: Virus carrier

130
Q

What pathological lesion do you find in viral pneumonia?

A

Catharrhal or purulent pneumonia

131
Q

What is the treatment for viral pneumonia?

A

Antibiotics together with vitamin C

132
Q

Fungal pneumonia: susceptible species and predisposing factors?

A

All reptiles species are affected, and high humiditiy helps fungi overgrowth

133
Q

Which snake species are sensitive to parasitic pneumonia?

A

All snakes are sensitive

134
Q

What is the causative agent of pneumonia verminosa?

A

Rhabdias species

135
Q

Routes of infecion of pneumonia verminosa?

A

Contaminated feed, per cutaneous

136
Q

Therapy in case of parasitic pneumonia of snakes?

A

Ivermectin injection

137
Q

How to perform a blood examination?

A

Collect blood, serology examination, blood smear, stain with Giemsa

138
Q

Which reptile species are susceptible to nephritis?

A

All species are susceptible

139
Q

Most common causative agent for nephritis?

A

Bacteria

140
Q

Type of nephritis found in reptiles?

A

Purulent nephrtis

141
Q

What is the treatment for egg myasis?

A

Infertile egg should be taken out from the hatchery, the healthy egg should be transferred into clean hatching medium, and the hatchery must be cleaned and all edges should be cleaned well

142
Q

In which species is it common to see post-hibernation anorexia?

A

Snakes and turtles

143
Q

Diseases which are related to hibernation, includes?

A

Mechanical damage, Post-hibernation anorexia, Post-hibernation icterus, Septicaemia

144
Q

Which antibiotic is not to be given per os/per oral in reptiles?

A

Gentamycin

145
Q

Which is a very good antibiotic to use with wide spectrum and less resistance?

A

Enrofloxacin

146
Q

Which antibiotic is highly oto – and neprhotoxic?

A

Gentamycin

147
Q

For how long should you keep treating reptiles with Amphotericin B?

A

2 weeks

148
Q

How often should you use Grisofulvin?

A

Every 3rd day

149
Q

Which disease is nystatin highly effective against?

A

Enteral mycotic infections

150
Q

Which fungi is Amphotericin B highly effective against?

A

Aspergillus

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