2017 KV Flashcards
What are you report times prior to departure?
- domestic
- international
- domestic: 45mins
- international: 1hr
When are you required to report to the aircraft?
FOM 4-16
35min prior
What is your Max flight time you may be scheduled for or accept if your report time is between 0500 - 1959?
FOM 4-6
- 9hrs
0000-0459: 8hrs
0500-1959: 9hrs
2000-2359: 8hrs
Does an extension of the flight duty period require concurrence from PIC? If so, how is this done?
FOM 4-10
Yes, PIC concurrence with the FDP extension is required to confirm that the PIC/SIC are legal to operate into the FDP extension
PIC demonstrates concurrence by initializing ACARS with password or signing manual manifest prior to T/O.. or calling OCC supervisor at 435.634.3939 ext: 43939
When a report time is modified due to a late arrival at an overnight station must the PIC do anything? True/false
FOM 4-9
PIC coordinates with crew support to determine a report time
True
True or False. Prior to boarding an aircraft each crewmember must have their identity checked.
FOM 4-16
-True
One of the following must verify crewmember identification by reference to their employee ID and the Crew Trip Log, dispatch release or any electronic means available that validates the crewmember’s assigned flight:
• Any Skywest employee or representative authorized to ground handle Skywest flights
• Any other crewmember not assigned to the same flight
• The ID verification applies prior to gaining access to the aircraft unless one crewmember remains onboard
• The PIC may not verify Crewmembers assigned to their flight
Name two different documents that can be used to verify the crews identity prior to boarding the aircraft.
(FOM 4-16)
Crewmember identification is done by reference to:
- employee ID and the Crew Trip Log
- dispatch release or any electronic means available that validates the crewmember’s assigned flight.
Can the captain of the flight verify the crews ID for the purposes of boarding the aircraft?
(FOM 4-16)
No. The PIC may not verify crewmembers assigned to their flight
When is a spare set of corrective lenses required for flight operations?
(FOM 4-17)
International operations.
Suggested for all other operations.
Is an FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operators permit required for domestic operations?
(FOM 4-17)
No, only required for international operations
Are you required to carry a flashlight in good working condition for all flight operations?
(FOM 4-17)
Yes, Required Flight Items: 1. Pilot's certificate (temporary only 48 states) 2. Medical certificate 3. Company ID badge 4. Flashlight 5. Headset 6. Flight bag for EFB 7. Current Jeppesen Airway Manual, FOM, and SOPM
Required International Flight Items:
- Spare Corrective lenses
- FCC Radio License
- Passport
Who would you report a lost medical certificate to at then beginning of your shift?
(FOM 4-18)
Contact Crew Support and request issuance of the required proof of certificate (airman or medical). Crew support provides the pilot a copy of the Crew Qualification as proof of certification, temporary is good for 72 hours.
What documentation should a SkyWest pilot present to the PIC in order to occupy the jumpseat? Pilot from another airline?
(FOM 5-20)
a. SkyWest pilot:
1. Airline ID
2. Pilot Certificate
3. boarding pass
b. Other airline employee:
1. Airline ID (verify pilot/ dispatcher)
2. Medical certificate (offline pilots only)
3. FAA pilot/ dispatcher certificate
4. boarding pass (verifying name matches airline ID and CASS approved)
What items should be included in a briefing to an observer occupying the jumpseat?
Emergency equipment: (Jumpseat Briefing Card) 1. oxygen mask 2. emergency exits and escape rope, 3. how to operate jumpseat & flight deck door 4. sterile cockpit 5. life vest 6. seatbelt 7. headsets and interphone 8. duties of jumpseater in an emergency
Can pilots occupy the jumpseat on an international flight?
(FOM 5-18)
- FAA Aviation Safety Inspector
- DOD air carrier evaluator who is checking or observing flight operations
- SkyWest check airman performing duties as a check airman (must be previously assigned the flight and listed on the dispatch release)
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure for an observer?
(SOPM 4-2.11) "Green Gauge" MFD Status page: - Green: 3 Crewmembers - Cyan: 2 Crewmembers (no jumpseat) - Amber: requires servicing
What resource would you use to determine if an observer is eligible for the jumpseat?
- Jumpseat Briefing card
- Admission to the Flight Deck FOM 5-18
- Flight Deck Jumpseat Priority PPM 3026.1
Are the Skywest Airlines Chairman or CEO or COO authorized to ride in the jumpseat? Does their name need to be included on the flight release?
(PPM 3026.2)
Yes. Yes.
1. Current Skywest Company photo ID
2. Dispatch release: Skywest OCC must add the name of the Skywest official to the dispatch release.
Do on-duty SkyWest mechanics proceeding to or from a scheduled work assignment require a FO-2 “authorization form” to occupy the jumpseat?
(FOM 5-19)
Yes.
- Form FO-2: The Vice President Flight Operations, Vice President Maintenance, Director Quality Assurance, Director Flight Operations/ Company Chief Pilot, or Director Aircraft Operations will send authorization for flight deck access.
- Verify Company photo ID
- Mechanic Certificate.
What credential will an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector present to the PIC to obtain free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck?
(FOM 5-23)
- Form 110A.
- ASI completes Form 8430-13 in the presence of the gate agent.
- the FAA Inspector Badge is not required to be shown.
True or False? The Form 110A has a blue text background, vertical orientation, an expiration date and the credential number.
(FOM 5-23)
- True
True or False? Positive verification in CASS is required for jumpseaters?
(PPM 3026.6)
True.
- All pilots, including SkyWest pilots, requesting access to a cockpit observer’s jumpseat must be verified as eligible in CASS.
What is the dress code for the jumpseat occupant?
Business casual
True or False? The jumpseat briefing must include the use of the seat belts, oxygen masks and headset utilization.
(PPM 3026.5)
True
True or False? FAA inspectors engaged in checking flight operations will take priority over revenue passengers.
(PPM 3026.5)
True
True or False? Pilots who cannot be verified in CASS are still eligible to occupy an available passenger cabin seat.
(PPM 3026.6)
True
True or False? At an intermediate stop, when the observer seat is occupied, the captain must ensure the inbound station is notified.
(PPM 3026.5)
True, and whether they will remain onboard.
True or False? The company jumpseat pilot specifically limits the number of jumpseaters to the number of actual jumpseats installed in the aircraft.
(PPM 3026.1)
False:
The company jumpseat policy specifically limits the number of jumpseaters per flight to the number of actual jumpseats installed in the aircraft.
*BUT additional jumpseaters on a given flight may be admitted at the discretion of the captain- provided seats are available in the cabin and other revenue or non-revenue passengers are not affected.
True or False? The jumpseat priority list applies to the observer seat only.
(PPM 3026.1)
True
After the observer seat is filled, priority numbers 7-12 are cleared as they appear on:
- Departure Management (DM): BP11
- Airport standby list (ASL): S4
- Higher classification requires Non-rev ticket
True or False? Skywest Airlines pilots maintain priority over all jumpseat requests until 15 minutes prior to scheduled departure time.
(PPM 3026.1)
True,
However, agents will make every to accommodate ALL jumpseat requests regardless of scheduled departure time
Where do we find the BOW weight?
On the can or the release
Crewmember weights are included in BOW and includes personal flight equipment.
CRJ / ERJ Pilot 215 = 185 + 30
CRJ / ERJ FA 183 = 143 + 10 + 30
What is the standard passenger weight for today’s flight? For an Adult? A Child?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
Summer Weights (May 1 - Oct 31)
- Adult (13 years and older): 190 lb
- Child (2 years to less than 13 years): 82 lb
- Infant (0 to less than 2 years) 0 lb
Winter Weights (Nov 1 - Apr 30)
- Adult (13 years and older) 195 lb
- Child (2 years to less than 13 years) 87 lb
- Infant (0 to less than 2 years) 0 lb
What is the standard bag weight?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
- 30 lbs
How much does a heavy bag weigh?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
- 60 lbs
Is the weight of a planeside checked bag different than a carry on?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
- Planeside-loaded/carry-on baggage: 30 lbs
- Carry-on baggage and/or personal item properly stowed in aircraft passenger cabin: 0 lbs
Items that cannot be properly stowed in an overhead bin, underneath a seat, or secured in an empty seat must be tagged with a planeside-loaded/carry-on tag. The item now becomes a planeside-loaded bag and placed in the cargo bin/pit must be accounted for on the CLR. It now weighs 30 lbs
What does a ticketed cabin bag weigh?
(W&B Manual 4-2)
- Weight of a child:
Summer 82 lb, Winter 87 lb
Ticketed cabin baggage must not exceed 165 lbs
What is the weight of a Flight Deck Observer?
(W&B Manual 3-11)
Flight deck observer weights are 190 lb and include one carry-on and one personal item when stowed in the passenger cabin
Max ramp weight?
85,870
Max takeoff weight?
85,517
Max zero fuel weight?
69,886
Max Landing weight?
74,957
Max FWD cargo weight?
3,306 (look on release, varies per carrier)
Max aft cargo weight?
2,535 (Look on release, varies per carrier)
What cargo restrictions do we have on the aft cargo bay?
(AOM 14-2-15-3)
No pets, no dry ice.
The ECS provides ventilation for live animals in the forward cargo bay. This system contains a fan on the side of the bay which provides underfloor recirculating air into the bay.
Where must the pilots stow their baggage when flying a non-revenue flight without passengers?
(W&B Manual 3-6, FOIB 060316-1)
Crewmember baggage stowed in the cabin must be evenly distributed throughout the Coach/Economy cabin.
Crewmember carry-on baggage must not be stowed in the First Class cabin.
Crewmember roller bags may be stored in any approved location and do not need to be replaced in the cargo bin by an equal number of passenger carry-on bags or ballast.
What does the acronym MFPTW stand for? Does it include any takeoff/climb limits?
MAXIMUM FLIGHT PLAN TAKEOFF WEIGHT
every limitation minus MrTOW, cannot calculate MRTOW yet cause you didn’t tell you a runway yet
What does PCFA stand for?
(W&B Manual 2-12)
Passenger Carrying Firearm.
Defined as a United States (U.S.) civil law enforcement officer or agent, military law enforcement officer, or official or employee of a municipality, county, state, or federal government who is authorized to carry a weapon.
True or False, live animals must be noted on the CLR?
(W&B Manual 4-9)
True.
The flight crew is notified via the CLR of all live animals, authorized DG/HM COMAT, motorized mobility aid batteries, UN3373, dry ice, or other pertinent items loaded in the cargo bin/pit.
True or False, cabin check baggage must have one or more handles which allows the seat belt to go through the handle(s) and secure the baggage to the seat?
(W&B Manual 3-8)
True.
Passenger is responsible for securing the item into the seat.
What is the standard weight of service animals and cabin pets?
(W&B Manual 3-8)
0 lbs.
Cabin Pets - Considered as the passenger’s carry-on item allowance. No weight is assigned when carried in the aircraft passenger cabin.
Passenger assist (service animals) and emotional support animals - Not considered as the passenger’s carry-on or personal item allowance. 0 lbs is assigned when carried in the aircraft passenger cabin.
What is the minimum altitude a turn can be made in IMC?
(Performance Handbook 2.1)
1,000’ AFE
No turns will be made below 1,000’ AFE when takeoff weather is less than 1,000’ ceiling and 3 SM visibility
- unless a Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before 1,000’ AFE.
Is it mandatory that pilots fly a simple-special procedure in IMC? VMC?
(Performance Handbook 2.2)
- Yes, mandatory in IMC. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000’ AFE at which time you may proceed on course.
- Mandatory in VMC until 1000’ AFE.
Is it mandatory that pilots fly a complex-special procedure in IMC? VMC?
(Performance Handbook 2.2)
Yes, they are mandatory under both IMC and VMC (Fly the whole procedure).
When would you consider a runway to be wet for performance reasons?
(Performance Handbook 2.3)
FOIB: dispatch defaults wet performance unless confirmed dry and added in remarks
> 25% rwy surface area covered by visible dampness or water 1/8in (3mm) or less in depth
A runway is wet when it is neither dry or contaminated
When is a runway considered contaminated?
(Performance Handbook 2.3)
When more than 25% of the runway surface area within the length and the width being used, is covered by frost, ice, any depth of snow or slush, or more than 1/8 in (3 mm) water.
When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?
(SOPM 4-7.3)
- contaminated runways
- windshear: reported or forecast
- special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
Is a runway with patchy thin ice or snow considered contaminated?
No. Patchy is a surface that has 25% or less of the surface covered by snow, ice,
Performance data is valid for what range of temperatures on the release?
(Performance Handbook 2.7)
The takeoff report is valid when the actual OAT is no less than POAT -10 degrees C. If the dispatcher planned a POAT of 25C then the report is valid if the actual OAT is no lower than 15C. Can go above temperature but cannot go above release MT.
Performance data is valid for what range of QNH values?
(Performance Handbook 2.7)
The takeoff report is valid when the actual QNH is no less than .10” below PQNH. For example if the dispatcher planned for a QNH of 29.82” then the report is valid if the actual QNH is no lower than 29.72.” A new takeoff report is never required when the actual QNH exceeds the planned QNH, but additional uplift capability may be gained.
If your takeoff weight exceeds the weight listed under the “PTOW PLUS 1000” column what would you do?
(Performance Handbook 2.11)
- Get a new release with larger numbers but cannot exceed MFPTOW.
- Actual takeoff weight must be less than or equal to the MTOW displayed.
- If actual takeoff weight is greater than MTOW proceed to the next applicable takeoff performance section, if available.
Are we permitted to takeoff with a tailwind? If so, is your release performance data valid?
(SOPM 2-3.1, Performance Handbook 2.11)
Yes, the max tailwind is 15 kts.
The release takeoff performance sections are based on calm winds. Unless specifically noted in the section title, use of this data is not allowed for takeoff with a tailwind. Sections may be used for headwind conditions.
If weather conditions require the pilot to program REF A/I to “ALL” in the MCDU, the remarks sections states “ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON” only, are you able to use performance data?
No. You have to get new release numbers.
If the flex N1 value on the EICAS is below the calculated release value by more than 0.5% what would you do?
(SOPM 4-3.5)
- After the second engine start, verify the EICAS N1 target value is not below and no more than .5% greater than the ACARS or release N1 value. For example, if the ACARS/ release N1 value is 90.0 then the N1 target on the EICAS must be 90.0 to 90.5.
- A value outside of this range is an indication of a disagreement between OAT used to calculate the ACARS/ release N1 and that sensed by the engines or a mechanical problem.
- It should be corrected by reducing the flex assumed temperature or updating the takeoff performance numbers with the current OAT through ACARS or by CONTACTING DISPATCH
- If this is unsuccessful takeoff should not be attempted.
During a single-engine missed approach, would you fly the published missed approach procedure or wait until 1,000 AFE to commence a turn?
Fly the published missed approach but in heading mode so you have bank protection… this is not a SE departure procedure.. this is a MISSED APPROACH
Where would you find LAHSO landing distance information?
(SOPM 4-10.12)
- Jepp 10-9A
- ATC is responsible for providing available landing distance via ATIS, published U.S. Terminal procedures or the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory.
You cannot accept a LAHSO when:
- Weather is less than 1,000 ft and 3 miles or or 1,500 ft and 5 miles no PAPI/ VASI
- Windshear was reported in the last 20 min
- Tailwind on the LAHSO runway is greater than 3 kt
- Prohibited on wet runways
- Night LAHSO is only approved where LAHSO night lighting system is installed and operational
- No MEL item may exist affecting the stopping capability of the airplane
- LAHSO clearance cannot be accepted below 1,000 ft AGL on final approach
- You must have the required minimum LAHSO landing distance from chart from the SOPM
Why is it important that only displays 2 and 3 are showing on initial power-up?
Indicates the logic is working correctly so that if you were in electrical emergency only 2 and 3 would work and no extra power would draw. If other screens come up on power up then the system is not functioning as normal.
- Contact MX
Why must battery voltage be checked before applying AC power?
To check to see if you have enough battery power or if you need to charge it, once you add AC power the batteries will no longer show batteries only it shows system power level.
Need to ensure max charge in the event of an emergency.
If battery 1 is showing 22.5 volts and battery 2 indicates 21.4 volts, what action must the pilot take?
(SOPM 4-1.8)
- Charge the batteries before departure according to the chart in the SOPM.
- If one or both battery voltage levels is less than 22.5 volts determine the lowest battery voltage. For battery voltage between 21.0-22.5 recharge the batteries prior to takeoff through any AC source for 30-50 min based on battery temperature from the chart.
If less than 21.0 call MX
What is the purpose of charging the batteries prior to takeoff?
(AOM 14-5-15-2)
To ensure that you have enough power in transition to RAT during electrical failure.
In an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY, while the RAT is not fully deployed and also if the RAT stall speed is reached, the batteries supply essential loads for 10 min.
What should the pilot check prior to conducting a fire panel test? Why?
(SOPM 4-1.9)
Verify there are no FIRE FAIL protection messages displayed on EICAS after power up.
If there was something that was failed the test wouldn’t be able to run properly
Describe the items associated with a successful fire test on the overhead panel.
(AOM 14-7-30-1, SOPM 4-1.9)
When the TEST button on the fire protection panel is pressed it initiates:
AURAL:
Fire Bell warnings sound
LIGHTS:
- Master WARNING lights flash
- Fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
- CARGO SMOKE FWD and AFT fire extinguishing buttons illuminate steady
- APU fire extinguishing button
- Upper half of APU EMERG STOP button illuminates
EICAS: (5 messages) ENG 1 FIRE ENG 2 FIRE APU FIRE CRG AFT SMOKE CRG FWD SMOKE
EICAS INDICATIONS:
The FIRE warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
SYSTEM CONFIGURATIONS:
The forward cargo compartment fan turns off
The cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve closes, only when bleed air is being provided by the engines or the APU
If the Fire Detection Test button is pressed for 10 seconds, the APU will shutdown
How do you determine if the AC power supplied by the GPU is within proper limits?
(AOM 14-5-10-3)
Once the GPU is connected and power quality requirements (voltage, amperage, frequency) are within limits, an AVAIL light illuminates on the GPU button.
Upon establishing AC power on the aircraft, what test should automatically start?
(SOPM 4-1.12)
The Electrical PBIT is automatically performed when an initial AC source is introduced.
- Allow the E-PBIT to finish before turning on any hydraulic pumps.
- Interruption of the E-PBIT may result in a FLIGHT CONTROL NO DISPATCH message.
- The test is interrupted when: any hydraulic pump is running, the FCM panel switches are cycled or AC power is interrupted.
Is the electrical PBIT required to complete every flight?
No, only when it is expired
When do the amber IDG lights illuminate?
(AOM 14-5-10)
- High oil temp and low oil pressure. When the IDG oil pressure drops below 140 PSI +/- 25 PSI or the IDG oil temperature reaches 335F +/- 10F (168C +/- 5C) the EICAS message IDG 1(2) OIL is displayed and an amber led illuminates near the IDG selector knob on the overhead panel.
- Can be manually disconnected by moving knob to DISC. Automatic IDG disconnection occurs when manual disconnection is not performed and the IDG oil temperature reaches 366F (185.6C).
- It cannot be reconnected in both cases.
With the GPU switch pushed in and reading “AVAIL” what buses are being powered?
(AOM 14-5-10-3, AOM 14-5-40)
- If the button is pushed in and using the GPU it would read IN USE. It is pushed in and reading AVAIL so you are using engine or APU power.
- Whether you are on Engine or APU power the buses powered ON are the same: AC BUS 1 AC BUS 2 AC ESS BUS AC STANDBY BUS DC BUS 1 DC BUS 2 DC ESS BUS 1 DC ESS BUS 2 DC ESS BUS 3 HOT BATT BUS 1 HOT BATT BUS 2
The IDG’s are capable of supplying how much power to the electrical system?
AOM 14-5-10-1
Both IDGs and the APU are rated at 40kVA, 115VAC, 400Hz, three phase.
Why is the switch position for Battery 2 labeled “AUTO” instead of “ON?”
(AOM 14-5-15-1, AOM 14-5-40)
- Battery 2 has logic associated with it, it disconnects and supplies power to the APU START BUS during APU start.
- During APU Starting: Battery 1 powers DC ESS BUS 1 2 and 3, AC STANDBY BUS and HOT BATT BUS 1; Battery 2 powers APU START BUS and HOT BATT BUS 2
If Battery 2 is inoperative, is there any way to start the APU?
(AOM 14-5-15-3)
- Yes, DC GPU can replace Battery 2 to power the APU START BUS when Battery 2 is unavailable or Battery 2 temperature is below -20C.
- DC GPU provides 28 VDC power to the APU START BUS.
What kind of batteries are installed on the ERJ?
(AOM 14-5-15-2)
2 x 24V SLAB (Sealed Lead Acid Battery)
They are charged by any AC source through the TRUs.
What is the total fuel capacity on the ERJ?
(SOPM 2-4.3)
20,935 lb
Is the usable fuel quality any different if the aircraft is gravity refueled?
(AOM 14-10-10)
No.
Can the aircraft be refueled without AC power?
(AOM 14-10-10-11)
Yes, pressurized refueling can be done by battery power (DC HOT BATT BUS 2). Or you could gravity/ over wing fill the tanks.
What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?
(AOM 14-10-10-5)
It provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation and engine start, when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available. Installed only in the right wing tank.
What is the maximum fuel imbalance? When does the EICAS message appear for an imbalance?
(SOPM 2-4.3, AOM 14-10-10-8)
At 800 lbs the EICAS CAUTION message FUEL IMBALANCE is displayed.
When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 100 lbs, the EICAS ADVISORY message FUEL EQUAL - XFEED OPEN is displayed.
What happens when you move the cross feed switch to the LOW 1(2) position?
(AOM 14-10-10-6)
- Setting the crossfeed selector knob to the LOW 1 position opens the crossfeed valve and activates the AC PUMP 2, feeding both engines from wing tank 2.
- Setting the crossfeed selector knob to the LOW 2 position opens the crossfeed valve and activates the AC PUMP 1, feeding both engines from wing tank 1.
During single engine operations, how would the pilot correct a fuel imbalance situation?
Enroute put XFEED knob on LOW 1(2) so fuel feeds from the nonoperating engine tank and before you land, because you cannot land with XFEED ON, turn XFEED OFF.
When should you declare minimum fuel? Emergency fuel?
(SOPM 5-1.2)
- Minimum 2,250 lb; Emergency 1,500 lb
- Minimum fuel provides 45 min of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE, green dot, clean.
- Emergency fuel provides 30 min of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE, green dot, clean.
- The fuel indicators turn amber when fuel in the respective tank drops below 1,320 lb (2,640 lb total).
When will the FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message extinguish?
(AOM 14-10-10-8)
When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 100 lbs, the EICAS ADVISORY message FUEL EQUAL - XFEED OPEN is displayed, indicating that there is no wings fuel imbalance condition and the crossfeed valve is open.
