2017 KV Flashcards
1
Q
What are you report times prior to departure?
- domestic
- international
A
- domestic: 45mins
- international: 1hr
2
Q
When are you required to report to the aircraft?
A
FOM 4-16
35min prior
3
Q
What is your Max flight time you may be scheduled for or accept if your report time is between 0500 - 1959?
A
FOM 4-6
- 9hrs
0000-0459: 8hrs
0500-1959: 9hrs
2000-2359: 8hrs
4
Q
Does an extension of the flight duty period require concurrence from PIC? If so, how is this done?
A
FOM 4-10
Yes, PIC concurrence with the FDP extension is required to confirm that the PIC/SIC are legal to operate into the FDP extension
PIC demonstrates concurrence by initializing ACARS with password or signing manual manifest prior to T/O.. or calling OCC supervisor at 435.634.3939 ext: 43939
5
Q
When a report time is modified due to a late arrival at an overnight station must the PIC do anything? True/false
A
FOM 4-9
PIC coordinates with crew support to determine a report time
True
6
Q
True or False. Prior to boarding an aircraft each crewmember must have their identity checked.
A
FOM 4-16
-True
One of the following must verify crewmember identification by reference to their employee ID and the Crew Trip Log, dispatch release or any electronic means available that validates the crewmember’s assigned flight:
• Any Skywest employee or representative authorized to ground handle Skywest flights
• Any other crewmember not assigned to the same flight
• The ID verification applies prior to gaining access to the aircraft unless one crewmember remains onboard
• The PIC may not verify Crewmembers assigned to their flight
7
Q
Name two different documents that can be used to verify the crews identity prior to boarding the aircraft.
A
(FOM 4-16)
Crewmember identification is done by reference to:
- employee ID and the Crew Trip Log
- dispatch release or any electronic means available that validates the crewmember’s assigned flight.
8
Q
Can the captain of the flight verify the crews ID for the purposes of boarding the aircraft?
A
(FOM 4-16)
No. The PIC may not verify crewmembers assigned to their flight
9
Q
When is a spare set of corrective lenses required for flight operations?
A
(FOM 4-17)
International operations.
Suggested for all other operations.
10
Q
Is an FCC Restricted Radiotelephone Operators permit required for domestic operations?
A
(FOM 4-17)
No, only required for international operations
11
Q
Are you required to carry a flashlight in good working condition for all flight operations?
A
(FOM 4-17)
Yes, Required Flight Items: 1. Pilot's certificate (temporary only 48 states) 2. Medical certificate 3. Company ID badge 4. Flashlight 5. Headset 6. Flight bag for EFB 7. Current Jeppesen Airway Manual, FOM, and SOPM
Required International Flight Items:
- Spare Corrective lenses
- FCC Radio License
- Passport
12
Q
Who would you report a lost medical certificate to at then beginning of your shift?
A
(FOM 4-18)
Contact Crew Support and request issuance of the required proof of certificate (airman or medical). Crew support provides the pilot a copy of the Crew Qualification as proof of certification, temporary is good for 72 hours.
13
Q
What documentation should a SkyWest pilot present to the PIC in order to occupy the jumpseat? Pilot from another airline?
A
(FOM 5-20)
a. SkyWest pilot:
1. Airline ID
2. Pilot Certificate
3. boarding pass
b. Other airline employee:
1. Airline ID (verify pilot/ dispatcher)
2. Medical certificate (offline pilots only)
3. FAA pilot/ dispatcher certificate
4. boarding pass (verifying name matches airline ID and CASS approved)
14
Q
What items should be included in a briefing to an observer occupying the jumpseat?
A
Emergency equipment: (Jumpseat Briefing Card) 1. oxygen mask 2. emergency exits and escape rope, 3. how to operate jumpseat & flight deck door 4. sterile cockpit 5. life vest 6. seatbelt 7. headsets and interphone 8. duties of jumpseater in an emergency
15
Q
Can pilots occupy the jumpseat on an international flight?
A
(FOM 5-18)
- FAA Aviation Safety Inspector
- DOD air carrier evaluator who is checking or observing flight operations
- SkyWest check airman performing duties as a check airman (must be previously assigned the flight and listed on the dispatch release)
16
Q
What is the minimum crew oxygen pressure for an observer?
A
(SOPM 4-2.11) "Green Gauge" MFD Status page: - Green: 3 Crewmembers - Cyan: 2 Crewmembers (no jumpseat) - Amber: requires servicing
17
Q
What resource would you use to determine if an observer is eligible for the jumpseat?
A
- Jumpseat Briefing card
- Admission to the Flight Deck FOM 5-18
- Flight Deck Jumpseat Priority PPM 3026.1
18
Q
Are the Skywest Airlines Chairman or CEO or COO authorized to ride in the jumpseat? Does their name need to be included on the flight release?
A
(PPM 3026.2)
Yes. Yes.
1. Current Skywest Company photo ID
2. Dispatch release: Skywest OCC must add the name of the Skywest official to the dispatch release.
19
Q
Do on-duty SkyWest mechanics proceeding to or from a scheduled work assignment require a FO-2 “authorization form” to occupy the jumpseat?
A
(FOM 5-19)
Yes.
- Form FO-2: The Vice President Flight Operations, Vice President Maintenance, Director Quality Assurance, Director Flight Operations/ Company Chief Pilot, or Director Aircraft Operations will send authorization for flight deck access.
- Verify Company photo ID
- Mechanic Certificate.
20
Q
What credential will an FAA Aviation Safety Inspector present to the PIC to obtain free and uninterrupted access to the flight deck?
A
(FOM 5-23)
- Form 110A.
- ASI completes Form 8430-13 in the presence of the gate agent.
- the FAA Inspector Badge is not required to be shown.
21
Q
True or False? The Form 110A has a blue text background, vertical orientation, an expiration date and the credential number.
A
(FOM 5-23)
- True
22
Q
True or False? Positive verification in CASS is required for jumpseaters?
A
(PPM 3026.6)
True.
- All pilots, including SkyWest pilots, requesting access to a cockpit observer’s jumpseat must be verified as eligible in CASS.
23
Q
What is the dress code for the jumpseat occupant?
A
Business casual
24
Q
True or False? The jumpseat briefing must include the use of the seat belts, oxygen masks and headset utilization.
A
(PPM 3026.5)
True
25
True or False? FAA inspectors engaged in checking flight operations will take priority over revenue passengers.
(PPM 3026.5)
True
26
True or False? Pilots who cannot be verified in CASS are still eligible to occupy an available passenger cabin seat.
(PPM 3026.6)
True
27
True or False? At an intermediate stop, when the observer seat is occupied, the captain must ensure the inbound station is notified.
(PPM 3026.5)
True, and whether they will remain onboard.
28
True or False? The company jumpseat pilot specifically limits the number of jumpseaters to the number of actual jumpseats installed in the aircraft.
(PPM 3026.1)
False:
The company jumpseat policy specifically limits the number of jumpseaters per flight to the number of actual jumpseats installed in the aircraft.
*BUT additional jumpseaters on a given flight may be admitted at the discretion of the captain- provided seats are available in the cabin and other revenue or non-revenue passengers are not affected.
29
True or False? The jumpseat priority list applies to the observer seat only.
(PPM 3026.1)
True
After the observer seat is filled, priority numbers 7-12 are cleared as they appear on:
- Departure Management (DM): BP11
- Airport standby list (ASL): S4
- Higher classification requires Non-rev ticket
30
True or False? Skywest Airlines pilots maintain priority over all jumpseat requests until 15 minutes prior to scheduled departure time.
(PPM 3026.1)
True,
However, agents will make every to accommodate ALL jumpseat requests regardless of scheduled departure time
31
Where do we find the BOW weight?
On the can or the release
Crewmember weights are included in BOW and includes personal flight equipment.
CRJ / ERJ Pilot 215 = 185 + 30
CRJ / ERJ FA 183 = 143 + 10 + 30
32
What is the standard passenger weight for today's flight? For an Adult? A Child?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
Summer Weights (May 1 - Oct 31)
- Adult (13 years and older): 190 lb
- Child (2 years to less than 13 years): 82 lb
- Infant (0 to less than 2 years) 0 lb
Winter Weights (Nov 1 - Apr 30)
- Adult (13 years and older) 195 lb
- Child (2 years to less than 13 years) 87 lb
- Infant (0 to less than 2 years) 0 lb
33
What is the standard bag weight?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
- 30 lbs
34
How much does a heavy bag weigh?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
- 60 lbs
35
Is the weight of a planeside checked bag different than a carry on?
(W&B Manual 3-10)
- Planeside-loaded/carry-on baggage: 30 lbs
- Carry-on baggage and/or personal item properly stowed in aircraft passenger cabin: 0 lbs
Items that cannot be properly stowed in an overhead bin, underneath a seat, or secured in an empty seat must be tagged with a planeside-loaded/carry-on tag. The item now becomes a planeside-loaded bag and placed in the cargo bin/pit must be accounted for on the CLR. It now weighs 30 lbs
36
What does a ticketed cabin bag weigh?
(W&B Manual 4-2)
- Weight of a child:
Summer 82 lb, Winter 87 lb
Ticketed cabin baggage must not exceed 165 lbs
37
What is the weight of a Flight Deck Observer?
(W&B Manual 3-11)
Flight deck observer weights are 190 lb and include one carry-on and one personal item when stowed in the passenger cabin
38
Max ramp weight?
85,870
39
Max takeoff weight?
85,517
40
Max zero fuel weight?
69,886
41
Max Landing weight?
74,957
42
Max FWD cargo weight?
3,306 (look on release, varies per carrier)
43
Max aft cargo weight?
2,535 (Look on release, varies per carrier)
44
What cargo restrictions do we have on the aft cargo bay?
(AOM 14-2-15-3)
No pets, no dry ice.
The ECS provides ventilation for live animals in the forward cargo bay. This system contains a fan on the side of the bay which provides underfloor recirculating air into the bay.
45
Where must the pilots stow their baggage when flying a non-revenue flight without passengers?
(W&B Manual 3-6, FOIB 060316-1)
Crewmember baggage stowed in the cabin must be evenly distributed throughout the Coach/Economy cabin.
Crewmember carry-on baggage must not be stowed in the First Class cabin.
Crewmember roller bags may be stored in any approved location and do not need to be replaced in the cargo bin by an equal number of passenger carry-on bags or ballast.
46
What does the acronym MFPTW stand for? Does it include any takeoff/climb limits?
MAXIMUM FLIGHT PLAN TAKEOFF WEIGHT
every limitation minus MrTOW, cannot calculate MRTOW yet cause you didn't tell you a runway yet
47
What does PCFA stand for?
(W&B Manual 2-12)
Passenger Carrying Firearm.
Defined as a United States (U.S.) civil law enforcement officer or agent, military law enforcement officer, or official or employee of a municipality, county, state, or federal government who is authorized to carry a weapon.
48
True or False, live animals must be noted on the CLR?
(W&B Manual 4-9)
True.
The flight crew is notified via the CLR of all live animals, authorized DG/HM COMAT, motorized mobility aid batteries, UN3373, dry ice, or other pertinent items loaded in the cargo bin/pit.
49
True or False, cabin check baggage must have one or more handles which allows the seat belt to go through the handle(s) and secure the baggage to the seat?
(W&B Manual 3-8)
True.
Passenger is responsible for securing the item into the seat.
50
What is the standard weight of service animals and cabin pets?
(W&B Manual 3-8)
0 lbs.
Cabin Pets - Considered as the passenger’s carry-on item allowance. No weight is assigned when carried in the aircraft passenger cabin.
Passenger assist (service animals) and emotional support animals - Not considered as the passenger's carry-on or personal item allowance. 0 lbs is assigned when carried in the aircraft passenger cabin.
51
What is the minimum altitude a turn can be made in IMC?
(Performance Handbook 2.1)
1,000' AFE
No turns will be made below 1,000' AFE when takeoff weather is less than 1,000' ceiling and 3 SM visibility
- unless a Special Departure Procedure prescribes otherwise or the assigned instrument departure procedure specifically requires a turn before 1,000' AFE.
52
Is it mandatory that pilots fly a simple-special procedure in IMC? VMC?
(Performance Handbook 2.2)
- Yes, mandatory in IMC. In IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with the special procedure until 3,000' AFE at which time you may proceed on course.
- Mandatory in VMC until 1000' AFE.
53
Is it mandatory that pilots fly a complex-special procedure in IMC? VMC?
(Performance Handbook 2.2)
Yes, they are mandatory under both IMC and VMC (Fly the whole procedure).
54
When would you consider a runway to be wet for performance reasons?
(Performance Handbook 2.3)
FOIB: dispatch defaults wet performance unless confirmed dry and added in remarks
>25% rwy surface area covered by visible dampness or water 1/8in (3mm) or less in depth
A runway is wet when it is neither dry or contaminated
55
When is a runway considered contaminated?
(Performance Handbook 2.3)
When more than 25% of the runway surface area within the length and the width being used, is covered by frost, ice, any depth of snow or slush, or more than 1/8 in (3 mm) water.
56
When are reduced thrust takeoffs prohibited?
(SOPM 4-7.3)
1. contaminated runways
2. windshear: reported or forecast
3. special departure procedure specifies full thrust for takeoff
57
Is a runway with patchy thin ice or snow considered contaminated?
No. Patchy is a surface that has 25% or less of the surface covered by snow, ice,
58
Performance data is valid for what range of temperatures on the release?
(Performance Handbook 2.7)
The takeoff report is valid when the actual OAT is no less than POAT -10 degrees C. If the dispatcher planned a POAT of 25C then the report is valid if the actual OAT is no lower than 15C. Can go above temperature but cannot go above release MT.
59
Performance data is valid for what range of QNH values?
(Performance Handbook 2.7)
The takeoff report is valid when the actual QNH is no less than .10" below PQNH. For example if the dispatcher planned for a QNH of 29.82" then the report is valid if the actual QNH is no lower than 29.72." A new takeoff report is never required when the actual QNH exceeds the planned QNH, but additional uplift capability may be gained.
60
If your takeoff weight exceeds the weight listed under the "PTOW PLUS 1000" column what would you do?
(Performance Handbook 2.11)
- Get a new release with larger numbers but cannot exceed MFPTOW.
- Actual takeoff weight must be less than or equal to the MTOW displayed.
- If actual takeoff weight is greater than MTOW proceed to the next applicable takeoff performance section, if available.
61
Are we permitted to takeoff with a tailwind? If so, is your release performance data valid?
(SOPM 2-3.1, Performance Handbook 2.11)
Yes, the max tailwind is 15 kts.
The release takeoff performance sections are based on calm winds. Unless specifically noted in the section title, use of this data is not allowed for takeoff with a tailwind. Sections may be used for headwind conditions.
62
If weather conditions require the pilot to program REF A/I to "ALL" in the MCDU, the remarks sections states "ENGINE ANTI-ICE ON" only, are you able to use performance data?
No. You have to get new release numbers.
63
If the flex N1 value on the EICAS is below the calculated release value by more than 0.5% what would you do?
(SOPM 4-3.5)
- After the second engine start, verify the EICAS N1 target value is not below and no more than .5% greater than the ACARS or release N1 value. For example, if the ACARS/ release N1 value is 90.0 then the N1 target on the EICAS must be 90.0 to 90.5.
- A value outside of this range is an indication of a disagreement between OAT used to calculate the ACARS/ release N1 and that sensed by the engines or a mechanical problem.
- It should be corrected by reducing the flex assumed temperature or updating the takeoff performance numbers with the current OAT through ACARS or by CONTACTING DISPATCH
- If this is unsuccessful takeoff should not be attempted.
64
During a single-engine missed approach, would you fly the published missed approach procedure or wait until 1,000 AFE to commence a turn?
Fly the published missed approach but in heading mode so you have bank protection... this is not a SE departure procedure.. this is a MISSED APPROACH
65
Where would you find LAHSO landing distance information?
(SOPM 4-10.12)
- Jepp 10-9A
- ATC is responsible for providing available landing distance via ATIS, published U.S. Terminal procedures or the special notices section of the Airport/Facility Directory.
You cannot accept a LAHSO when:
- Weather is less than 1,000 ft and 3 miles or or 1,500 ft and 5 miles no PAPI/ VASI
- Windshear was reported in the last 20 min
- Tailwind on the LAHSO runway is greater than 3 kt
- Prohibited on wet runways
- Night LAHSO is only approved where LAHSO night lighting system is installed and operational
- No MEL item may exist affecting the stopping capability of the airplane
- LAHSO clearance cannot be accepted below 1,000 ft AGL on final approach
- You must have the required minimum LAHSO landing distance from chart from the SOPM
66
Why is it important that only displays 2 and 3 are showing on initial power-up?
Indicates the logic is working correctly so that if you were in electrical emergency only 2 and 3 would work and no extra power would draw. If other screens come up on power up then the system is not functioning as normal.
- Contact MX
67
Why must battery voltage be checked before applying AC power?
To check to see if you have enough battery power or if you need to charge it, once you add AC power the batteries will no longer show batteries only it shows system power level.
Need to ensure max charge in the event of an emergency.
68
If battery 1 is showing 22.5 volts and battery 2 indicates 21.4 volts, what action must the pilot take?
(SOPM 4-1.8)
- Charge the batteries before departure according to the chart in the SOPM.
- If one or both battery voltage levels is less than 22.5 volts determine the lowest battery voltage. For battery voltage between 21.0-22.5 recharge the batteries prior to takeoff through any AC source for 30-50 min based on battery temperature from the chart.
If less than 21.0 call MX
69
What is the purpose of charging the batteries prior to takeoff?
(AOM 14-5-15-2)
To ensure that you have enough power in transition to RAT during electrical failure.
In an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY, while the RAT is not fully deployed and also if the RAT stall speed is reached, the batteries supply essential loads for 10 min.
70
What should the pilot check prior to conducting a fire panel test? Why?
(SOPM 4-1.9)
Verify there are no FIRE FAIL protection messages displayed on EICAS after power up.
If there was something that was failed the test wouldn't be able to run properly
71
Describe the items associated with a successful fire test on the overhead panel.
(AOM 14-7-30-1, SOPM 4-1.9)
When the TEST button on the fire protection panel is pressed it initiates:
AURAL:
Fire Bell warnings sound
LIGHTS:
1. Master WARNING lights flash
2. Fire extinguisher handles illuminate steady
3. CARGO SMOKE FWD and AFT fire extinguishing buttons illuminate steady
4. APU fire extinguishing button
5. Upper half of APU EMERG STOP button illuminates
```
EICAS: (5 messages)
ENG 1 FIRE
ENG 2 FIRE
APU FIRE
CRG AFT SMOKE
CRG FWD SMOKE
```
EICAS INDICATIONS:
The FIRE warning light on the ITT indicators illuminate
SYSTEM CONFIGURATIONS:
The forward cargo compartment fan turns off
The cargo compartment ventilation outflow valve closes, only when bleed air is being provided by the engines or the APU
If the Fire Detection Test button is pressed for 10 seconds, the APU will shutdown
72
How do you determine if the AC power supplied by the GPU is within proper limits?
(AOM 14-5-10-3)
Once the GPU is connected and power quality requirements (voltage, amperage, frequency) are within limits, an AVAIL light illuminates on the GPU button.
73
Upon establishing AC power on the aircraft, what test should automatically start?
(SOPM 4-1.12)
The Electrical PBIT is automatically performed when an initial AC source is introduced.
- Allow the E-PBIT to finish before turning on any hydraulic pumps.
- Interruption of the E-PBIT may result in a FLIGHT CONTROL NO DISPATCH message.
- The test is interrupted when: any hydraulic pump is running, the FCM panel switches are cycled or AC power is interrupted.
74
Is the electrical PBIT required to complete every flight?
No, only when it is expired
75
When do the amber IDG lights illuminate?
(AOM 14-5-10)
- High oil temp and low oil pressure. When the IDG oil pressure drops below 140 PSI +/- 25 PSI or the IDG oil temperature reaches 335F +/- 10F (168C +/- 5C) the EICAS message IDG 1(2) OIL is displayed and an amber led illuminates near the IDG selector knob on the overhead panel.
- Can be manually disconnected by moving knob to DISC. Automatic IDG disconnection occurs when manual disconnection is not performed and the IDG oil temperature reaches 366F (185.6C).
- It cannot be reconnected in both cases.
76
With the GPU switch pushed in and reading "AVAIL" what buses are being powered?
(AOM 14-5-10-3, AOM 14-5-40)
- If the button is pushed in and using the GPU it would read IN USE. It is pushed in and reading AVAIL so you are using engine or APU power.
```
- Whether you are on Engine or APU power the buses powered ON are the same:
AC BUS 1
AC BUS 2
AC ESS BUS
AC STANDBY BUS
DC BUS 1
DC BUS 2
DC ESS BUS 1
DC ESS BUS 2
DC ESS BUS 3
HOT BATT BUS 1
HOT BATT BUS 2
```
77
The IDG's are capable of supplying how much power to the electrical system?
AOM 14-5-10-1
Both IDGs and the APU are rated at 40kVA, 115VAC, 400Hz, three phase.
78
Why is the switch position for Battery 2 labeled "AUTO" instead of "ON?"
(AOM 14-5-15-1, AOM 14-5-40)
- Battery 2 has logic associated with it, it disconnects and supplies power to the APU START BUS during APU start.
- During APU Starting: Battery 1 powers DC ESS BUS 1 2 and 3, AC STANDBY BUS and HOT BATT BUS 1; Battery 2 powers APU START BUS and HOT BATT BUS 2
79
If Battery 2 is inoperative, is there any way to start the APU?
(AOM 14-5-15-3)
- Yes, DC GPU can replace Battery 2 to power the APU START BUS when Battery 2 is unavailable or Battery 2 temperature is below -20C.
- DC GPU provides 28 VDC power to the APU START BUS.
80
What kind of batteries are installed on the ERJ?
(AOM 14-5-15-2)
2 x 24V SLAB (Sealed Lead Acid Battery)
They are charged by any AC source through the TRUs.
81
What is the total fuel capacity on the ERJ?
(SOPM 2-4.3)
20,935 lb
82
Is the usable fuel quality any different if the aircraft is gravity refueled?
(AOM 14-10-10)
No.
83
Can the aircraft be refueled without AC power?
(AOM 14-10-10-11)
Yes, pressurized refueling can be done by battery power (DC HOT BATT BUS 2). Or you could gravity/ over wing fill the tanks.
84
What is the purpose of the DC fuel pump?
(AOM 14-10-10-5)
It provides pressurized fuel for normal APU operation and engine start, when AC power or the AC fuel pump is not available. Installed only in the right wing tank.
85
What is the maximum fuel imbalance? When does the EICAS message appear for an imbalance?
(SOPM 2-4.3, AOM 14-10-10-8)
794.
At 800 lbs the EICAS CAUTION message FUEL IMBALANCE is displayed.
When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 100 lbs, the EICAS ADVISORY message FUEL EQUAL - XFEED OPEN is displayed.
86
What happens when you move the cross feed switch to the LOW 1(2) position?
(AOM 14-10-10-6)
- Setting the crossfeed selector knob to the LOW 1 position opens the crossfeed valve and activates the AC PUMP 2, feeding both engines from wing tank 2.
- Setting the crossfeed selector knob to the LOW 2 position opens the crossfeed valve and activates the AC PUMP 1, feeding both engines from wing tank 1.
87
During single engine operations, how would the pilot correct a fuel imbalance situation?
Enroute put XFEED knob on LOW 1(2) so fuel feeds from the nonoperating engine tank and before you land, because you cannot land with XFEED ON, turn XFEED OFF.
88
When should you declare minimum fuel? Emergency fuel?
(SOPM 5-1.2)
- Minimum 2,250 lb; Emergency 1,500 lb
- Minimum fuel provides 45 min of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE, green dot, clean.
- Emergency fuel provides 30 min of fuel endurance based upon 1,500 ft AFE, green dot, clean.
- The fuel indicators turn amber when fuel in the respective tank drops below 1,320 lb (2,640 lb total).
89
When will the FUEL IMBALANCE EICAS message extinguish?
(AOM 14-10-10-8)
When the wings fuel imbalance reduces to 100 lbs, the EICAS ADVISORY message FUEL EQUAL - XFEED OPEN is displayed, indicating that there is no wings fuel imbalance condition and the crossfeed valve is open.
90
If the engines burn fuel evenly, what is the most likely way of getting into a fuel imbalance condition?
1. Fuel leak
2. On the ground with the APU running
3. On the ground during one engine running
4. During high/low wing attitudes
5. During primary flight control surface deflections by the autopilot
91
Why do we use the term cross feed and not crossflow?
We are not feeding the tanks we are feeding the engines. The system uses a crossfeed valve and an AC pump to transfer the fuel, feeding both engines from the respective ACMP, as opposed to a gravity fed flow system.
92
Is it possible to get the FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL warning message and not be in a low fuel condition?
(AOM 14-10-10-10)
Yes.
- Each wing tank has a dedicated Fuel Low Level sensor located in the collector box.
- The Fuel Low Level sensor is independent of the fuel quantity indication system.
- Whenever the fuel level in the Collector Box is below the sensor level, it sends a fuel low level signal to the system triggering the FUEL LO LEVEL warning EICAS message.
- Under normal conditions, the Low level warning activation point is set at 660 lbs of fuel in the associate wing tank.
- If any scavenge pumps stop transferring fuel to the Collector Box, which might be caused by an engine failure, loss of motive flow, or scavenge pump failure/blockage, the fuel in the Collector Box flows out so that the fuel contained in the Collector Box and the rest of the tank reaches the same level.
- Under this condition, if there is up to about 3970 lbs of fuel inside that tank is it possible that the level equivalent to the low level warning activation point will be reached as the fuel level inside the Collector Box decreases, then FUEL 1(2) LO LEVEL warning EICAS is displayed indicating that the fuel level is below the low level sensor.
93
When do the emergency lights come on automatically?
(AOM 14-1-40-12)
In ARM mode the emergency lights are activated automatically when the airplane loses its normal AC electrical power.
94
How long do the emergency lights remain illuminated?
(AOM 14-1-40-12)
The charge of the batteries is sufficient to supply all emergency lights for about 10 mins.
95
How are the emergency lights charged?
(AOM 14-1-40-12)
The internal emergency lights are powered by four dedicated Emergency Lights Power Units (ELPU) with internal batteries connected to the DC BUS 1.
Internal emergency lights comprise the exit locator signs, exit marker signs, exit identifier signs, cabin/ cockpit emergency floodlights and the passage way emergency exit floodlights.
96
How do you initiate a hydraulic PBIT?
(AOM 14-8-10-8)
- Turn ON all hydraulic pumps. The Hydraulic PBIT is performed automatically, only on the ground when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized.
- The Hydraulic PBIT does not rerun in case of momentary loss of hydraulic validity or hydraulic pressure on a single hydraulic system. To rerun the Hydraulic PBIT all three hydraulic systems must be depressurization and then pressurized.
97
List the ways in which a hydraulic PBIT can be interrupted?
(AOM 14-8-10-8)
The test takes 1 minute to complete and will be interrupted if any flight control surface is moved while the test is in progress.
98
What temperature will inhibit the hydraulic PBIT? Why?
(AOM 14-8-10-8, FOIB 102416-1)
- The Hydraulic PBIT is not performed if the temperatures within the hydraulic reservoir are colder than 10C (50F).
- At low temperatures within the hydraulic reservoirs the Hydraulic PBIT may incorrectly detect a failure in a fully functioning actuator. This can be due to high viscosity of the hydraulic fluid high can result in a slow response from the sensors. This situation can result in a spurious FLT CTRL NO DISPATCH.
- The test is not inhibited when FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED. So, a hydraulic PBIT may result in a spurious FLT CTRL NO DISPATCH due to cold temperatures/high fluid viscosity when 50 hours has expired.
- To prevent this, Embraer recommends pilots ensure a min of 25 hours remain on the Hydraulic PBIT at the end of LFOD. Pilots shall let test run after start on LFOD or initiate a test after shutdown following LFOD.
99
When is a hydraulic warm up test required?
(SOPM 4-1.14)
The Hydraulic Systems Warm-Up must be accomplished before starting the engines when reservoir temperatures are below -18C.
100
What is the purpose of the PTU?
(AOM 14-11-10-5)
- The PTU consists of a hydraulic pump in Hydraulic System 2 driven by a hydraulic motor installed in Hydraulic System 1.
- The PTU assists the landing gear retraction or extension, should a right engine or right EDP failure occur.
- During takeoff and landing with the selector know in AUTO the system automatically activates the PTU if the engine 2 or EDP 2 fails.
- The PTU will automatically start when all are met:
- Flaps are not set to zero or landing gear not up and locked
- EDP 1 not failed
- Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity is above 12%
101
What is the EICAS message associated with a hydraulic PBIT?
(AOM 14-8-45-5)
FLT CTRL BIT EXPIRED: 50 hours or more since last PBIT was activated
FLT CTRL NO DISPATCH: one of the components in the flight control system has failed to a no-go condition
FLT CTRL FAULT: one of the components has failed
FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG: PBIT in progress
102
When will the engine driven hydraulic pump shutoff valves automatically close?
(AOM 14-11-10-1)
At hydraulic fluid temperature of 125C
- 100C: When the hydraulic fluid temperature increases to 100C, the HYD1 HI TEMP EICAS caution message is displayed.
- 125C: If the fluid temperature reaches 125C, the shutoff valve (SOV) automatically actuates, isolating the EDP 1 from the respective hydraulic flow line.
- 145+C: If the fluid temperature is above 145C, a hydraulic system overheat, the HYD 1 OVERHEAT EICAS warning message is displayed. In this case, the SOV can be manually commanded.
103
How is normal hydraulic pressure, temperature and quality determined during the Originating Checklist?
(SOPM 4-1.35)
Check the Hydraulic Synoptic page on the MFD. Verify hydraulic fluid temperature, quantity and pressure by turning HYDRAULIC SYS 1, 2 and 3A ON. Perform the warm-up when reservoir temperature is below -18C. Perform the PBIT when required.
104
When must a hydraulic PBIT be completed without interruption?
(SOPM 4-1.13, FOIB 102416-1)
- When the test is expired.
- Embraer recommends pilots ensure a min of 25 hours remain on the Hydraulic PBIT at the end of LFOD. Pilots shall let test run after start on LFOD or initiate a test after shutdown following LFOD to avoid a spurious FLT CTRL NO DISPATCH due to cold temperatures/high fluid viscosity when 50 hours has expired.
105
How is landing elevation set?
(AOM 14-2-20-4, AOM 14-2-5-5)
- Automatic operation with FMS DATA: Landing field elevation is retrieved from the FMS data base after the input of a destination on the active flight plan. In this case the landing field elevation on EICAS is green.
- Automatic operation without FMS DATA: If not available from the FMS data base, the LFE must be manually selected on the pressurization panel. In this case the LFE is shown in cyan. A default value of 8000 ft is used if no input is made on LFE.
- PRESSURIZATION MODE SELECTOR knob must be selected to LFE CTRL and then the LFE knob you can move UP or DOWN in 100 ft increments.
106
How many outflow values are installed on the aircraft?
(AOM 14-2-20-1)
One cabin outflow valve that modulates airflow from the pressurized cabin into the surrounding environment. It can be modulated automatically or manually.
107
What are the negative and positive pressurization limits?
(AOM 14-2-20-2, SOPM 2-4.4)
- Negative Pressure Relief Valve: -.5 psi. The negative pressure relief valve opens if differential pressure between cabin and surrounding environment exceeds -.5 psi.
- Positive Pressure Relief Valve: 8.6 psi. In case of outflow valve failure, the positive pressure relief valve opens if the pressure differential between cabin and surrounding environment exceeds 8.6 psi.
```
Up to 37,000 ft... 7.8 psi
Above 37,000 ft... 8.34 psi
Max Diff Over Pressure... 8.77 psi
Max Diff Neg Pressure... -.5 psi
Max Diff Press T/O Land... .2 psi
```
108
Give a reason why you would be required to push the DUMP button without QRH guidance?
(QRC)
During Smoke Evacuation Memory Item
109
What is the memory item for Smoke Evacuation? Smoke/Fire/Fumes?
(QRC)
Smoke Evacuation:
Oxygen Masks... Don, EMER
Crew Communication... Establish
Pressurization Dump... Push In
Smoke/Fire/Fumes:
Oxygen masks... Don, 100%
Crew Communication... Establish
110
What happens when you press the DUMP button?
(AOM 14-2-5-4)
- Provides rapid depressurization, by opening the outflow valve and commanding the packs and recirculating fans to off.
- Cabin altitude raises to 12,400 at 2000fpm
- then outflow valve closes and cabin leaks naturally
- When pressed in manual mode the outflow valve will not be commanded open.
111
What is the maximum altitude for single pack operations
(SOPM 2.3.1)
31,000 ft
112
What do the amber indications on the bleed push buttons indicate?
(AOM 14-2-5-3)
When a leak is detected, the button amber striped bar is illuminated.
113
Are we permitted to use high pressure external air and the APU simultaneously?
(QRH NP12-1, SOPM 2-4.3, SOPM4-3.9)
- No. It is a system limitation that simultaneous use of the APU bleed and the HP cart is prohibited. To avoid cabin air contamination, do not operate air conditioning packs while using the ground pneumatic start cart.
- The QRH directs you during an Engine Ground Pneumatic Start to push out the APU Bleed Button to close the APU Bleed Valve if the APU is in use.
114
. When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy?
(AOM 14-14-15-1)
The masks are automatically deployed when the cabin altitude is between 14000 to 14750 ft.
Manual deployment can be performed from the cockpit by positioning the passenger oxygen knob to the OVRD position.
115
. How many minutes of oxygen will the masks provide?
(AOM 14-14-15-1)
- Each Passenger Service Units (PSU) contains 3 masks that supply oxygen for about 12 min. They do not provide smoke detection and one the system starts it cannot be shutoff.
- The supplemental oxygen is diluted with ambient air according to the cabin altitude. At higher altitudes the masks provide 100% supplemental oxygen.
- Pilots 12 min at EMER, 98 min at 100%.
116
. What conditions would require the ADS probe heater switch be pressed during the preflight?
(SOPM 4-1.14, AOM 14-12-10-11)
- In the FFOD with temperatures below -18C (0F) or when the smart probes are frozen, after AC power has been established on the aircraft turn the ADSP Heater Switch ON and run the Flight Control PBIT.
- If the Flight Control PBIT doesn't run or reset to 50 hours, leave the aircraft powered for a minimum of 3 minutes with the ADSP Heater Switch ON. Then power down the aircraft, wait one minute, and power back up. The PBIT should run properly.
- After heating the ADSPs ensure there is no airspeed indication on both PFDS and all spurious AFCS and ADS EICAS messages are no longer displayed.
- If the ADSP Heater push button is pushed IN, the ADSP heating system will be powered, overriding the system logic on the ground. When the batteries are the only electrical source to the airplane, only the ADSP 3 will be heated.
117
. When does the probe heat come on automatically?
(AOM 14-12-10-11)
Each of the 4 smart ADSP and 2 TAT probes have a dedicated heater. The ADSP and TAT are heated whenever an engine is running or airborne.
118
What MCDU selection should be made with regard to anti-ice if the OAT is 3 C and 010 overcast?
(SOPM 2-4.5)
REF A/I set to ALL
119
• The TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ENG when the OAT is 5C-10C and:
When there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700 ft AFE or
When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may binges tee by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.
120
• The TO DATASET MENU on the MCDU must be set to ALL when the OAT is below 5C and:
When there is any possibility of encountering visible moisture up to 1,700 ft AFE or
When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may binges tee by the engines, or freeze on engines, nacelles or engine sensor probes.
121
If the MCDU is programmed REF A/I ALL, when will the engine anti-ice valves automatically open? Wing anti-ice valves?
(AOM 14-12-10-7)
The engine anti-ice valves are commanded open after completion of engine start and the wing anti-ice valves are commanded open with wheel speed above 40 kt.
122
If the flight crew selected REF A/I OFF and the aircraft encountered icing conditions immediately after takeoff, when would the anti-ice turn on automatically?
(AOM 14-12-10-7)
The anti-ice valves will be inhibited closed until the end of the takeoff phase, considered as 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff. After that the engine and wing anti-ice valves will be commanded open if ice is detected.
123
What are the considerations associated with a ground crew exceeding 5 knots during the pushback?
(SOPM 4-3.2)
When the pushback speed is higher than 5 kt and either hydraulic system 1 or 2 is depressurization, the autobrake automatically disarms and EICAS messages BRK LH (RH) FAULT or BRK LH (RH) FAIL display until the wheel speed is reduced to less than 5 kt, or the hydraulic systems are pressurized.
124
What is required to generate a green light during pushback?
(AOM 14-13-5-17)
- Steering disengaged though the external steering disengage switch and
- Parking brakes not applied and
- Main brakes not applied.
125
What will FADEC automatically abort for engine starts on the ground?
(AOM 14-6-30-9)
- Hung start
- Hot start
- No light off
- Overspeed protection: whenever N2 reaches 102% FADEC auto commands shutdown. If 3 consecutive over speed detection events within 30 sec the FADEC will not relight the engine.
- ITT Overtemperature protection: during engine start if the ITT reaches its limit the FADEc automatically shuts off the fuel flow aborting the start sequence. In this case the start control valve is not automatically closed and the pilot needs to close the SCV by selecting the START/STOP switch to STOP.
- Engine Start High ITT prevention: to improve the ITT control on engine ground starts the FADEC will not allow fuel flow if ITT is above 120C. When the pilot moves START/STOP SELECTOR to START the start control valve is commanded open but the fuel flow only starts when the ITT drops below 120C.
126
What is the memory item associated for an engine abnormal start?
(QRC)
Affected Engine Start/ Stop Selector... STOP
127
What are the starter duty cycles on the ground?
(SOPM 2-4.2)
motoring plus start time
1, 2: 90 sec on, 10 sec off
3-5: 90 sec on, 5 min off
In Flight:
1, 2: 120 sec on, 10 sec off
3-5: 120 sec on, 5 min off
128
What conditions would justify dry motoring an engine?
If you had a hot start or some other start malfunction and you wanted to lower the ITT before a subsequent start.
1: 90 sec on, 5 min off
2-5: 30 sec on, 5 min off
After 5 sequential motoring cycles the process may be repeated after 15 minutes.
129
Provide at least two considerations with respect to cold weather engine starts.
- Don't start the engine until verified that N1 fan is free to rotate and all ice deposits are removed from the air inlet.
- Oil temp: during start with low oil temps, the oil pressure may drop below minimum oil pressure levels temporarily after start. When it remains below for more than 2 minutes the engine must be shut down and the oil heated.
- The oil is raised to -20C to improve chances of a successful start.
- During the start, after heating the oil, when the oil pressure doesn't recover the engine must be shut down.
- Oil pressure: during cold weather starts, initial oil pressure response may be slow. As the engine accelerates, the oil pressure may rapidly increase than exceed the normal range. The high oil pressure progressively reduces to normal as the engine achieves normal operating temp.
- When oil pressure is not indicated by the time idle RPM is achieved, conduct an immediate shutdown.
- IDG: expect the generators to be slow in producing steady power due to cold oil in the IDGs. Five minutes may be required for the IDGs to stabilize sufficiently.
130
Which engine do we normally start if we plan a single engine tax? Why?
AOM 14-11-10 SOPM 4-3.4
Engine 1 is normally started first and used for single engine taxi. The electric hydraulic pump 2 is automatically activated when the following occurs:
- Engine 1 is running and the parking brake is released
- During Engine 1 start (once N2 reaches 40%) if the parking brake has been applied within the last 6 minutes.
- The electric hydraulic pump 2 will automatically turn off after 6 min of parking brake application.
If you chose to single engine taxi on engine 2, electric hydraulic pump 1 selector knob must be turned ON. Once engine 1 is running, turn electric hydraulic pump 1 to AUTO.
131
What is the minimum pressure required for a cross-bleed engine start? Where can this pressure be referenced?
SOPM 4-3.7
40 PSI (to 45 PSI), on status page
132
How close does the actual N1 have to be to the calculated value after engine start?
0-.5
133
Does the FADEC provide start malfunction protection in flight?
No. 14-6-20
134
What is the ITT start limitation?
815Cº
135
What thrust value would be set by FADEC if an engine failed at V1?
TO-X RSV
136
When are FLEX takeoffs prohibited?
(SOPM 4-7.3)
1. contaminated runways
2. windshear: reported or forecast
3. special departure procedure specifies full thrust
137
With the left engine and APU running, what powers the electrical system?
IDG 1, Left engine
| onside, inside, outside, cross-side
138
What conditions would preclude a single engine taxi?
(SOPM 4-5.3)
Ramp/ Taxiway surface contamination
Maneuvering room in the ramp/gate area is marginal
Taxi time to/from a runway is expected to be greater than 5 minutes
Airport specific regulations prohibit single-engine taxi
Risk of injury to personnel or damage to equipment
Also consider airplane weight, uphill slopes, time to warm up the engine, and time to the active runway.
139
During a single engine taxi with the left engine running, which hydraulic pumps are running?
1 and 2 (3A has been turned ON)
140
With the right engine running a single engine taxi, which hydraulic pumps are on?
ACMP 2, manually have to turn ON ACMP 1
141
What is the maximum taxi speed on a dry surface while taxiing straight ahead?
(SOPM 4-5.3)
30 knots
```
Maximum Taxi Speeds
Straight / Dry 30 kts
Straight / Wet or Contaminated 10 kts
Turns / Dry 10 kts
Turns / Wet or Contaminated 5 kts
```
142
What is the maximum taxi speed in a turn on a contaminated surface?
(SOPM 4-5.3)
5 knots
143
If Hydraulic Pump 3A fails on the taxi out, what is the system logic for pump 3B?
(AOM 14-11-10-7)
If the selector knob is in AUTO then pump 3B Automatically turns on when 3A fails. Electric Hydraulic Pump (ACMP) 3B is the backup for ACMP 3A. In flight, with the selector knob to AUTO, the hydraulic system logic turns on ACMP 3B whenever the ACMP 3A fails.
When the selector knob is set to ON the pump operates continuously overriding system logic. 3B only comes on automatically when in the air.
144
Assuming a single engine taxi with the APU off, will you have windshield heat?
(AOM 14-12-10-10)
No, the system only operates if there are at least 2 AC electrical sources.
Ground: when a single AC source is available each windshield heating controller performs its standard power-up BIT routine heating the corresponding windshield for 120 seconds.
In flight: in case of a single AC source in flight only the left windshield heating is powered. If the left windshield heating system fails, the right windshield heating becomes available.
145
What part of the airplane is normally used as the representative surface?
Left wing leading edge
146
What is the difference between a Pretakeoff check and a Pretakeoff contamination check?
Pretakeoff check when HOT is still good, Pretakeoff contamination check when the HOT has exceeded or in heavy snow. Takeoff must be within 5 minutes for Pretakeoff contamination check.
147
Can we depart if our holdover time has expired?
Yes, if you do Pretakeoff contamination check and the fluid has not failed and/or outside conditions have changed (except if using FAA chart in the Deicing book).
148
What does the device checklist tell ERJ crews to do with the elevator trim prior to deice?
Full nose down trim.
149
What normal checklist is delayed if Deicing is planned?
After Start Checklist
150
When are the flaps extended on the ERJ after Deicing?
Before Takeoff Checklist
151
What items does the Takeoff Configuration Test Button check to ensure the aircraft is properly configured for takeoff?
(AOM 14-15-20-1)
- Checks Flaps, Pitch trim, Parking brake, Spoilers
- Checks by simulating thrust levers in the advanced position.
- Flaps position not in agreement with the Flaps position selected in the FMS Takeoff page 2/2; NO TAKEOFF FLAPS
- Parking brakes are applied; NO TAKEOFF BRAKES
- Pitch trim is out of the green range; NO TAKEOFF TRIM
- Any spoiler panel is deployed; NO TAKEOFF SPOILER
152
What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind on a runway with compacted snow?
20 kts
153
What must the PM verify prior to calling "Thrust Checked?"
Look for green ATTCS, N1 arrow in the carrots, normal engine operation.
154
If the "F-BUG" disappears before total slat/flap retraction, what information can the pilot use to determine a minimum speed to retract the remaining slats/flaps?
Green dot, ice green dot plus 10 25.5
155
If a close-in turn is required immediately after takeoff, what is the minimum speed that can be flown? What bank protection does the pilot have with this speed?
V2+10
SE bank protection
v2: 15º
v2+5: 20º
v2 +10: 25º
156
Should an engine fail at V2 + 5 kts during takeoff, what speed will the dual cue FD command the pilot to fly?
V2 + 5 kts, present speed
157
Does RTO provide the same deceleration rate as maximum manual braking?
Yes
158
During the climb you suspect a pitch trim runaway, what would you do?
(QRC)
A/P Disc Button... Press and Hold
Pitch Trim Sys 1 & 2 Cutout Buttons... Push In
159
Give three examples of information supplied to the PFD by the Air Data System.
(AOM 14-9-10-1)
Airspeed indicator
Altimeter
Vertical speed indicator
Side slip indicator
```
Other systems:
Flight controls
IESS airspeed indicator
IESS altitude indicator
IESS vertical speed indicator
Static air temperature
Total air temperature
```
160
Provide at least two higher level functions associated with the flight controls.
(AOM 14-8-10-3)
Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed.
Auto-thrust compensation with elevator.
Angle-of-Attack (AOA) limiting with elevator offset.
Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting.
Yaw damper and turn coordination via AFCS.
Rudder flight authority.
Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speed brake deployment.
Configuration change compensation with horizontal stabilizer due to speed brakes actuation.
161
Why is FLCH the preferred mode to use during climb out?
It is the most efficient vertical mode with the highest pitch while still keeping the desired speed, it also has speed protection that VS and FPA don't have. You also have max power with FLCH.
162
What temperature information inside the flight deck would be used to determine icing conditions in flight?
TAT
163
Give three practical uses of Green Dot information on the airspeed tape:
1. Driftdown speed
2. flap retraction speed
3. flap extension speed
4. slowest holding speed.
164
What is the memory item for a Battery Over temperature?
(QRC)
Associated Battery... OFF
165
When are crews required to monitor flight time and fuel burn?
1. TOC
2. every hour
3. balancing
4. EFC time holds
166
Before attempting to balance fuel, what does the SOPM require the pilot to check first? What is the reason behind this procedure?
1. Check MFD fuel page
| 2. check for leak
167
What is the pressurization schedule for FL360? FL380?
SOPM
7.8, 8.34
168
If ATC asks you if you are able FL410 are you able to accept?
Check:
1. perf data page: limit
2. smart ci page: recommended
- not likely, unless light
169
In flight at your cruise altitude, you receive an ENG 1 FAIL caution message. Describe the required actions and callouts?
1. Set TOGA
2. AT off
3. FLCH
4. bug green dot Check thrust
5. QRC (emergency)
6. Driftdown procedures (abnormal)
170
What generates an ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message?
Total Loss of AC power
171
How long will the RAT take to deploy and latch to the AC Essential bus?
8 seconds
172
What is available in the flight deck to pilots during an electrical emergency?
Same during power up
1. Screens 2 and 3 (CA PFD and EICAS)
2. MCDU 2
3. CCD 1
4. Both audio panels
5. Caution warning lights
6. IESS
7. Emergency dome light
8. Compass dome light
173
During an electrical emergency, how can you determined the batteries are being charged?
No Batt discharging message
174
Does the RAT charge the batteries 1 and/or 2? What about the ELPUs?
Yes, yes
175
What is the maximum altitude the APU can be started?
30,000
176
What is the maximum altitude the APU is operational?
33,000
177
Will the APU automatically shut-down for a fire inflight?
No
178
What cause the CABIN ALTITUDE HI EICAS message?
Cabin pressure altitude 9700 or higher
179
What is the memory item associated with a CABIN ALTITUDE HI?
Crew oxygen masks: don, 100%
| crew communication: establish
180
Give two practical uses of the Descend Now feature in the MCDU.
1. Keeps you in VNAV and path
2. get out of bad ride
3. smooth transition to descend
4. still stay up higher longer
181
When will the speed brakes automatically retract?
1. below 180 knots
2. flaps 2
3. TLA above 60
182
On descent, the control column appears to be jammed, what should you do?
Memory Item
1. Elevator pitch disconnect handle pull
183
Give at least three requirements of a stabilized approach.
1. On speed, path
2. configured
3. thrust levers above idle
184
On a two-engine approach with Flaps 1, how many hydraulic pumps are running?
1. The ACMP pumps come on when you add flaps
| 2. on takeoff they come on for 60 sec , 5 total pumps on
185
What is the single engine approach and landing flap configuration?
Flaps 5
186
What is the maximum speed for flaps 3?
200 knots
187
On a RNAV approach, what is the minimum autopilot altitude?
MDA, unless ballnote
188
When will the pilot receive windshear escape guidance on the PFD?
windshear encounter
189
What are the PM callouts during a windshear escape maneuver?
- Climbing descending FPM: if under 1000
| - RA alt not descent rate
190
Should the PF reference the aircraft symbol or FD during windshear escape guidance?
FD
191
During a windshear escape maneuver, what configuration changes should make?
None
192
The windshear vertical mode can be a threat in itself once clear of the windshear, why?
Doesn't change back to normal mode
| PF must command FLCH
193
When does the airplane have to be fully configured and on speed for landing?
1000, VMC maneuver 500
194
When would we use Stall Protect Ice Speeds for landing?
1. Stall PROT Ice message: Ice detected
| 2. Cat II
195
What is the difference between Stall Protect Ice Speeds and CAT II approach speeds?
Same speeds
196
How do we ensure all required equipment is functioning for a CAT II approach?
CAT II approach checklist
- No amber APPR 2 message
- RA Tested for 1 RA
197
When does the APPR 2 logic first try to activate?
1500 ft - 800 ft
198
What factors affect APPR 2 logic?
1. Both in RA detent
2. cdi needles course same
3. frequency same
4. lowest RA 80
199
What are the lowest minimums for a CAT II approach (SkyWest)?
1200, 600, 300 or 1600 RVR
200
Is the approach lighting system a required part of a CAT II approach?
ALSF II sequence flashing lights can be inop
201
What is the maximum cross-wind for a CAT II approach?
15 kts
202
What type of brakes are installed on the ERJ?
Carbon
203
How do carbon brakes work most efficiently?
- Hot, steady constant application
| - no pumping
204
When will the auto throttles automatically retard upon landing? When will they not?
(AOM 14-3-20-5)
The retard mode arms when all of the following conditions occur:
1. Radio altimeter with valid information
2. Autothrottle engaged
3. Slat/flap lever position at 5 or FULL and landing gear down
4. Radio altimeter below 150 ft AGL
5. Retard mode engages at or below 30 ft
6. In a normal flare, the retard mode is scheduled to reduce thrust levers to idle so that idle thrust is achieved upon airplane touch down.
205
How should you configure the aircraft if landing on a contaminated runway?
(SOPM 4-12.8)
1. Autobrakes to MED and FULL flaps.
2. Use Autobrakes setting MED.
3. Apply Maximum reverse thrust. Do not use asymetric reverse thrust.
4. Use maximum performance landing techniques.
5. Use FULL flaps
6. Cross the threshold at screen height of 50 ft and VREF
7. Avoid extended flare
8. Apply maximum reverse thrust, when necessary can use until complete stop
9. Immediately after touch down, apply firm and steady maximum manual brakes
10. Lower nose well immediately
11. Make a firm touchdown, avoids hydroplanning on wet runways and reduces ice bond strength that can form during flight on brake and wheel assemblies.
12. Apply firm and symmetrical break pedal pressure, do not pump the brakes.
13. If the airplane loses friction, do not apply the Emergency/Parking Break as it inhibits anti-skid protection.
14. Maintain runway centerline with rudder, while maintaining firm and symmetrical braking.
• Landing with a tailwind is not recommended
206
If you had a failure of both hydraulic system 1 and 2, how would you bring the aircraft to a stop upon landing?
(AOM 14-13-20-3)
Emergency parking brake
- The emergency/parking brake system has pressure accumulators isolated from both normal hydraulic systems.
- The pressure accumulators have enough pressure for 6 full-brake applications.
- If both normal brakes fail the handle will actuate as an emergency brake.
207
What additional threats do you have when attempting to stop the aircraft using only the emergency brake?
(AOM 14-13-20-3)
No anti-skid protection
- In this case it has to be pulled carefully and slowly as there is no anti-skid protection.
- At high speeds, the deflection of the brake handle when the brake indicating light comes ON provides sufficient pressure to start braking.
- As speed decreases the required deflection increases to maintain continuous braking.
208
What is the maximum tire speed? In what scenario may this limitation be exceeded?
- 195 knots
| - emergency (Zero flap landing)
209
How would you configure the aircraft for engine anti-ice on after touchdown?
(AOM 14-12-5-2)
Turn the Ice Protection Mode Selector Knob to ON. This overrides the system logic in flight, activating the anti-ice system regardless of icing condition. It also activates the anti-ice on ground according to the system logic.
210
How long are you required to wait before shutting an engine down after landing? Does this change if thrust reversers were used?
(SOPM 4-13.3)
Run the engines at IDLE thrust for 2 minutes to allow for engine thermal stabilization before shutting down an engine. Time spent taxiing counts towards this requirement.
The 2 minutes starts after the thrust reversers, if used, are stowed back in IDLE.
211
With engine one running at the gate and external AC connected to the aircraft, what is powering the electrical system?
(AOM 14-5-40-2)
Engine IDG one and GPU powers right side
Source priority: Respective IDG > APU Generator > GPU > Opposite IDG
The GPU switch says AVAIL and Engine one is powering everything. When Engine one is turned off the GPU switch changes to IN USE and the GPU is powering everything.
212
With external ground power connected to the aircraft and after shutting down one engine, the GPU switch-light indicates "AVAIL." Why and what should be done?
Push the button, shut down engine one.
Cycle the button. If pushed in already.
One engine is still running or the APU is running and powering the system. Press the GPU switch IN, and shutdown the other engine or the APU, once the GPU takes over it will change to IN USE.
213
When are ground crews required to drain and purge the potable water system on the ERJ?
(FOIB 112116-1)
Station personnel are required to drain and purge the system in a timely manner after the last flight of the day when temperatures are 32F or 0C or colder during the RON.
214
If the system is not drained properly, what cables routed through the center fuselage might be frozen and rendered inoperative?
(FOIB 112116-1)
Aileron control cables.
Water system damage occurs when pipe fittings in the center fuselage become frozen and crack. Once these fittings begin to thaw, water may leak into the center fuselage where aileron control cables are routed. During subsequent circumstances that are conductive to freezing, the water may freeze around flight control cables
215
Who do we contact to verify whether or not the temperate dropped below 0 C during the overnight?
(FOIB 112116-1)
The OCC has the official overnight low temperatures, contact information for the assigned dispatcher is on the release.
216
Is there any paperwork associated with draining the potable water on the ERJ?
(FOIB 112116-1)
Yes, the Potable Water Draining/Purging Verification Form is placed on the captains chair for FFOD verification when temperatures were below 32F or 0C during the RON.
217
Does a fault light in the galley associated with the potable water warrant a call to MX?
(FOIB 112116-1)
Yes, call MX anytime there is a fault light, any potable water component appears to be inoperative and/or station personnel report a problem servicing the system
218
How many hours of battery life would your EFB be required to have prior to dispatch for this particular flight?
(Reference flight release for the KV)
4200 lbs release fuel for every 1 hour of battery life
219
List the only applications that may remain active during critical phases of flight on your EFB.
1. Jepp FlightDeck Pro
| 2. Company Manuals and Reader
220
What is the minimum required battery charge on your EFB at the beginning of the flight duty period?
(FOM 5-31)
80%
221
How can the pilot determine if the EFB is in good working order prior to flight?
(FOM 5-31)
1. no damage
2. no cracked screen/glass
3. no defects or other known conditions
222
Have each student verify their respective Jepp FlightDeck Pro and Company Manuals are installed and updated with the most current data.
(FOM 5-31)
1. Jepp: today marker line falls within the green bar graphic and there are no updates scheduled within FDP.
2. Company Manuals must have been synced within the previous 4 days to be considered current. The last sync date and time is depicted on the Company Manuals app, lower left of the screen.
223
True or False? Pilots are required to have their EFBs in Airplane Mode when the MCD is closed? Verify student understands how to engage Airplane Mode.
(FOM 5-32)
True. All EFBs must have Airplane mode to ON in the EFB settings for all flight operations. When theEFB supports cellular connectivity, cellular must be OFF during flight operations.
224
What would you do if you had a missing or inoperative EFB before a flight?
(FOM 5-30)
Contact SWOL > IT > EFB support to get a replacement
If problems with EFB applications, device or operating system contact IT Help Desk
If no replacement available:
a. Report to EFB Help Desk
b. Authorization to operate with one EFB provided by Flight Ops MOD
c. Pilot with no EFB obtains photocopy of all necessary terminal charts (SWOL Jepp Chart Viewer)
d. PIC decides who is PF based on which EFB is inop
e. Do not use damaged EFB during aircraft operations (block in to block out)
f. Contact EFB support to get a replacement
