2015 Flashcards
1
Q
- Pharmacokinetics
a. bioavailability (F) refers to the fraction of the dose of a drug absorbed into the systemic circulation
b. drugs with a high apparent volume of distribution (> 500ℓ) are confined to the plasma
c. a greater proportion of an acidic drug is in its unionized form in an acidic medium
d. topically administered drugs undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver
e. in first order kinetics, the rate of elimination is proportional to the plasma drug concentration
A
a. T
b. F
c. T
d. F
e. T
2
Q
- Pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics
a. the time to steady state depends on the half-life of a drug
b. drug clearance is dependent on the route of administration
c. the higher the affinity of a drug for its receptor, the greater its potency
d. a non-competitive antagonist shifts the dose response curve of the agonist to the left
e. the maximal efficacy of a drug is reduced by competitive antagonists
A
a. T. Steady state takes about 4/5 half lifes
b. F
c. F. Inversely proportional
d. F to the right
e. F. Reduced by non-competitive
3
Q
- Adrenaline
a. is an antagonist at beta-adrenoceptors
b. is used in the treatment of septic shock
c. causes tachyarrythmias as an adverse effect
d. has a positive chronotropic effect on the heart
e. is contraindicated in the treatment of anaphylaxis
A
a. F
b. F
c. T
d. T
e. F
4
Q
- Drugs acting on the parasympathetic nervous system
a. neostigmine is effective in relieving abdominal pain in patients with mechanical bowel obstruction
b. neostigmine is used to reverse non-depolarising neuromuscular blockade
c. pilocarpine increases intraocular pressure in patients with open angle glaucoma
d. prolonged use of pilocarpine is associated with tolerance with regular doses
e. atropine causes xerostomia as an adverse effect
A
a. F
b. T
c. F
d. F
e. T
5
Q
- Drugs acting on the sympathetic nervous system
a. salbutamol is a beta-2 adrenoceptor antagonist
b. doxazosin decreases total peripheral resistance
c. prolonged use of topical phenylephrine causes rebound congestion of the nasal mucosa
d. phenylephrine is used to reverse hypotension during spinal anaesthesia
e. oxymetazoline is contraindicated in the treatment of acute rhinitis
A
a. F
b. T
c. T
d. F
e. F
6
Q
- Sympathetic Nervous System
a. salbutamol causes a tremor as an adverse effect
b. propranolol is used in the prophylaxis of migraine headache
c. propranolol has an oral bioavailability of greater than 95%
d. salbutamol increases plasma glucose levels in diabetics
e. propranolol is an agonist at beta-1-adrenoceptors
A
a. T
b. T
c. F
d. T
e. F antagonist
7
Q
- Anticholinergic drugs
a. atropine causes miosis in the eye
b. ipratropium is preferred to atropine in the treatment of asthma
c. atropine has greater affinity for nicotinic receptors than muscarinic receptors
d. oxybutinin reduces the frequency of detrusor muscle contractions of the bladder
e. biperiden is contraindicated in the treatment of drug-induced acute dystonia
A
a. F. Mydriasis
b. T
c. F. Muscarinic
d. T.
e. F
8
Q
- Cardiovascular drugs and the SNS
a. adrenaline increases cAMP levels in the heart
b. alpha-methyldopa is an antagonist at alpha-1 adrenoceptors
c. propranolol increases blood flow to the fingers
d. phenylephrine is used to treat arrhythmias
e. doxazosin increases the risk of orthostatic hypotension
A
a. T
b. F. Centrally acting antihypertensivedrugs are a2-adrenoceptor agonists.
c. F
d. F
e. T
9
Q
- Mechanism of action of antihypertensives
a. amlodipine is an angiotensin receptor blocker
b. alpha-methyldopa reduces sympathetic output from the vasomotor center
c. captopril increases tissue levels of bradykinin
d. verapamil decreases entry of calcium into vascular smooth muscle
e. indapamide reduces total peripheral resistance
A
a. F. Calcium channel blocker
b. T
c. T
d. T Calcium channel blocker
e. T
10
Q
- Diuretics
a. hydrochlorothiazide increases serum uric acid levels
b. the effect of aldosterone on the collecting duct is blocked by spironolactone
c. amiloride is a potassium sparing diuretic
d. furosemide increases magnesium elimination in the kidney
e. furosemide increases NaCl reabsorption in the distal convoluted tubule
A
a. T
b. T
c. T
d. T
e. F
11
Q
- In the treatment of angina
a. nifedipine increases total peripheral resistance
b. atenolol decreases heart rate
c. glyceryl trinitrate decreases blood pressure
d. isosorbide mononitrate decreases venous capacitance
e. sublingual glyceryl trinitrate bypasses hepatic metabolism
A
a. F
b. T
c. T
d. T
e. F
12
Q
- Cardiovascular drugs
a. enalapril reduces preload in heart failure
b. valsartan is less likely than captopril to produce cough
c. verapamil decreases the concentration of calcium in myocardial cells
d. indapamide increases potassium retention
e. isosorbide mononitrate decreases nitric oxide formation in vascular smooth muscle
A
a. T
b. F. Bradykinin from ACE inhibitors cause dry cough
c. T
d. F
e. F
13
Q
- Carvedilol
a. blocks alpha -1 adrenoceptors
b. blocks the action of noradrenaline on beta-1 adrenoceptors
c. is used in patients with chronic cardiac failure
d. causes tachycardia
e. is safe to use in patients with type 1 diabetes
A
a. T
b. T
c. F
d. F
e. F
14
Q
Local anaesthetics
a. the unionized form of lignocaine crosses the neuronal membrane
b. procaine causes allergic dermatitis
c. bupivacaine is metabolised by plasma cholinesterase
d. adrenaline shortens the duration of action of lignocaine
e ropivicaine has a shorter half- life than procaine
A
a. T
b. T
c. F
d. F
e. F
15
Q
- Lignocaine
a. undergoes hepatic metabolism
b. is more lipophilic than articaine
c. blocks the sensation of pain before motor function
d. is more cardiotoxic than bupivicaine
e. blocks C-fibres before A-fibres
A
a. T
b. F
c. T
d. F
e. T
