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OS 212 [Ophthalmology] > 2015 > Flashcards

2015 Flashcards

1
Q

[T/F] Vitreous floaters can occur as a part of the normal aging process, when the vitreous gel liquefies and the posterior vitreous separates from the retina.

A

T

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2
Q

[T/F] Central Retinal Artery Occlusion is a TRUE ocular emergency.

A

T

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3
Q

[T/F] The biggest risk factor in the occurrence and progression of diabetic retinopathy is high blood sugar levels.

A

T

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4
Q

[T/F] Pain is a common symptom of retinal disorders.

A

F

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5
Q

[T/F] Problems in the occipital cortex may cause problems in vision.

A

T

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6
Q

[T/F] The most important risk factor in Age Related Macular Degeneration is age.

A

T

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7
Q

[T/F] Retinoblastoma is usually found in children enrolled in elementary school.

A

F

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8
Q

[T/F] Night blindness or difficulty seeing in the dark is characteristic of retinitis pigmentosa.

A

T

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9
Q

[T/F] In retinal detachment, there is fluid accumulation in the space between the rods and cones, and the retinal pigment epithelium.

A

T

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10
Q

[T/F] Central serous retinopathy manifests as metamorphopsia.

A

T

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11
Q

[T/F] Lightning-like flashes in the periphery of one’s visual field are usually attributed to vitreoretinal pathology.

A

T

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12
Q

[T/F] Acid burn is a more serious ocular emergency than alkali burn.

A

F

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13
Q

Objects bigger than they really are. A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

B

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14
Q

Iridescent vision when looking at a light source A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

A

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15
Q

Curtain like visual defect A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

B

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16
Q

Smoky or cloudy vision A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

A

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17
Q

Diplopia when both eyes are open A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

C

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18
Q

Transparent blurring of vision after prolonged computer use A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

A

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19
Q

Difficulty reading fine print after age 40 A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

A

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20
Q

Loss of bilateral hemi-fields of vision A. Anterior Segment Problem ( tear film, cornea, lens) B. Posterior segment Sroblem (vitreous, retina) C. Neural Problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerves, muscles)

A

C

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21
Q

A “Cherry Red Spot” is seen in the fundus of: A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion B. Wilson’s Disease C. Retinitis Pigmentosa D. Commotio Retinae

A

A

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22
Q

Arteriovenous crossing defects of the fundus is reflective of what systemic disease: A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion B. Diabetic Retinopathy C. Rheumatic Heart Disease D. SLE E. All of the above

A

A

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23
Q

Bilateral visual field cuts should alert one on the possibility of A. A local condition of the optic nerve on the side of the visual field cut B. A possible central or brain problem C. A problem involving both optic nerves simultaneously D. None of the above

A

D

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24
Q

A 23-year-old male complains of sudden onset of blurry central vision and micropsia, without any other symptoms. Your best choice for a possible diagnosis, based on given information is: A. Macular Degeneration B. Diabetic Retinopathy, sever C. Central Serous Chorioretinopathy D. Rhegmatogenous Retinal Detachment E. None of the above

A

C

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25
Q

In Non-proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy, you will NOT find A. Retinal dot and blot hemorrhages B. Neovascularization of the retina C. Cotton wool spots D. Hard exudates

A

B

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26
Q

Proptosis may be caused by A. Myopia B. Retrobulbar mass C. Hypertrophy of the medial rectus D. Optic neuritis

A

B or C

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27
Q

Pseudoproptosis may be observed in the following conditions A. Bilateral glaucoma B. Myopia C. Contralateral atrophic globe D. Ipsilateral Horner’s syndrome

A

B

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28
Q

A normal exophthalmometry reading is A. More than 4 mm difference between the 2 eyes B. More than 2 mm difference between the 2 eyes C. 19.0 mm D. 23.0 mm

A

C

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29
Q

There is positive resistance to retropulsion in A. Lid cellulitis B. Capillary hemangioma of the lid C. Unilateral lid retraction thyroid eye disease D. Cavernous hemangioma in the central surgical space

A

D

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30
Q

Which eye problem warrants a plain radiographic study? A. Arteriovenous fistula B. Vascular orbital tumor C. Thyroid eye disease with optic neuropathy D. Orbital wall fracture

A

D

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31
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging is contraindicated in which eye problem A. Orbital vascular tumor B. Orbital foreign body C. Orbital wall fracture D. Thyroid eye disease

A

B

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32
Q

Which of the following is a sign of orbital cellulitis? A. Enophthalmos B. Bruit C. Increased intraocular pressure D. Limitation of extraocular movement

A

D

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33
Q

When doing the corneal light reflex test, and the light falls nasal to the pupil, the eye is A. Hypotropic B. Hypertropic C. Exotropic D. Esotropic

A

C

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34
Q

Which of the pair of muscles are synergists? A. Left superior oblique and left inferior rectus B. Right superior rectus and left inferior oblique C. Left medical rectus and right lateral rectus D. Right superior rectus and right superior oblique

A

A

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35
Q

An eye with an overacting inferior oblique will deviate in what direction? A. Upward B. Downward C. Inward D. Outward

A

A

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36
Q

The patient’s eyes look aligned. You do a cover testing. There is outward movement of the recently uncovered eye. You observed this finding when testing both eyes. The eyes are aligned at the end of the test. The patient has: A. Othophoria/orthotropia B. Esophoria C. Esotropia D. Exophoria E. Exotropia

A

B

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37
Q

When looking to the right and down, contraction of the right inferior rectus is accompanied by: A. Relaxation of the right superior rectus B. Contraction of the right inferior oblique C. Relaxation of the left superior oblique D. Relaxation of the left inferior rectus

A

D

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38
Q

Which of the following patients will MOST likely have amblyopia? A. Infant born with capillary hemangioma of the right upper lid covering the superior aspect (?) of the eye B. Infant born with total cataract C. Infant with alternating infantile esotropia D. Infant with the following refraction, OD: -1.00 D, OS: -4.00 D

A

D

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39
Q

A 10-year old patient with intermittent exotropia will MOST likely have A. Equal vision B. Inability to adduct one eye C. Nystagmus D. Preference for fixation on one eye

A

D

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40
Q

In a 6-month-old patient, which of the following is least suggestive of accommodative esotropia? A. Age of onset 4 months B. Esotropia of 20 PD C. Fixation for 1 eye D. Refraction of +4.00 PD

A

A

41
Q

A 2-year-old patient has occasional outward deviation of either eye. Refraction in +.25 sph OD, plano OS, the following statement is true. A. Patient has amblyopia of R eye B. Patient vision is better for the left eye C. Patient vision is poor for both eyes D. Patient has equally good vision in both eyes

A

B

42
Q

The patient with right lateral rectus palsy will have A. Right esotropia worse of right gaze B. Right esotropia worse on left gaze C. Right esotropia equal in right and left gaze D. Right esotropia worse that left esotropia

A

A

43
Q

Cause of central retinal vein occlusion A. Head trauma B. Dun gazing C. Viral conjunctivitis D. Hypertension

A

D

44
Q

Vitreous liquefaction is? A. Physiologic and occurs with aging B. Possible eye disease such as vitreous hemorrhage C. Is always pathologic D. B and C E. A and B

A

E

45
Q

If a 78 year old non-diabetic, non-hypertensive patient complaints of loss of central vision of the R eye. We must consider: A. R central serous retinopathy B. Age related macular degeneration of the R eye C. Retinal detachment R eye D. R vitreous hemorrhage

A

B

46
Q

Sudden painless loss of the temporal visual field in the left eye could mean A. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment, nasal side, left eye B. Nonrhegmatogenous retinal detachment, temporal side, left eye C. Pituitary tumor pressing on the optic chiasm D. Dense vitreous hemorrhage covering the temporal part of the retina, left eye

A

A

47
Q

Causes of vitreous opacity except: A. Vitritis B. Vitreous hemorrhage C. Asteroidal hyalosis D. Edema of ganglion cell layer E. Vitreous liquefaction and posterior retinal detachment

A

D

48
Q

A patient who complains of sudden episodes of transient blurring of vision, which lasts from several seconds to a minute. Which of the ff. conditions can account for this symptom? A. Error of refraction B. Retinal detachment C. Migraine D. Amaurosis fugax

A

D

49
Q

Both near and distance vision is usually affected in the following conditions except: A. Glaucoma B. Cataract C. Presbyopia D. Retinal detachment

A

C

50
Q

Which of the following associations is correct? A. Serous discharge: allergic conjunctivitis B. Mucoid discharge: bacterial conjunctivitis C. Purulent discharge: gonoccocal conjunctivitis D. Mucopurulent discharge: viral conjunctivitis

A

C

51
Q

A patient complains of sudden onset deterioration in vision in one eye associated with eye redness & severe eye pain. There was absence of discharge/itchiness. The patient had one episode of vomiting & claims to be nauseated. You suspect: A. Acute viritis B. Optic neuritis C. Acute glaucoma D. Endophthalmitis

A

C

52
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency room after sustaining injuries form a vehicular accident. He was subsequently brought to the ophthalmologist on duty for evaluation of the eyes. The first thing that you should do as the intern on duty is A. Perform a gross eye examination B. Determine the patient’s visual acuity C. Clean the periorbital area D. Irrigate the eye to remove any foreign bodies

A

B

53
Q

A patient was only able to read the first line of the Snellen’s chart at a distance of 10 feet. The visual acuity should be properly recorded as A. 1/60 B. 10/200 C. J3 D. 0.1

A

B

54
Q

In patients with corneal scars, the best method to use in taking quantitative measurements of the intraocular pressure is by using the A. Perkin’s tonometer B. Tonopen C. Goldman tonometer D. Schiotz tonometer

A

D

55
Q

On funduscopy, you note that a patient had a dull ROR in one eye. Possible causes for this would include the following, EXCEPT: A. Detached retina B. Lens opacity C. Vitreous D. Cells in the anterior chamber E. Macular edema

A

E

56
Q

If the physician would want to perform funduscopic examination on a patient suspected to have mass in the posterior segment of the eye, the better instrument to use would be: A. B scan ultrasound B. Direct ophthalmoscope C. Indirect ophthalmoscope

A

A

57
Q

True of the direct ophthalmoscope: A. It provides a magnified, inverted image of the posterior segment B. The field of view is larger compared to the indirect ophthalmoscope C. The image seen is bigger in comparison to what is seen with the indirect ophthalmoscope D. The skill involved in direct ophthalmoscopy is more difficult to learn in comparison to indirect ophthalmoscopy

A

C

58
Q

White/yellow lesions seen on fundoscopy may be due to the following, EXCEPT: A. Bony spicules B. Microaneurysms C. Drusen D. Dot hemorrhages

A

B

59
Q

Nasolacrimal duct drains through the __________ at the inferior turbinate. A. Inferior meatus B. Canaliculus C. Punctum D. Plica semilunaris E. Maxillary bone

A

A

60
Q

Part of the medial wall of the orbit except: A. Lacrimal bone B. Ethmoid bone C. Maxillary bone D. Frontal bone E. Palatine bone

A

E

61
Q

Thinnest bone of the orbit A. Maxillary bone B. Lacrimal bone C. Palatine bone D. Frontal bone E. Ethmoid bone

A

E

62
Q

Sudden bright red eye, bleeding from conjunctival blood vessesls A. Subconjunctival hemorrhage B.Scleritis C.Viral conjunctivitis D. Dry eye

A

A

63
Q

Most common cause of red eye due to smoke, smog and other irritants A. Blepharitis B. Viral conjunctivitis C. Eye irritation D. Iritis

A

C

64
Q

Ocular secretions or exudates resulting from an infection or inflammation A. Discharge B. Reflex tearing C. Epiphora

A

A

65
Q

Tearing, mucopurulent discharge, swelling, redness, and pain over the lacrimal sac, with or without eye redness: A. Dacryloadenitis B. Blepharitis C. Dacrylocystitis

A

C

66
Q

Redness, tearing, watery to mucopurulent discharge, eyelids macerated and stuck together in the morning, matted lashes A. Bacterial conjunctivitis B. Blepharitis C. Microbial keratitis D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

B

67
Q

Redness, tearing, itching, stringy mucoid discharge, puffy lids A. Dry eye B. Bacterial conjunctivitis C. Allergic conjunctivitis D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

C

68
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent to purulent discharge, swollen lids, no nasolacrimal duct obstruction A. Dry eye B. Bacterial conjunctivitis C. Allergic conjunctivitis D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

B

69
Q

Redness, tearing, watery/mucopurulent/purulent discharge, pain, corneal opacity, blurring of vision, hypopyon A. Conjunctivitis B. Blepharitis C. Microbial keratitis D. Iritis

A

C

70
Q

Redness, tearing, severe pain, hard eyes, steamy cornea, no discharge, pupil dilated A. Anterior uveitis B. Acute glaucoma C. Microbial keratitis D. Iritis

A

B

71
Q

Which of the following structures account for the highest refractive component of the human eye? A. Lens B. Cornea C. Vitreous D. Aqueous

A

B

72
Q

In myopic individuals, what does a diverging lens do to the image in relation to the retina? A. Pulls forward B. Pushes back C. None

A

B

73
Q

In hyperopic individuals, what does a converging lens do to the image in relation to the retina? A. Pulls forward B. Pushes back C. None

A

A

74
Q

Which type of astigmatism has one image in front of the retina and the other image behind the retina? A. Simple myopia B. Simple hyperopia C. Compound myopia D. Compound hyperopia E. Mixed astigmatism

A

E

75
Q

Which type of astigmatism has both images in front of the retina? A. Simple myopia B. Simple hyperopia C. Compound myopia D. Compound hyperopia E. Mixed astigmatism

A

C

76
Q

The following are components of the accommodative near reflex triad EXCEPT: A. Lens thickening B. Miosis C. Stereopsis D. Convergence

A

C

77
Q

In the pathway for the photochemistry of vision, cis-retinene and opsin combine to form which molecule? A. Rhodopsin B. Metarhodopsin C. Lumirhodopsin D. Trans-retinene

A

A

78
Q

Which of the following is NOT used to correct ammetropia? A. Contact lenses B. Spectacles C. Corneal transplantation D. Cataract surgery E. Laser refractive surgery

A

C

79
Q

Which condition is described as having total loss of red color? A. Protanope B. Proanomaly C. Deuteranope D. Deuteranomaly

A

A

80
Q

A lesion of the optic chiasm will most likely present with which kind of visual defect? A. Binasal hemianopsia B. Left homonymous hemianopsia C. Total blindness D. Bitemporal hemianopsia

A

D

81
Q

A lesion of which of the following structures would most likely give rise to left homonymous hemianopsia with macular sparing? A. Left occipital lobe B. Right occipital lobe C. Left optic tract D. Right optic tract

A

B

82
Q

A lesion of which of the following structures would most likely give rise to a left homonymous hemianopsia without macular sparing? A. Left occipital lobe B. Right occipital lobe C. Left optic tract D. Right optic tract

A

D

83
Q

The most common intraocular malignancy in adults is: A. Rhabdosarcoma B. Retinoblastoma C. Choroidal melanoma D. Small cell carcinoma

A

D

84
Q

In a patient suspected to have optic neuritis an important test to do is: A. Applanation tonometry B. Slit lamp examination D. Color vision test

A

Most probably D

85
Q

Which of the following is incorrectly matched? A. Trichiosis – misdirected lashes B. Lagophthalmos – lid lag on down gaze C. Dystichiasis – abnormal row of lashes D. Ectropion – outward turning of the margin

A

B

86
Q

1 million axons.

A. Pupil

B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

B

87
Q

Determines the amount of light that enters the eye.

A. Pupil

B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

A

88
Q

Responsible for clearest vision.

A. Pupil

B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

C

89
Q

Produces aqueous.

A. Pupil

B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

D

90
Q

Increase in thickness during accommodation.

A. Pupil

B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

E

91
Q

Structure marked by the white circle.

A. Pupil
B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

B

92
Q

Structure marked by the white arrow.

A. Pupil
B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

C

93
Q

Structure marked by the thick black arrow.

A. Pupil
B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

E

94
Q

Structure marked by the thin black arrow

A. Pupil
B. Optic nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

D

95
Q

Structure marked by the white circle.

A. Punctum
B. Caruncle
C. Limbus
D. Bulbar conjunctivitis
E. Pupil

A

D

96
Q

Structure marked by the black arrow.

A. Punctum
B. Caruncle
C. Limbus
D. Bulbar conjunctivitis
E. Pupil

A

C

97
Q

Identify which of the patients below has esotropia.

A

B

98
Q

Give the A.V. ratio for the fundus shown:

A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 3:4

A

B

OS 212 [Ophthalmology] (7 decks)

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