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OS 212 [Ophthalmology] > 2013 Block A > Flashcards

2013 Block A Flashcards

1
Q

Which pairs of muscles are antagonistic?

A. Right Superior Rectus and R inferior Rectus

B. Right Superior Rectus and R medial Rectus

C. Right Superior Rectus and R inferior Oblique

D. Right Superior Rectus and L Medial Rectus

A

A

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2
Q

Which pairs of muscles are synergists?

A. Right Superior Rectus and L Inferior Oblique

B. Right Superior Rectus and L inferior Rectus

C. Right Superior Rectus and L superior Rectus

D. Right Superior Rectus and R Inferior Oblique

A

D

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3
Q

Which pairs of muscles are yoke muscles?

A. Right Superior Rectus and L Inferior Oblique

B. Right Superior Rectus and L inferior Rectus

C. Right Superior Rectus and L superior Rectus

D. Right Superior Rectus and R Inferior Oblique

A

A

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4
Q

Infant looks esotropic. What will you do to verify this?

A. Cycloplegic refraction

B. Corneal light reflex

C. Prism cover

D. Take a photograph of the infant

A

B or D

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5
Q

The patient eye look aligned. You do a cover testing. There is outward movement of the recently uncovered eye. You observed this finding when testing both eyes. The eyes are aligned at the end of the test. The patient has?

A. Orthophoria, orthtropia

B. Esophoria

C. Esotropia

D. Exophoria

E. Exotropia

A

B

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6
Q

For a 6 month old infant with esotropia, what is the most suggestive of infantile esotropia?

A. Alternation of fixation

B. Esotropia of 20 PD

C. Fixation preference for one eye

D. Overacting inferior oblique

A

D

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7
Q

In a 6 month old patient, which of the following is least suggestive of accommodative esotropia?

A. Age of onset 4 months

B. Esotropia of 20 PD

C. Fixation for 1 eye

D. Refraction of +4.00 PD

A

NA

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8
Q

Which will probably have amblyopia?

A. Congenital cataract (total cataract?)

B. Child with permanent drooping eyelid (full or partial ptosis?)

C. Left eye with grade of +1.00 and Right eye +4.00

A

NA

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9
Q

A 2 year old patient has occasional outward deviation of either eye. Refraction in +.25 sph OD, plano OS, the following statement is true.

A. Patient has amplyopia of R eye

B. Patient vision is better for the left eye

C. Patient vision is poor for both eyes

D. Patient has equally good vision in both eyes

A

NA

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10
Q

The best way to distinguish pseudoesotropia from true esotropia?

A. Cover test

B. Cyclorefraction

C. Prism test

D. Old photographs

A

A

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11
Q

The following conditions may give rise to proptosis

A. Myopia

B. Optic neuritis

C. Hypertrophy of medial rectus

D. Elevated pressure of the ophthalmic artery

A

C

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12
Q

Pseudoproptosis may be observed in the following conditions

A. Bilateral glaucoma

B. Myopia

C. Contralateral atrophic globe

D. Ipsilateral horner’s syndrome

A

B

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13
Q

Abnormal exophthalmometry reading

A. 13 mm

B. 16 mm

C. 19 mm

D. 23 mm

A

D

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14
Q

Plain radiographs are recommended in which situation

A. Arteriovenous fistula

B. Orbital wall fracture

C. Thyroid disease with optic neuritis

D. Vascular orbit tumor

A

B

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15
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging is recommended for use in the following except:

A. Orbital vascular tumor

B. Orbital wall fracture

C. Orbital foreign body

D. Thyroid eye disease

A

B

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16
Q

Which of the following is a sign of orbital cellulitis

A. Enophtlamos

B. Bruit

C. Increased intraocular pressure

D. Limitation of extraocular movement

A

D

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17
Q

Central vein occlusion can be caused by the following

A. Hypertension

B. Sun gazing

C. Viral conjunctivitis

D. Head trauma

A

A

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18
Q

Vitreous liquefaction is?

A. Physiologic and occurs with aging

B. Possible eye disease such as vitreous hemorrhage

C. Is always pathologic

D. B and C

E. A and B

A

E

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19
Q

If a 78 year old non-diabetic, non-hypertensive patient complaints of loss of central vision of the R eye. We must consider:

A. R central serous retinopathy

B. Age related macular degeneration of the R eye

C. Retinal detachment R eye

D. R vitreous hemorrhage

A

B

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20
Q

[T/F] The biggest risk factor in the occurrence & progression of diabetic retinopathy is duration of diabetes mellitus.

A

T

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21
Q

[T/F] Visual symptoms of floaters & flashes or photopsias can come from vitreous syneresis.

A

T

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22
Q

[T/F] Complaints of micropsia & metamorphopsia point to retinal pathology, particularly the macula.

A

T

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23
Q

[T/F] Nonrhegmatogenous retinal detachment can be caused by exudates from choroidal vessels as in accelerating hypertension (e.g. eclampsia).

A

T

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24
Q

[T/F] The 2 true ocular emergencies are chemical burns of the eye and central retinal vein occlusion.

A

F

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25
Q

Diplopia with both eyes open

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

C

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26
Q

Seeing objects larger than they actually are

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

B

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27
Q

Difficulty reading fine prints after age 40

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

D

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28
Q

Iridescent vision when looking at a light

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

A

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29
Q

Starburst when looking at headlights

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

A

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30
Q

Curtain-like visual field defect

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

B

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31
Q

Smoky or cloudy vision

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

A

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32
Q

Parallel lines appear to intersect

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

C

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33
Q

Blurred vision for far, clear vision when near

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

A

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34
Q

Glare and haloes when outdoors

A. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)

B. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)

C. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)

D. Error of refraction

A

A

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35
Q

Differential diagnosis for acute onset of BOV, associated with eye pain and redness include the following, EXCEPT:

A. Central Retinal Artery Occlusion

B. Keratitis

C. Anterior Uveitis

D. Acute Glaucoma

A

A

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36
Q

A patient who complains of sudden episodes of transient blurring of vision which lasts from several seconds to a minute. Which of the ff. conditions can account for this symptom?

A. Error of refraction

B. Retinal detachment

C. Migraine

D. Amaurosis fugax

A

D

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37
Q

Both near & distance vision is usually affected in the ff. conditions, EXCEPT:

A. Glaucoma

B. Cataract

C. Presbyopia

D. Retinal detachment

A

C

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38
Q

Which of the ff. associations is CORRECT?

A. Serous discharge: allergic conjunctivitis

B. Mucoid discharge: bacterial conjunctivitis

C. Purulent discharge: gonococcal conjunctivitis

D. Mucopurulent discharge: viral conjunctivitis

A

C

39
Q

A patient complains of sudden onset deterioration in vision in one eye associated with eye redness & severe eye pain. There was absence of discharge/itchiness. The patient had one episode of vomiting & claims to be nauseated. You suspect:

A. Acute viritis

B. Optic neuritis

C. Acute glaucoma

D. Endophthalmitis

A

C

40
Q

Type of eye redness that requires immediate referral to an ophthalmologist

A. Conjunctival hyperemia

B. Perilimbal flush

C. Scleral congestion

D. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

A

C

41
Q

A patient is brought to the ER after sustaining injuries from a vehicular accident. He was subsequently referred to the ophthalmologist on duty for evaluation of the eye. The first thing that you should do as the intern on duty is:

A. Perform a gross eye exam

B. Determine the patient’s visual acuity

C. Clean the periorbital area

D. Irrigate the eye to remove any foreign bodies

A

B

42
Q

A patient was only able to read the 1st line letters of the Snellen’s chart at a distance of 10 feet. The visual acuity should be properly recorded as:

A. 1/60

B. 10/200

C. J 3

D. 0.1

A

B

43
Q

In patients with corneal scars, the best method to use in taking quantitative measurements of the IOP is by the:

A. Perkins tonometer

B. Tonopen

C. Goldman tonometer

D. Schiotz tonometer

A

D

44
Q

On fundoscopy, the patient has dull ROR in one eye. Possible causes for this would include the ff. EXCEPT:

A. Retinal detachment

B. Lens opacity

C. Vitreous hemorrhage

D. Cells in the anterior chamber

E. Macular edema

A

E

45
Q

If the physician would want to perform funduscopic esamination on a patient suspected to have a mass in the posterior segment of the eye, the better instrument to use would be:

A. B scan ultrasound

B. Direct ophthalmoscope

C. Indirect ophthalmoscope

D. Goniolens

A

A

46
Q

True of the direct ophthalmoscope:

A. It provides a magnified, inverted image of the posterior segment

B. The field of view is larger compared to the indirect ophthalmoscope

C. The image seen is bigger in comparison to what is seen with the indirect ophthalmoscope

D. The skill involved in direct ophthalmoscopy is more difficult to learn in comparison to indirect ophthalmoscopy

A

C

47
Q

Yellow/whitish lesions seen on fundoscopy may be due to any of the following, EXCEPT

A. Hard exudates

B. Microaneurysms

C. Laser burns

D. Drusen

A

B

48
Q

Nasolacrimal duct drains through the ____ at inferior turbinate

A. Inferior Meatus

B. Canaliculus

C. Plica semilunaris

D. Maxillary bone

A

A

49
Q

Part of the medial wall of the orbit EXCEPT

A. Lacrimal bone

B. Ethmoid bone

C. Maxillary bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Palatine bone

A

E

50
Q

Thinnest bone in the orbit

A. Ethmoid bone

B. Lacrimal bone

C. Palatine bone

D. Frontal bone

E. Maxillary bone

A

A

51
Q

Sudden bright red eye, bleeding from conjunctival blood vessels

A. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

B. Scleritis

C. Viral conjunctivitis

D. Dry eye

A

A

52
Q

Most common cause of red eye due to smoke, smog or other irritiants

A. Blepharitis

B. Viral conjunctivitis

C. Eye irritation

D. Iritis

A

C

53
Q

Hypersecretion or excess formation of tear fluid

A. Allergic conjunctivitis

B. Reflex tearing

C. Eye irritation

D. Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

B

54
Q

Tearing from obstruction of the lacrimal drainage system

A. Epiphora

B. Dacrocystitis

C. Reflex tearing

A

A

55
Q

Ocular secretions or exudates resulting from an infection or inflammation

A. Discharge

B. Reflex tearing

C. Epiphora

A

A

56
Q

Tearing, mucopurulent discharge, swelling, redness and pain over the lacrimal sac with or without eye redness

A. Blepharitis

B. Dacrocystitis

C. Dacroadenitis

A

B

57
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent discharge, eyelids macerated and stuck together in the morning, matted lashes

A. Bacterial conjunctivitis

B. Blepharitis

C. Microbial keratitis

A

B

58
Q

Deep redness, scleral swelling, pain, slight tearing, no discharge

A. Subconjunctival hemorrhage

B. Scleritis

C. Conjunctivitis

A

B

59
Q

Redness, mucoid discharge, foreign body sensation, no tears

A. Dry eyes

B. Bacterial conjunctivitis

C. Allergic conjunctivitis

D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

A

60
Q

Redness, tearing, water discharge, lid swelling, clear vision

A. Dry eyes

B. Bacterial conjunctivitis

C. Allergic conjunctivitis

D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

D

61
Q

Redness, tearing, itching, stringy mucoid discharge, puffy lids

A. Dry eyes

B. Bacterial conjunctivitis

C. Allergic conjunctivitis

D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

C

62
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent discharge, swollen lids, no nasolacrimal duct obstruction

A. Dry eyes

B. Bacterial conjunctivitis

C. Allergic conjunctivitis

D. Viral conjunctivitis

A

B

63
Q

Redness, tearing, water / mucopurulent / purulent discharge, pain, corneal opacity, blurring of vision, hypopyon

A. Conjunctivitis

B. Blepharitis

C. Microbial keratitis

D. Iritis

A

C

64
Q

Redness, tearing, photophobia, blurring of vision, tenderness, no discharge, small pupil, fibrin in anterior chamber

A. Conjunctivitis

B. Iritis

C. Acute glaucoma

D. Microbial keratitis

A

B

65
Q

Redness, tearing, severe pain, hard eye, steamy cornea, no discharge, pupil dilated

A. Iritis

B. Acute glaucoma

C. Microbial keratitis

A

B

66
Q

Which of the following structures accounts for the highest refractive component of the human eye?

A. Lens

B. Cornea

C. Vitreous

D. Aqueous

A

B

67
Q

In myopic individuals, what does a diverging lens do to the image in relation to the retina?

A. Pulls it forward

B. Pushes it back

C. It does nothing

A

B

68
Q

In hyperopic individuals, what does a diverging lens do to the image in relation to the retina?

A. Pulls it forward

B. Pushes it back

C. It does nothing

A

B

69
Q

In myopic individuals, what does a converging lens do to the image in relation to the retina?

A. Pulls it forward

B. Pushes it back

C. It does nothing

A

A

70
Q

In hyperopic individuals, what does a converging lens do to the image in relation to the retina?

A. Pulls it forward

B. Pushes it back

C. It does nothing

A

A

71
Q

What type of astigmatism has the image in front of the retina and the other image behind the retina?

A. Simple myopic

B. Simple hyperopic

C. Compound myopic

D. Compound hyperopic

E. Mixed astigmatism

A

E

72
Q

What type of astigmatism has both images in front of the retina?

A. Simple myopic

B. Simple hyperopic

C. Compound myopic

D. Compound hyperopic

E. Mixed astigmatism

A

C

73
Q

What type of astigmatism has both images behind the retina?

A. Simple myopic

B. Simple hyperopic

C. Compound myopic

D. Compound hyperopic

E. Mixed astigmatism

A

D

74
Q

The following are components of the accommodative near reflex triad EXCEPT

A. Lens thickening

B. Miosis

C. Stereopsis

D. Convergence

A

C

75
Q

In the pathway for the photochemistry of vision, cis-retinene and opsin combine to from which molecule?

A. Rhodopsin

B. Metarhodopsin

C. Lumirhodopsin

D. Trans-retinene

A

A

76
Q

Which of the following is NOT used to correct ammetropia?

A. Contact lenses

B. Spectacles

C. Corneal transplantation

D. Cataract surgery

E. Laser refractive surgery

A

C

77
Q

Which condition is described as having total loss of red color?

A. Protanope

B. Protanomaly

C. Deuteranope

D. Deuteranomaly

A

A

78
Q

A lesion of the optic chiasm would most likely present with which kind of visual field defect?

A. Bilateral hemianopia
B. Left homonymous hemianopia

C. Bitemporal hemianopia

D. Left superior homonymous hemianopia

A

C

79
Q

A lesion in which of the following structures would most like give rise to a left homonymous hemianopia w/ macular sparing?

A. Left occipital lobe

B. Right occipital lobe

C. Left frontal lobe

D. Optic chiasm

A

B

80
Q

Where is the lesion if there is right homonymous hemianopia w/o macular sparing?

A. Left occipital lobe

B. Left parietal lobe

C. Left optic tract

D. Optic chiasm

A

C

81
Q

Give the A:V ratio for the fundus shown:

A. 1:1
B. 1:2
C. 1:4
D. 3:4

A

B

82
Q

Structure marked by white circle

A. Pupil
B. Limbus
C. Punctum
D. Bulbar conjunctiva
E. Caruncle

A

D

83
Q

Structure marked by white arrow

A. Pupil
B. Limbus
C. Punctum
D. Bulbar conjunctiva
E. Caruncle

A

E

84
Q

Structure marked by black arrow

A. Pupil
B. Limbus
C. Punctum
D. Bulbar conjunctiva
E. Caruncle

A

B

85
Q

1 million axons

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

B

86
Q

Determines the amount of light that enters the eye

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

A

87
Q

Responsible for clearest vision

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

C

88
Q

Produces aqueous

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

D

89
Q

Increases in thickness during accommodation

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

B

90
Q

Structure marked by white circle

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

B

91
Q

Structure marked by white arrow

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

C

92
Q

Structure marked by thick black arrow

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

E

93
Q

Structure marked by thin black arrow

A. Pupil
B. Optic Nerve
C. Fovea
D. Ciliary body
E. Crystalline lens

A

D

OS 212 [Ophthalmology] (7 decks)

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