Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

OS 212 [Ophthalmology] > 2012 > Flashcards

2012 Flashcards

1
Q 
The nasolacrimal duct drains through the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  
     at the inferior turbinate 
a. Inferior meatus
b. Cannaliculus 
c. Punctum 
d. Plica semilunaris 
e. Maxillary bone
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Part of the medial wall of the orbit EXCEPT

a. Lacrimal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Maxillary bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Palatine bone

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Thinnest bone of the orbit

a. Ethmoid bone
b. Lacrimal bone
c. Palatine bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Maxillary bone

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which of the following structures accounts for the
highest refractive component of the human eye?
a. Lens
b. Cornea
c. Vitreous
d. Aqueous

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

In myopic individuals, what does a diverging lens
do to the image in relation to the retina?
a. Pulls it forward
b. Pushes it back
c. It does nothing

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In myopic individuals, what does a converging lens
do to the image in relation to the retina?
a. Pulls it forward
b. Pushes it back
c. It does nothing

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In hyperopic individuals, what does a diverging
lens do to the image in relation to the retina?
a. Pulls it forward
b. Pushes it back
c. It does nothing

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

In hyperopic individuals, what does a converging
lens do to the image in relation to the retina?
a. Pulls it forward
b. Pushes it back
c. It does nothing

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of astigmatism has the image in front of
the retina and the other image behind the retina?
a. Simple myopic
b. Simple hyperopic
c. Compound myopic
d. Compound hyperopic
e. Mixed astigmatism

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q 
What type of astigmatism has both images behind the  
      retina? 
a. Simple myopic 
b. Simple hyperopic 
c. Compound myopic 
d. Compound hyperopic 
e. Mixed astigmatism
A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q 
What type of astigmatism has both images in front of 
     the retina? 
a. Simple myopic 
b. Simple hyperopic 
c. Compound myopic 
d. Compound hyperopic 
e. Mixed astigmatism
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q 
The following are components of the accommodative/    
      near reflex triad EXCEPT 
a. Lens thickening 
b. Miosis 
c. Stereopsis
d. Convergence
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In the pathway for the photochemistry of vision,
cis-retinene and opsin combine to from which
molecule?
a. Rhodopsin
b. Metarhodopsin
c. Lumirhodopsin
d. Trans-retinene

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q 
Which of the following is NOT used to correct 
     ammetropia? 
a. Contact lenses 
b. Spectacles 
c. Corneal transplantation 
d. Cataract surgery 
e. Laser refractive surgery
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q 
Which condition is described as having total loss of red 
     color? 
a. Protanope 
b. Protanomaly 
c. Deuteranope 
d. Deuteranomaly
A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A lesion of the optic chiasm would most likely present
with which kind of visual field defect?
a. Bilateral hemianopia
b. Left homonymous hemianopia
c. Bitemporal hemianopia
d. Left superior homonymous hemianopia

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A lesion in which of the following structures would
most like give rise to a left homonymous hemianopia?
a. Left occipital lobe
b. Right occipital lobe
c. Left frontal lobe
d. Optic chiasm

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q 
Where is the lesion if there is right homonymous 
     hemianopia w/o macular sparing?
a. Left occipital lobe 
b. Left parietal lobe 
c. Left optic tract
d. Optic chiasm
A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Differential diagnosis for acute onset blurring of vision
associated with eye pain and redness include the
following, EXCEPT
a. Central retinal artery occlusion
b. Keratitis
c. Anterior uveitis
d. Angle closure glaucoma

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

A patient complains of sudden episode of transient
blurring of vision which last from several seconds to a
minute. Which of the following conditions can account
for this symptom?
a. Error of refraction
b. Retinal detachment
c. Migraine
d. Amaurosis fugax

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Both near vision and distance vision are usually
affected in the following conditions, EXCEPT
a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Presbyopia
d. Retinal detachment

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following associations is correct?

a. Serous discharge: allergic conjunctivitis
b. Mucoid discharge: bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Purulent discharge: gonoccocal conjunctivitis
d. Mucopurulent discharge: viral conjunctivitis

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

A patient complains of sudden onset deterioration
in vision in one eye associated with eye redness and
severe eye pain. There was absence of discharge or
itchiness. The patient had one episode of vomiting and
claims to be nauseated. You suspect:
a. Acute uveitis
b. Optic neuritis
c. Acute glaucoma
d. Endophthalmos

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q 
Type of eye redness that requires immediate 
      referral to an ophthalmologist is 
a. Conjunctival hyperemia 
b. Perilimbal flush 
c. Scleral congestion 
d. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency room after sustaining injuries form a vehicular accident. He was subsequently brought to the ophthalmologist on duty for evaluation of the eyes. The first thing that you should do as the intern on duty is

a. Perform a gross eye examination
b. Determine the patient ’s visual acuity
c. Clean the periorbital area
d. Irrigate the eye to remove any foreign bodies

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

A patient was only able to read the first line of the Snellen ’s chart at a distance of 10 feet. The visual acuity should be properly recorded as

a. 1/60
b. 10/200
c. J3
d. 0.1

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

In patients with corneal scars, the best method to use in taking quantitative measurements of the intraocular pressure is by using the

a. Perkin ’s tonometer
b. Tonopen
c. Goldman tonometer
d. Schiotz tonometer

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

On fundoscopy, you note that a patient had a dull red-orange reflex in one eye. Possible causes for this would include the following EXCEPT

a. Detached retina
b. Lens opacity
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. Cells in the anterior chamber
e. Macular edema

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

If the physician would want to perform fundoscopic examination on a patient suspected to have a mass in the posterior segment of the eye, the better instrument to use would be:

a. B scan ultrasound
b. Direct ophthalmoscope
c. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
d. Goniolens

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

True of the direct ophthalmoscope:
a. It provides a magnified, inverted image of the
posterior segment
b. The field of view is larger compared to the
indirect ophthalmoscope
c. The image seen is bigger in comparison to
what is seen with the indirect ophthalmoscope
d. The skill involved in direct ophthalmoscopy is
more difficult to learn in comparison to indirect
ophthalmoscopy

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q 
Yellow/whitish lesions seen on fundocopy may be 
due to any of the following, EXCEPT 
a. Hard exudates 
b. Microaneurysms 
c. Laser burns 
d. Drusen
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Diplopia when both eyes are open

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Seeing objects larger than they actually are

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Difficulty reading fine prints after age 40

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

35
Q

Iridescent vision when looking at a light

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

36
Q

Starburst when looking at head lights

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

37
Q

Curtain-like visual field defect

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

B

38
Q

Smoky or cloudy vision

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

39
Q

Glare and haloes when outdoors

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

40
Q

Blurred vision for far, clear vision when near

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

D

41
Q

Loss of both lateral/outer fields of vision

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve,
muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

C

42
Q

[T/F] Floaters come naturally in the course of vitreous
liquefaction or syneresis, as part of the aging
process.

A

T

43
Q

[T/F] Central retinal vein occlusion is a true emergency.

A

F

44
Q

[T/F] When an elderly patient complains of sudden
onset of blurry central vision, one should think of
age-related macular degeneration.

A

T

45
Q

[T/F] The perception of small images (micropsia) in one
eye compared to the fellow eye suggests
macular edema in the eye with the bigger
image

A

NA

46
Q

Sudden bright red eye, bleeding from conjunctival blood vessels

a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
b. Scleritis
c. Viral conjunctivitis
d. Dry eyes

A

A

47
Q

Most common cause of red eye due to smoke, smog or other irritiants

a. Blepharitis
b. Viral conjunctivitis
c. Eye irritation
d. Iritis

A

C

48
Q

Hypersecretion or excess formation of tear fluid

a. Allergic conjunctivitis
b. Reflex tearing
c. Eye irritation
d. Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

B

49
Q

Tearing from obstruction of the lacrimal drainage system

a. Epiphora
b. Dacrocystitis
c. Reflex tearing

A

A

50
Q

Ocular secretions or exudates resulting from an infection or inflammation

a. Discharge
b. Reflex tearing
c. Epiphora

A

A

51
Q

Tearing, mucopurulent discharge, swelling, redness and pain over the lacrimal sac with or without eye redness

a. Blepharitis
b. Dacrocystitis
c. Dacroadenitis

A

B

52
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent discharge,
eyelids macerated and stuck together in the
morning, matted lashes
a. Bacterial conjunctivitis
b. Blepharitis
c. Microbial keratitis

A

B

53
Q 
Deep redness, scleral swelling, pain, slight 
tearing, no discharge 
a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage 
b. Scleritis 
c. Conjunctivitis
A

B

54
Q 
Redness, mucoid discharge, foreign body 
sensation, no tears 
a. Dry eyes 
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis 
c. Allergic conjunctivitis 
d. Viral conjunctivitis
A

A

55
Q 
Redness, tearing, water discharge, lid swelling, 
clear vision 
a. Dry eyes 
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis 
c. Allergic conjunctivitis 
d. Viral conjunctivitis
A

D

56
Q 
Redness, tearing, itching, stringy mucoid 
discharge, puffy lids 
a. Dry eye 
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis 
c. Allergic conjunctivitis 
d. Viral conjunctivitis
A

C

57
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent discharge,
swollen lids, no nasolacrimal duct obstruction
a. Dry eye
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Allergic conjunctivitis
d. Viral conjunctivitis

A

B

58
Q

Redness, tearing, water/mucopurulent/purulent discharge, pain, corneal opacity, blurring of vision, hypopyon

a. Conjunctivitis
b. Blepharitis
c. Microbial keratitis
d. Iritis

A

C

59
Q

Redness, tearing, photophobia, blurring of vision, tenderness, no discharge, small pupil, fibrin in anterior chamber

a. Conjunctivitis
b. Iritis
c. Acute glaucoma
d. Microbial keratitis

A

B

60
Q

Redness, tearing, severe pain, hard eye, steamy cornea, no discharge, pupil dilated

a. Iritis
b. Acute glaucoma
c. Microbial keratitis

A

B

61
Q

There is negative resiliency in the following
situation
a. Lid cellulitis
b. Capillary hemangioma of the lid
c. Unilateral lid retraction in thyroid eye disease
d. Cavernous hemangioma in the central
surgical space

A

D

62
Q

The following conditions may give rise to proptosis

a. myopia
b. optic neuritis
c. hypertrophy of the medial rectus
d. elevated pressure of the ophthalmic artery

A

D

63
Q 
Pseudoproptosis may be observed in the following 
conditions 
a. Bilateral glaucoma 
b. Myopia 
c. Contralateral atrophic globe 
d. Ipsilateral Horner ’s syndrome
A

B

64
Q

An abnormal exopthalmometry reading

a. 12.0mm
b. 15.5mm
c. 19.0mm
d. 23.0mm

A

D

65
Q

There is negative resiliency in the following
situation
a. Lid cellulitis
b. Capillary hemangioma of the lid
c. Unilateral lid retraction in thyroid eye disease
d. Cavernous hemangioma in the central
surgical space

A

D

66
Q

Which of the folloiwng is excacerbated by the Valsalava maneuver?

a. capillary hemangioma
b. lid cellulitis
c. cavernous hemangioma
d. lymphangioma
A

A

67
Q

The axis of the adult bony orbit is directed forward and

a. laterally
b. medially
c. upward
d. in the same axis as the globe
A

A

68
Q

Plain radiographs are recommended in which
situation?
a. Arteriovenous fistula
b. Orbital wall fracture
c. Thyroid eye disease with optic neuritis
d. Vascular orbit tumor

A

B

69
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging is recommended in the following situations, EXCEPT

a. Orbital vascular tumor
b. Orbital wall fracture
c. Orbital foreign body
d. Thyroid eye disease

A

C

70
Q

Which of the following is a sign of orbital cellulitis?

a. lid lag
b. foreign body sensation
c. increased intraocular pressure
d. limitation of extraocular movements

A

NA

71
Q

Which pair of muscles are antagonists?

a. right superior rectus, right inferior rectus
b. right superior rectus, right inferior oblique
c. right superior oblique, left inferior oblique
A

A

72
Q

Which pair are synergists?

a. right superior rectus, right inferior rectus
b. right superior rectus, right inferior oblique
c. right superior oblique, left inferior oblique
A

B

73
Q

Which are yoke muscles?

a. right superior rectus, right inferior rectus
b. right superior rectus, right inferior oblique
c. right superior oblique, left inferior oblique
d. right medial rectus, left medial rectus
A

NA

74
Q

This test is used to distinguish a manifest from a latent deviation.

a. cover-uncover test
b. prism test
c. corneal light reflex
d. ophthalmoscope
A

A

75
Q

A 2 year-old patient has occasional outward deviation of either eye. Refraction is +0.25sph OD, plano OS. Which is true?

a. he has amblyopia on the right eye
b. his vision is better in the left eye
c. his vision is poor on both eyes
d. patient has equally good vision in both eyes
A

D

76
Q

The patient with right lateral rectus palsy will have:

a. R esotropia worse on R gaze
b. R esotropia worse on L gaze
c. R esotropia equal in R & L gaze
d. R esotropia worse than L esotropia

A

A

77
Q

The patient has R esotropia. To estimate the deviation, you will place the prism in front of the patient’s right eye in this orientation:

a. apex down
b. base down
c. base out
d. base up
A

C

78
Q

Which is not an eye adductor?

a. superior oblique
b. superior rectus
c. medial rectus
d. inferior rectus
A

A

79
Q

What test can be done to test for ocular alignment?

a. corneal light reflex test
b. visual acuity test
c. ophthalmoscope
d. ocular motility exam
A

A

80
Q

Prior to the test, the patient’s eyes are aligned. When the right eye is covered, the left eye moves temporally. The same is observed when the other eye is covered. After the test, the eyes are again aligned. The patient has:

a. esotropia
b. exotropia
c. esophoria
d. orthophoria
e. exophoria
A

NA

81
Q

Which of the following is the MOST suggestive of infantile esotropia?

a. PD = 20
b. nystagmus
c. overacting inferior oblique
d. lateral gaze
A

C

82
Q

Which of the following is LEAST suggestive of accomodative esotropia?

a. age of onset is 4 months old
b. presence of hyperopia
c. use of convex or plus lenses
d. a grade of +3.00 to +10.00 diopters
A

A

83
Q

Which will probably have ambyopia?

a. a child born with cataract
b. a child with permanent drooping of eyelids
c. a left eye with a grade of +1.00 and a right eye with a grade of +4.00
A

C

84
Q

Which is true in a patient with intermittent exotropia?

a. he has good vision in both eyes
b. he has nystagmus
c. he has poor eye adduction in one eye
A

A

OS 212 [Ophthalmology] (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions