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OS 212 [Ophthalmology] > 2011 > Flashcards

2011 Flashcards

1
Q

The nasolacrimal duct drains through the ______ at the inferior turbinate

a. Inferior meatus
b. Cannaliculus
c. Punctum
d. Plica semilunaris
e. Maxillary bone

A

A

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2
Q

Part of the medial wall of the orbit EXCEPT

a. Lacrimal bone
b. Ethmoid bone
c. Maxillary bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Palatine bone

A

E

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3
Q

Thinnest bone of the orbit

a. Ethmoid bone
b. Lacrimal bone
c. Palatine bone
d. Frontal bone
e. Maxillary bone

A

A

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4
Q

In the visible spectrum, which of the following colors has the shortest wavelength?

a. Blue
b. Green
c. Violet
d. Red

A

C

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5
Q

Which of the following happens to the velocity of light as it passes from a medium of higher refractive index to one of lower refractive index?

a. Slows down
b. Speeds up
c. Stays the same
d. Is absorbed

A

B

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6
Q

A diverging (negative) lens can be thought of as two prisms stacked on top of each other, apex to apex.

a. True
b. False

A

A

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7
Q

Which of the following structures accounts for the highest refractive component of the human eye?

a. Lens
b. Cornea
c. Vitreous
d. Aqueous

A

B

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8
Q

In myopic individuals, what does a diverging lens
do to the image in relation to the retina?
a. Pulls it forward
b. Pushes it back.
c. It does nothing

A

B

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9
Q

In hyperopic individuals, what does a diverging
lens do to the image in relation to the retina?
a. Pulls it forward
b. Pushes it back
c. It does nothing

A

B

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10
Q

What type of astigmatism has the image in front of
the retina and the other image behind the retina?
a. Simple myopic
b. Simple hyperopic
c. Compound myopic
d. Compound hyperopic
e. Mixed astigmatism

A

E

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11
Q

The following are components of the accommodative/ near reflex triad EXCEPT

a. Lens thickening
b. Miosis
c. Stereopsis
d. Convergence

A

C

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12
Q

In the pathway for the photochemistry of vision,
cis-retinene and opsin combine to from which
molecule?
a. Rhodopsin
b. Metarhodopsin
c. Lumirhodopsin
d. Trans-retinene

A

A

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13
Q

Each small arm of the big “E ”in the Snellen chart
subtends how much angle?

a. 5min
b. 1min
c. 10min
d. 20min

A

B

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14
Q

Which of the following is NOT used to correct ammetropia?

a. Contact lenses
b. Spectacles
c. Corneal transplantation
d. Cataract surgery
e. Laser refractive surgery

A

C

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15
Q

Which condition is described as having total loss of red color?

a. Protanope
b. Protanomaly
c. Deuteranope
d. Deuteranomaly

A

A

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16
Q

A lesion of the optic chiasm would most likely present with which kind of visual field defect?

a. Bilarteral hemianopia
b. Left homonymous hemianopia
c. Bitemporal hemianopia
d. Left superior homonymous hemianopia

A

C

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17
Q

A lesion in which of the following structures would most like give rise to a left homonymous hemianopia?

a. Left occipital lobe
b. Right occipital lobe
c. Left frontal lobe
d. Optic chiasm

A

B

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18
Q

Differential diagnosis for acute onset blurring of vision associated with eye pain and redness include the following, EXCEPT

a. Central retinal artery occlusion
b. Keratitis
c. Anterior uveitis
d. Angle closure glaucoma

A

A

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19
Q

A patient complains of sudden episode of transient blurring of vision which last from several seconds to a minute. Which of the following conditions can account for this symptom?

a. Error of refraction
b. Retinal detachment
c. Migraine
d. Amaurosis fugax

A

D

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20
Q

Both near vision and distance vision are usually
affected in the following conditions, EXCEPT
a. Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Presbyopia
d. Retinal detachment

A

C

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21
Q

Which of the following associations is correct?

a. Serous discharge: allergic conjunctivitis
b. Mucoid discharge: bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Purulent discharge: gonoccocal conjunctivitis
d. Mucopurulent discharge: viral conjunctivitis

A

C

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22
Q

A patient complains of sudden onset deterioration
in vision in one eye associated with eye redness and severe eye pain. There was absence of discharge or itchiness. The patient had one episode of vomiting and claims to be nauseated. You suspect:
a. Acute uveitis
b. Optic neuritis
c. Acute glaucoma
d. Endophthalmos

A

C

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23
Q 
Type of eye redness that requires immediate 
referral to an ophthalmologist is 
a. Conjunctival hyperemia 
b. Perilimbal flush 
c. Scleral congestion 
d. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
A

B

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24
Q

A patient is brought to the emergency room after sustaining injuries form a vehicular accident. He was subsequently brought to the ophthalmologist on duty for evaluation of the eyes. The first thing that you should do as the intern on duty is

a. Perform a gross eye examination
b. Determine the patient ’s visual acuity
c. Clean the periorbital area
d. Irrigate the eye to remove any foreign bodies

A

A

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25
Q

A patient was only able to read the first line of the Snellen ’s chart at a distance of 10 feet. The visual acuity should be properly recorded as

a. 1/60
b. 10/200
c. J3
d. 0.1

A

B

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26
Q

In patients with corneal scars, the best method to use in taking quantitative measurements of the intraocular pressure is by using the

a. Perkin ’s tonometer
b. Tonopen
c. Goldman tonometer
d. Schiotz tonometer

A

D

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27
Q

On fundoscopy, you note that a patient had a dull red-orange reflex in one eye. Possible causes for this would include the following EXCEPT

a. Detached retina
b. Lens opacity
c. Vitreous hemorrhage
d. Cells in the anterior chamber
e. Macular edema

A

E

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28
Q

If the physician would want to perform fundoscopic examination on a patient suspected to have a mass in the posterior segment of the eye, the better instrument to use would be:

a. B scan ultrasound
b. Direct ophthalmoscope
c. Indirect ophthalmoscopy
d. Goniolens

A

A

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29
Q

True of the direct ophthalmoscope:
a. It provides a magnified, inverted image of the
posterior segment
b. The field of view is larger compared to the
indirect ophthalmoscope
c. The image seen is bigger in comparison to
what is seen with the indirect ophthalmoscope
d. The skill involved in direct ophthalmoscopy is
more difficult to learn in comparison to indirect
ophthalmoscopy

A

C

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30
Q 
Yellow/whitish lesions seen on fundocopy may be 
due to any of the following, EXCEPT 
a. Hard exudates 
b. Microaneurysms 
c. Laser burns 
d. Drusen
A

B

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31
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Diplopia when both eyes are open

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

C

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32
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Confusion with red and green colors

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

B

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33
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Difficulty reading fine prints after age 40

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

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34
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Iridescent vision when looking at a light source

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

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35
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Starburst when looking at head lights

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

36
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Curtain-like visual field defect

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

B

37
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Smoky or cloudy vision

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

38
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Glare and haloes when outdoors

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

A

39
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Blurred vision for far, clear vision when near

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

D

40
Q

Location of visual symptom:

Loss of both lateral/outer fields of vision

a. Anterior segment problem (tear film, cornea, lens)
b. Posterior segment problem (vitreous, retina)
c. Neural problem (optic nerve, brain, cranial nerve, muscles)
d. Error of refraction

A

C

41
Q

Blurry vision of the central area is suggestive of a problem in the

a. Superior retinal vessels
b. Macula
c. Optic nerve
d. Peripheral retina
e. Vitreous

A

B

42
Q

Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment can manifest as

a. Pain
b. Squinting
c. Persistent and progressive blurry vision
d. Transient blurry vision

A

C

43
Q

This can cause vitreous floaters

a. Vitreous hemorrhage
b. Cataract
c. Retinal detachment
d. Optic disc edema

A

A

44
Q

Viterous hemorrhage can be caused by

a. Central serous chorioretinopathy
b. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy
c. Dry age-related macular degeneration
d. Grade 4 hypertensive retinopathy

A

B

45
Q

This information is important in history taking for
possible problems of the posterior pole:
a. Substance abuse or drug use
b. Occupation
c. Travel
d. Sexual practice and preference
e. All of the above

A

E

46
Q

[T/F] Floaters come naturally in the course of vitreous liquefaction or syneresis, as part of the aging process.

A

T

47
Q

[T/F] Central retinal artery occlusion is a true ocular

Emergency.

A

T

48
Q

[T/F] Central retinal vein occlusion manifests as loss of

central vision.

A

F

49
Q

[T/F] Diabetic retinopathy causes blurry vision which is
gradual in onset and progression, unless the
macula is involved in edema and/or
hemorrhage, or there is sudden onset of vitreous
hemorrhage.

A

T

50
Q

[T/F] Ischemia or hemorrhage of the occipital cortex in
stroke can cause blurry vision and visual field
abnormalities.

A

F

51
Q

[T/F] Leucocoria or a white pupil is a rare presentation

of retinoblastoma.

A

F

52
Q

[T/F] Retinoblastoma is a malignant tumor in children

ages 5 to 10 years old.

A

F

53
Q

[T/F] Nightblindness or nyctalopia is the most common

presenting symptom of retinitis pigmentosa.

A

T

54
Q

[T/F] When an elderly patient complains of sudden
onset of blurry central vision, one should think of
age-related macular degeneration.

A

T

55
Q

[T/F] The perception of small images (micropsia) in one
eye compared to the fellow eye suggests
macular edema in the eye with the bigger
image

A

F (NOT SURE)

56
Q

Sudden bright red eye, bleeding from conjunctival blood vessels

a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
b. Scleritis
c. Viral conjunctivitis
d. Dry eyes

A

A

57
Q

Most common cause of red eye due to smoke, smog or other irritiants

a. Blepharitis
b. Viral conjunctivitis
c. Eye irritation
d. Iritis

A

C

58
Q

Hypersecretion or excess formation of tear fluid

a. Allergic conjunctivitis
b. Reflex tearing
c. Eye irritation
d. Bacterial conjunctivitis

A

B

59
Q

Tearing from obstruction of the lacrimal drainage system

a. Epiphora
b. Dacrocystitis
c. Reflex tearing

A

A

60
Q

Ocular secretions or exudates resulting from an infection or inflammation

a. Discharge
b. Reflex tearing
c. Epiphora

A

A

61
Q

Tearing, mucopurulent discharge, swelling, redness and pain over the lacrimal sac with or without eye redness

a. Blepharitis
b. Dacrocystitis
c. Dacroadenitis

A

B

62
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent discharge,
eyelids macerated and stuck together in the
morning, matted lashes
a. Bacterial conjunctivitis
b. Blepharitis
c. Microbial keratitis

A

B

63
Q 
Deep redness, scleral swelling, pain, slight 
tearing, no discharge 
a. Subconjunctival hemorrhage 
b. Scleritis 
c. Conjunctivitis
A

B

64
Q 
Redness, mucoid discharge, foreign body 
sensation, no tears 
a. Dry eyes 
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis 
c. Allergic conjunctivitis 
d. Viral conjunctivitis
A

A

65
Q 
Redness, tearing, water discharge, lid swelling, 
clear vision 
a. Dry eyes 
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis 
c. Allergic conjunctivitis 
d. Viral conjunctivitis
A

D

66
Q 
Redness, tearing, itching, stringy mucoid 
discharge, puffy lids 
a. Dry eye 
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis 
c. Allergic conjunctivitis 
d. Viral conjunctivitis
A

C

67
Q

Redness, tearing, mucopurulent discharge,
swollen lids, no nasolacrimal duct obstruction
a. Dry eye
b. Bacterial conjunctivitis
c. Allergic conjunctivitis
d. Viral conjunctivitis

A

B

68
Q

Redness, tearing, water/mucopurulent/purulent discharge, pain, corneal opacity, blurring of vision, hypopyon

a. Conjunctivitis
b. Blepharitis
c. Microbial keratitis
d. Iritis

A

C

69
Q

Redness, tearing, photophobia, blurring of vision, tenderness, no discharge, small pupil, fibrin in anterior chamber

a. Conjunctivitis
b. Iritis
c. Acute glaucoma
d. Microbial keratitis

A

B

70
Q

Redness, tearing, severe pain, hard eye, steamy cornea, no discharge, pupil dilated

a. Iritis
b. Acute glaucoma
c. Microbial keratitis

A

B

71
Q

The agonist in elevating the left eye is the

a. R inferior oblique
b. L superior rectus
c. L superior oblique
d. R inferior rectus

A

B

72
Q

The yoke muscle of the right inferior rectus is the

a. R superior oblique
b. R superior rectus
c. L inferior oblique
d. L superior oblique

A

D

73
Q

The following muscles are adductors of the eye, EXCEPT

a. Superior oblique
b. Superior rectus
c. Medial rectus
d. Inferior rectus

A

A

74
Q

A patient with lateral rectus palsy will manifest as

a. Esotropia
b. Exotropia
c. Hyppertropia
d. Hypotropia

A

A

75
Q

The patient’s eyes are straight. You placed the cover in front of the right eye. Upon removing the cover, the right eye moved temporally. The patient has

a. Esophoria
b. Esotropia
c. Exophoria
d. Exotropia

A

A

76
Q

The patient has inward turning of the eye since age 1. The right eye is deviated most of the time. The left is deviated occasionally. Vision is 6/6
OU. The appropriate diagnosis is
a. Esotropia, acquired, alternating
b. Esophoria, congenital, right eye
c. Esotropia, congenital, right eye with ablyopia
d. Esophoria, acquired, alternating

A

A

77
Q

The following conditions may give rise to proptosis

a. myopia
b. optic neuritis
c. hypertrophy of the medial rectus
d. elevated pressure of the ophthalmic artery

A

C

78
Q 
Pseudoproptosis may be observed in the following 
conditions 
a. Bilateral glaucoma 
b. Myopia 
c. Ipsilateral atrophic globe 
d. Ipsilateral Horner ’s syndrome
A

B

79
Q

An abnormal exopthalmometry reading

a. 12.0mm
b. 15.5mm
c. 19.0mm
d. 23.0mm

A

D

80
Q

There is negative resiliency in the following
situation
a. Lid cellulites
b. Capillary hemangioma of the lid
c. Unilateral lid retraction in thyroid eye disease
d. Cavernous hemangioma in the central
surgical space

A

D

81
Q

Plain radiographs are recommended in which
situation?
a. Arteriovenous fistula
b. Orbital wall fracture
c. Thyroid eye disease with optic neuritis
d. Vascular orbit tumor

A

B

82
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging is recommended in the following situations, EXCEPT

a. Orbital vascular tumor
b. Orbital wall fracture
c. Orbital foreign body
d. Thyroid eye disease

A

C

83
Q

There is positive resiliency in which situation?

a. Cavernous hemangioma in the central surgical space
b. Lymphangioma in the peripheral surgical space
c. Lacrimal gland tumor
d. Capillary hemangioma of the lids

A

D

84
Q

The following maneuver may be performed on an adult patient to elicit intermittency of proptosis

a. Ask the patient to stoop forward
b. Ask the patient to look superiorly
c. Ask the patient to open and close the lids in a rapid sequence
d. Ask the patient to cry

A

A

85
Q

Pulsating exophthalmos as observed in an arteriovenous fistula is further verified by the presence of

a. An audible bruit
b. Tearing
c. Headache
d. Relative afferent papillary defect

A

A

86
Q

Acute exophthalmos is noted in the following, EXCEPT

a. Orbital cellulites
b. Inflammatory pseudotumor
c. Retrobulbar hemorrhage
d. Acute angle closure glaucoma

A

D

OS 212 [Ophthalmology] (7 decks)

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