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[OS 212] Dermatology > 2014 B > Flashcards

2014 B Flashcards

1
Q 
Marga is on duty on the nursery. She’s noticed 2 tiny smooth nodules on her left eyelid and 2 on the nose.
A.	Closed comedones
B.	Molluscumcontagiosum
C.	Milia
D.	Syringioma
A

C

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2
Q 
A 30 old businessman, stressed from work, presented with erythematous scaly patches on the forehead, cheeks, nasolabial fold. Where else would you expect to see similar lesions?
     A. Axilla
     B. Groin
     C. Webs of fingers
     D. Scalp
A

D

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3
Q

75 yoMrs. Santos consulted the clinic because of nocturnal pruritus on PE, excoriations of the wrist, beneath the breast and buttocks.
A. Psoriasis vulgaris
B. Scabies
C. Insect bites

A

B

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4
Q 
15 yo Amy developed multiple erythematous confetti-like macules, non-pruritic, non-painful, on both her lower extremities. These developed after a bout of sorethroat and slight fever. Lab results: increase RBC, decrease platelet count. Amy most probably has:
A.	Acute GN
B.	Cutaneous vasculitis
C.	Dengue fever
D.	insect bite
A

B

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5
Q

5 year old boy has scabies. You adviced mom to put permethrin on the neck to the lower parts of body. You advice that it is better to put

a. after a bath
b. before a bath
c. immediately after taking a bath
d. many hours before a bath

A

C

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6
Q

What topical ointment is best for hairy areas

a. gel
b. ointment
c. cream
d. compres

A

A

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7
Q

True of gel

a. 25% water in oil emulsion
b. 50% water in oil emulsion
c. water soluble base with cellulose
d. hydrocolloid solution

A

C

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8
Q 
Which of the following topical agents is best to apply in a dry tinea pedis?
A. saline compress
B. petrolatum
C. topical cream
D. zinc oxide powder
A

B

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9
Q

Which body surface has the greatest absorption of topical medications?

a. mucosa
b. scrotum
c. palms and soles
d. face
e. nails.

A

A

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10
Q 
A baby was brought for consult at the OPD for a firm, reddish violet subcutaneous nodule on the buttocks. Which should you check for?
	A. hypokalemia
	B. hypocalcemia
	C. hyperkalemia
	D. hypercalcemia
A

D

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11
Q 
If one parent has psoriasis, what are the chances that the offspring will develop it as well?
	A. 2%
	B. 6%
	C. 14%
	D. 41%
A

C

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12
Q 
What psoriatic nail lesion would you expect to find if the entire nail is involved?
	A. pits
	B. oil spots
	C. subungual hyperkeratosis
	D. dystrophic nail
A

D

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13
Q 
For mild psoriasis (less than 10% body surface area), the first line topical agent is:
	A. anthralin
	B. tar
	C. tazarotene
	D. calpotriol
A

A

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14
Q 
Which of the following has a role in the onset of psoriasis?
A. Smoking
B. High glycemic diet
C. Obesity
D. Staph infection
A

A

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15
Q

What is affected in psoriatic arthritis?
A. large joints of the legs
B. joints of the hips
C. distal interphalangeal joints of the fingers
D. temporomandibular joint

A

C

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16
Q 
What anti-psoriatic medication is a retinoid?
	A. methotrexate
	B. cyclosporine
	C. acitretin
	D. hydroxyurea
A

C

17
Q

A 10 yo presents with multiple ulcers with crusts on her legs. These started as insect bites which she scratched unconsciously leading to the development of these lesions. Some of the lesions have already healed but has left visible scars. What is the most likely diagnosis?

a. Impetigo
b. Ecthyma
c. Erythrasma
d. Erysipelas

A

B

18
Q

Age: child
Sex: F
Lesion: tender, inflamed, erythematous plaque with well-defined borders
Location: flexural areas

A. furuncle
B. carbuncle
C. cellulitis
D. erysipelas

A

D

19
Q 
A 1 yo presents with flaccid bullae filled with turbid fluid on his abdomen. Some of these have ruptured leaving moist, eroded plaques w/ yellowish crust. A biopsy was done on one of the intact blisters. Where is the expected level of split of the blister?
A. suprabasal
B. Subcorneal
C. Subepidermal
D. Within the spinous layer
A

C

20
Q

A 16 year-old student developed few small, fragile, dome-shaped perifollicular pustules on the nape after haircut. He is otherwise healthy. What is the appropriate treatment?

a. oral cloxacillin
b. incision and drainage
c. intralesional steroid injection
d. local care and mupirocin ointment.

A

D

21
Q

A 10week AOG pregnant woman had Herpes Simplex infection. You would:

a. give her antiseptics
b. suggest that her mode of delivery would be CS
c. treat her with acyclovir
d. advise her of the complications of neonatal herpes.

A

B (NOT SURE)

22
Q

How many vesicles should be present outside the primary dermatome in a Disseminated Herpes Zoster?

a. 20 or more
b. 30 or more
c. 10 or more
d. 40 or more

A

A

23
Q

Aside from the role of androgen in stimulating sebaceous glands of the skin in acne (seborrhoea), androgen also plays a role in:
A. chemotaxis of mast cells
B. abnormal follicle keratinisation/ comedogenesis
C. I forgot. =)
D. I forgot again. =))

A

B

24
Q

What is the most common type of acne in menarche/adrenarche?

a. comedones
b. papule
c. pustule
d. macule

A

A

25
Q

cytokine responsible for follicular keratinisation:

a. IL-1
b. IL-5
c. IL-8
d. IL-10

A

A

26
Q

Multiple pustules around the mouth and on the face mimicking acne vulgaris, occurring after chronic antibiotic use for acne is called:

a. Gram negative folliculitis
b. Periorbital dermatitis
c. Rosacea
d. Acneiform eruption

A

D

27
Q

Abnormal levels of keratinisation is associated with low levels of:

a. methionine
b. cysteine
c. linoleic acid
d. linolenic acid

A

C

28
Q

Acne is part of which endocrine disorder?

a. congenital adrenal hyperplasia
b. Addison’s disease
c. diabetes mellitus
d. hypothyroidism

A

A

29
Q

Which of the following indicates a severe type of acne?

a. pre-menstrual flare ups
b. comedones on trunk
c. infantile acne
d. nodulocystic lesions

A

D

30
Q 
What is the probability of casual contacts and medical caregivers contracting the disease from leprosy patients
     A. No risk
     B. 10%
     C. 50%
     D. 70%
A

A

31
Q

Early nerve involved in Hansen’s TT is due to
A. Bacilli
B. Destruction

A

NA

32
Q

Yellow crusted lesion
A. dermatomyositis
B. impetigo
C. alopecia

A

B

33
Q

Bald spot
A. dermatomyositis
B. impetigo
C. alopecia

A

C

34
Q

Groutton’s papules
A. dermatomyositis
B. impetigo
C. alopecia

A

A

35
Q

MMP
A. zinc-dependent proenzymes that need to be activated and are considered physiologic mediators of matrix degradation
B. mature scar
C. most important mesenchymal cell
D. critical in re-epithalation and resurfacing of the wound
E. decreased tensile strength
F. “scarless” wound healing

A

A

36
Q

Fibroblasts
A. zinc-dependent proenzymes that need to be activated and are considered physiologic mediators of matrix degradation
B. mature scar
C. most important mesenchymal cell
D. critical in re-epithalation and resurfacing of the wound
E. decreased tensile strength
F. “scarless” wound healing

A

C

37
Q

Chondroitin sulfate
A. zinc-dependent proenzymes that need to be activated and are considered physiologic mediators of matrix degradation
B. mature scar
C. most important mesenchymal cell
D. critical in re-epithalation and resurfacing of the wound
E. decreased tensile strength
F. “scarless” wound healing

A

B

38
Q

Hyalouronic acid
A. zinc-dependent proenzymes that need to be activated and are considered physiologic mediators of matrix degradation
B. mature scar
C. most important mesenchymal cell
D. critical in re-epithalation and resurfacing of the wound
E. decreased tensile strength
F. “scarless” wound healing

A

F

39
Q

Collagen type III
A. zinc-dependent proenzymes that need to be activated and are considered physiologic mediators of matrix degradation
B. mature scar
C. most important mesenchymal cell
D. critical in re-epithalation and resurfacing of the wound
E. decreased tensile strength
F. “scarless” wound healing

A

NA

[OS 212] Dermatology (7 decks)

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